Final Exam Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
Which one of the following is the MOST important for cancer cells to acquire new traits
A
loss of DNA repair function
2
Q
Given the following segment of sequence, GCTTACCGATCA, from what we covered in class so far which of the following is true?
A
this represents nucleic acid expected to be found only in the nucleus
3
Q
RNA is transcribed by ribosomes.
A
False
4
Q
Human cells in a stationary flask (sitting on a bench) appear to keep growing despite the large number of cells in the flask; this demonstrates
A
Density independence
5
Q
A malignant tumor found in the breast was designated a Stage 4 tumor. This specifically indicates ___.
A
cancer cells are spreading
6
Q
Which one of the following is the correct match of a Tumor Suppressor Protein to its function?
A
pRB, G1 to S transition
7
Q
Within the context of this class, which one of the following enzymes’ activity is the most important during the S phase of the cell cycle?
A
C. DNA polymerase
8
Q
- Angiogenesis cannot occur without anchorage independence.
A
B. False
9
Q
The cells of a 65 year old person would be expected to have high telomerase activity
A
false
10
Q
The greatest risk for getting cancer is getting older
A
True
11
Q
Cancer cells have a great potential for adaptation because they have a great capacity for genetic mutations.
A
True
12
Q
The _________________ immune system is(are) old (in an evolution framework) and is always ready to attack pathogens.
A
innate
13
Q
Malnutrition (cachexia), related to metastasis cause significant number death for many people with cancer.
A
True
14
Q
Which of the following is an example of an oncoprotein?
A
growth factor receptor shaped as if it has bonded to a growth factor.
15
Q
A cell with a gene that codes for a proto-oncoproteins can experience inappropriate cell growth.
A
False
16
Q
One way to relate the central dogma of molecular biology to cancer biology is to explain how changes in __________ can result in _________________.
A
B. gene sequence, production of oncoprotein
17
Q
In the nucleus of _________ of your non-dividing cells, you have 200 NYC phonebooks (~3 billion) worth of __________ that ultimately code for all of the genes needed to make your body work packaged in _______ pairs of chromosomes.
A
all, nucleotides, 23
18
Q
Which culture of cell was most likely the cancer cell?
A
A
19
Q
The cancer cell’s specific type of mutation was most likely a(n)
A
Addition
20
Q
The cancer cell gene would need to be on both chromosomes in the pair to affect cell cycle regulation.
A
False
21
Q
We have two copies of the gene that codes p53 – a copy of the gene on each chromosome within a chromosomal pair. If a nucleotide deletion occurs in one copy, ________ mostly likely occurs in terms of cell cycle regulation.
A
No change in function
22
Q
As a scientist testing a novel targeted drug that restores density related inhibition of cell growth, my experimental conditions must include which one below?
A
Nutrient rich broth and still flasks
23
Q
If you were to randomly choose ONE mutation out of all the mutations associated with a metastatic cancer cell, you would likely pick a(n)_____________.
A
irrelevant mutation
24
Q
Which one of the following is true about telomeres
A
they determine the number of cell divisions
25
A cell can proliferate and survive regardless of a ’messy’ genome by turning off ________.
. apoptosis
26
Generally, how many barriers to cell cycle regulation need to be broken through to get to genetic instability?
5-6
27
Which one of the following best explains how ‘landing pads’ (sites more conducive to cancer cell survival) for traveling cancer cells are established?
exosomes
28
We predict that cells that require a high density to inhibit continued growth require __________ days for tumor formation.
B. fewer number of
29
Antigens are proteins on the exterior of cells that identify cells as ________.
non-self
30
Cancer is defined as uncontrolled growth of cells. (as in period – nothing else)
False
31
Cells that have a __________ nuclear to cytoplasmic volume ratio (ratio of nuclear size to size of the rest of the cell) are benign.
Small
32
Which one of the following was discussed in class as how a cell may become independent of growth factors?
C. by having a genetic mutation that codes for a growth factor receptor that is in an ‘always on’ shape/confirmation
33
Tumors will likely remain small without __________________.
Angiogenesis
34
All of the following contribute to metastasis, but which one is the least important?
C. telomerase activity
35
A mutation to a proto-oncogene results in a non-sensical string of amino acids, this will result in a gain of function that pushes the cell cycle forward.
False
36
Large solid tumors can exhibit ‘branches’ of clonal expansion where cells in one branch may evolve to resist different environmental pressures (e.g. the immune system or exposure to a particular drug) with localized adaptations and many different mutations selected across the entire tumors. When you think about specific mutations to target for drug therapy, which one of the following is likely best to target? , is it better to target the cancer related mutations at these various branches or cancer related mutations that occurred early in carcinogenesis shared by (or almost all) tumor cells?
foundational mutations shared by all or almost all tumor cells.
37
What term refers to disorganized cell growth and is typically associated with malignant tumors?
Neoplasia
38
Mutated genes that are transcribed and translated into new forms of proteins will likely be identified as ‘non-self’ tags by the immune system.
True
39
Malignant tumor cells are poorly differentiated.
True
40
Genetic instability allows cells to acquire which one of the following?
All of these
41
An addition mutation altered a proto-oncogene resulting in an oncogene and a ‘gain of function.’
False
42
Cancer cells have a great potential for adaptation because they have a great capacity for genetic mutations.
True
43
Which one of the following statements is TRUE about this sequence,
AUCCGCUAUUGGCAUGCCGUA.
This sequence is a product of RNA polymerase.
44
A pathologist examines the microscopic characteristics of cells from a tumor biopsy. They see a clear boundary associated with the edge of the tumor and find very few cells dividing. These two characteristics suggest which one of the following?
benign tumor
45
The genome of a cell from a metastatic tumor will have a high number of driver mutations relative to the number of driver mutations in the genome of a cell from a developing cancer. I counted both answers as correct because I thought this might be confusing...more ‘driver mutations’ in cells that are metastatic versus in cells early in development of cancer.
True
46
RNA polymerase is active in the nucleus.
True
47
DNA polymerase is active in the nucleus.
True
48
The ribosome is active in the nucleus.
False
49
Which one of the following relates how information found in your genes becomes function?
Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
50
Monoclonal antibodies are made by our B cells in response to antigens.
False
51
A relevant mutation associated with a cancer ‘behaving’ as a cancer has been identified; the cancer related gene has the following sequence, AGCCTCAGGTCC. Which one of the following is most likely the type of protein associated with this gene?
Oncoprotein
52
Because incidence and mortality rates associated with lung cancer are clearly dependent on rates of smoking within populations, what aspect of carcinogenesis (development of cancer) is visually demonstrated when these trends are examined across the last 100 years?
The development of cancer is an insidious process that takes over a decade (sometimes two) to develop to a deadly metastatic cancer.
53
The most common type of breast cancer is invasive ____________.
ductal carcinoma
54
Tamoxifen binds to growth factor receptors and intercepts the signals telling a cancer cell to grow.
False
55
Which statement does NOT reflect what was presented in class about the standard treatment for DCIS types of breast cancer?
. Overall, standard treatment for DCIS significantly reduces cases of invasive breast cancer.
56
Which one of the following is a possible mode of action for some chemotherapy?
Prevent DNA synthesis in dividing cells
57
p53 is a protein known as ‘the guardian of the genome.’ It controls passage through the cell cycle. Many types of cancer cells have mutations in p53 that result in loss of function. This allows cancer cells to __________ .
All of the above
58
How does Tamoxifen, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), work?
Tamoxifen binds to estrogen receptors, preventing estrogen from binding to the receptors.
59
All of the following indicate hereditary cancer EXCEPT?
Cancer occurring in very distantly related individuals
60
Hereditary cancers refer to cases in which cancers are inherited.
False
61
Free radicals are big molecules that, like radical hippies, create cellular peace and love by offering electrons to reactive molecules in need.
True
62
Cancer can be associated with changes in the rate different genes are expressed rather than a change in the gene sequence. This can occur via __________.
epigenetic effects
63
Benz(o) pyrene is a known DNA adduct. When it enters the nucleus it appears to ‘stick’ to which nucleotide
Guanine
64
Two identical twin sisters (FAB), age 50, recently had their mammograms. A breast cancer lesion (tumor) was identified in sister A, but not sister B. Cancer is idiosyncratic in some ways, but which one below might explain why cancer appeared in sister A?
Earlier period
65
In lecture, we described dense breast tissue is a double whammy because it is associated with a greater risk for cancer and
. obscured mammograms
66
Red meat has been declared a known carcinogen by the IARC.
False
67
Nicotine is a carcinogen.
True
68
Which one of the following was NOT discussed as a known benefit of eating a variety of fruits and vegetables?
. Phytochemicals disrupt DNA adducts associated with smoking and drinking.
69
Benz(o) pyrene, found in coal tar, is known to cause nucleotide substitutions in the gene associated with the important intracellular signal transduction protein, ____________, so that it is constantly in an ‘on’ conformation.
K-Ras
70
Which one of the following sub-types has the best prognosis (best outcome)?
HR+/HER2-
71
Genetic instability allows a cancer cell to be a ‘CANcer’ cell and acquire traits that benefit the cancer. However, it also increases the odds that the cancer will express a protein the immune system recognizes as ______________.
non self
72
In an Ames test, bacteria cells exposed to a pro-mutagen experience a relatively high rate of mutations.
True
73
24. Red meat (mammal muscle) may be linked to cancer because of nitrosamines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) but is not considered a known carcinogen.
True
74
A patient starts a regimen on Chemotherapy A. For the entire duration of the treatment, the patient has awful diarrhea and eventually loses all their hair. After the cancer shows no response, the patient begins a regimen on Chemotherapy B; and after a while the patient no longer suffers from diarrhea and their hair grows back. Which one of the following could you say about Chemotherapy A
It kills actively dividing cells
75
Inheriting a high risk for cancer is often due to inheriting a mutated tumor suppressor gene. Consequently, a nonfunctional tumor suppressor gene is found in all cells of the body. The probability of a random mutation occurring in any cell of the body, which makes the second copy of that tumor suppressor gene (allele) non-functional, is _______________ the probability of random mutations occurring and disrupting both tumor suppressor alleles when the mutation is NOT inherited. (hint: probability of 1 versus 2 important mutation events)
Greater than
76
___________cancer vaccines boost the immune system to attack existing cancers; and, ____________ cancer vaccines boost the immune system to attack viruses that may cause cancer.
Treatment, preventative
77
Which one of the following statements best explains why a radical mastectomy may not cure cancer?
Cancer spreads systemically throughout the body as cancer cells enter the blood and the lymph systems.
78
Interactions between the immune system and a developing tumor selects for tumor cells which acquired the trait to produce immune system signaling proteins that deactivate Helper T cells. This is an example of....
immunoediting
79
Increasing cellular division, increases the risk that mutations in DNA will occur.
True
80
A synergistic (multiplicative) effect on the risk of cancer occurs when you combine _______ and _______.
Drinking, smoking
81
Substance Y has 10 times the mutagenic potential as substance Z.
True
82
When the three substances (X, Y, and Z) are exposed to a liver homogenate, cultures exposed to X result in 1000 colonies (on average). Substance X is ____________.
promutagen
83
A man living in Japan has a greater lifetime risk for stomach cancer than colon cancer. However, his Japanese American grandson who was born in the U.S. has a greater lifetime risk for colon cancer than stomach cancer. What explains these differences in risk?
Environment
84
One of the first drugs used to treat HIV was AZT, a nucleotide [thymine (T)] analog. AZT was first developed within the context of treating cancer. What aspect of cell growth was AZT, in particular, expected to inhibit?
DNA polymerase
85
Hormones are chemical messengers, what is one message delivered to many breast cells by estrogen.
grow and divide
86
Of the following environmental factors, which one is related to the most cancer deaths?
chemo that causes double stranded breaks
87
Breast density is a double whammy by being associated with triple negative subtypes, increasing the risk for cancer, and obstructing mammograms (decreasing detection).
TRue
88
A patient starts a regimen on Chemotherapy A. For the entire duration of the treatment, the patient has awful diarrhea and eventually loses all their hair. After the cancer shows no response, the patient begins a regimen on Chemotherapy B; and after a while the patient no longer suffers from diarrhea and their hair grows back. Which one of the following could you say about Chemotherapy A
It kills actively dividing cells
89
Which statement below best describes how naturally produced antibodies (antibodies produced by your body) work in the immune system?
Antibodies bind to antigens on cell surfaces and marks the cell for attack by immune cells.
90
Mutations that occur before conception will generally be associated with oncogenes.
False
91
Which of the following is FALSE regarding oncolytic viruses.
Oncolytic viruses replicate in both healthy and cancer cells but only lyse cancer cells.
92
After an analysis of a woman’s pedigree, her genetic counselor advises she gets tested for mutations in BCRA1/2 genes. Which of the following is NOT what the genetic counselor would identify as a risk for an inherited mutation.
Her maternal and paternal grandfathers were diagnosed with lung cancer at 75 and 69 respectively, a maternal cousin was diagnosed with skin cancer at 55, and her paternal aunt was diagnosed with cervical cancer at 49.
93
Some links between obesity and cancer have to do with the high percentage of body fat that occurs with obesity. Fat cells are associated with all of the following EXCEPT
inhibition of T cell production
94
Checkpoint inhibitors are a type of immunotherapy that prevent cancer cells from ‘turning off’ cytotoxic T cells. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding
checkpoint inhibitors.
Monoclonal antibodies result from the patient being exposed to the PD1/PD1-L proteins, much like a cancer vaccine.
95
CAR T cells have been found to be very effective in cases of advanced leukemia. These cells are genetically engineered cytotoxic T cells, which one of the following is FALSE?
CAR T cell therapy is a treatment regime consisting of a combination of genetic engineering and monoclonal antibodies.
96
The _______ protein is referred to as the ‘guardian of the genome,’ and its gene is a(n) _______ gene.
p53, tumor suppressor
97
Which of the following modality of therapy is given without curative intent, but to decrease pain and increase quality of life for a patient with terminal cancer?
Palliative
98
Why is radiation therapy given in fractionated doses, i.e. several low doses over time?
To maximize death of cancer cells and minimize death of healthy cells.
99
What is represented by v in the figure?
C. single stranded RNA
100
Which one of the viral structures indicated in the figure was actually produced by and for the human host cell?
iii
101
Which one of the viral structures indicated in the figure interacts with the CD4 receptor?
I
102
Which one of the viral structures indicated is responsible for fusion of viral envelope with host cell membrane?
ii
103
Most HPV infections clear without any symptoms experienced from the infection.
True
104
HIV attacks target cells of organs so that the resulting cell death and immune response results in organ damage and eventual body system failure.
False
105
Timothy Ray Brown is the one of three people to date that are considered cured of HIV. Which of the following factors is NOT related to his cure?
Mutated CD4 receptor
106
Nucleoside/Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors are nucleotide analogues, consequently they are often associated with side effects.
True
107
We have been unable to design a vaccine due to the high error rate of Reverse Transcriptase.
True
108
When antiretrovirals in essence ‘kill’ all active viruses, reverse transcriptase ensure that reservoirs of HIV exist.
False
109
Protease is a host cell protein that is hijacked by HIV.
False
110
Your best friend (and housemate) is HIV positive. Because of the HIV diagnosis, you both agreed upon habits to avoid sharing drinks and food. You have to be very careful.
False
111
The potential ‘Kick and Kill’ treatment to eradicate HIV from the body specifically, is designed to deal with which particular challenge to curing an HIV infected person?
HIV hides in lost genomes
112
What is the specific HIV target (antigen) of vaccines that cause our B cells to create Broadly Neutralizing Antibodies? (conservative = non mutating)
conservative parts of HIV envelope
| proteins
113
__________________ is an HIV protein most directly responsible for the existence of HIV reservoirs?
Integrase
114
HIV is a bloodborne disease, which is why mosquitos can transmit HIV.
False
115
Given that we have such challenges in creating an effective HIV vaccine and a treatment that cures a patient of HIV, the WHO designated what goal for 2020 to contain HIV infections?
90% of people infected with HIV need to know their status, 90% of those need to be on treatment, and 90% of those need undetectable viral load.
116
A friend of yours is concerned; they had a very fun and adventurous night last night but may have been exposed to HIV. They tell you they are going to go get tested for HIV and ask will you come with them. As a concerned friend, you say...
“Of course I will support you, but to avoid a false negative let’s wait a few weeks.”
117
Like the SARS-Cov-2 tests, most rapid HIV antibody tests are testing for previous HIV exposure rather than an active infection. (HIV is always an ‘active’ infection)
False
118
Which one of the following is FALSE regarding PreP?
A. Ideally, you initiate PreP as soon as you realize you may have been exposed to HIV.
119
HIV does not care about sexual orientation or who has sex with who, but risk of transmission regardless of who is having sex with who is higher with ___________ sex versus _________ sex. to HIV.
receptive, inserrtive
120
A mother is discussing with the pediatrician whether her cisgender son will get the HPV vaccine. She mentions, in confidence, that she was sexually active as teenager and never got HPV. Which one of the following is a legitimate response to this mother.
No sexually active person can be certain they never have had an HPV infection.
121
A patient presents with reddish brown spots (lesions); at what point in the clinical progression of HIV infection, as indicated in the graph, would you place this patient?
D
122
Which of the indicated components of the graph explain the decade between the predicted introduction of HIV to the U.S. and the first occurrence of AIDS?
C
123
The greatest risk of transmission would be at what point indicated on the graph?
A
124
In the above graph, the dashed line at B. would be _________ under a successful treatment regime.
Undetectable
125
At what point in the graph has the typical HIV mutated as much as the influenza virus has mutated in all of human history?
A
126
The tragedy of HIV is that the cells HIV kills are immune system cells, specifically the Helper T cells. What is NOT associated with a way in which Helper T cells die during an HIV infection?
inappropriate growth of T Cells
127
Syncytia occur because infected cells start expressing _______ on their cellular membranes.
HIV Spikes
128
Which one of the following is NOT one of the bodily fluids in which HIV is found?
Respiratory Mucus
129
The HIV associated protein responsible for biological information moving in a direction that contradicts the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is _____________.
Reverse Transcriptase
130
Moderna is initiating trials of an HIV vaccine in which mRNA specific to HIV is introduced into the muscle cells of uninfected individuals. Which ONE of the following is NOT one of the expected outcomes?
The mRNA will direct the muscle cells to produce broadly neutralizing antibodies.
131
In the U.S. nearly 50% of newly HIV infected people aged 13-24 do NOT know their HIV status.
True
132
Which one of the following is FALSE regarding the quick systemic, government backed response to HIV in Thailand?
Demonstrates that prevalence and burden of HIV is independent of government/institutional responses to public health issues.
133
We now claim that three individuals have been cured of HIV as of February 2022. What do we know the three individuals now have in common?
White blood cells with mutated CCR5 receptors
134
Which protein (one of two proteins making up the 72 spikes on the HIV particle) unfolds and inserts into the target cell membrane and initiates fusion of the HIV envelope with the target cell membrane?
gp41
135
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding antioxidants?
hahaaa! all of the above statements are TRUE
136
What is the viral protein that converts RNA into DNA?
Reverse Transcriptase
137
Which one of the following is a key component of most HAART cocktails, generally less toxic to the patient, and prevents the production of mature HIV proteins?
Protease Inhibitors (PI)
138
At what CD4+ cell count should an HIV positive patient begin antiretroviral therapy?
Any level
139
Sharing a smoothee from the local health food store with your HIV positive friend is a safe thing to do.
True
140
HPV infection (can) causes throat cancer.
True
141
It’s likely HIV was introduced into the U.S. around 1969/1970 but the resulting AIDS epidemic did not begin until 1981. Which one of the following best explains why we were unaware of the introduction of this deadly virus into the U.S. for such a long time?
The noticeable opportunistic infections of AIDS do not occur until about ten years after
infection.
142
Which one of the following is NOT a prevention method for cervical cancer.
Birth control
143
In the U.S., death due to cervical cancer is not as prevalent as it is in developing countries. To significantly reduce cervical cancer associated deaths, which one of the following would likely be the most important to provide women in developing countries?
pap smears
144
Herd immunity helps protect _________________.
Unvaccinated
145
If we think about the two main challenges to fighting and curing HIV infections, which combination of proteins should get you boiling mad when you think about the magnitude of lives lost and affected?
Reverse Transcriptase, integrase
146
Which one of the following is an important similarity between HPV and colon cancer?
All of the above
147
How did the three HIV patients that have been effectively cured solve the HIV conundrum?
All of the above
148
HIV does not discriminate based on identity. Incidence and prevalence of HIV is a function of a constellation of issues related to control over one’s body, including access to stable and safe mode of income, condoms, healthcare, and basic needs, as well as control in how and when to engage in sex or injection drug use.
True
149
Which one of the following is least likely a factor in significantly decreasing sexual transmission between HIV infected individuals and uninfected individuals?
High CD4+ cell counts
150
Which one of the following is a list of HIV proteins placed in the correct sequence of when they are active in the HIV lifecycle (from HIV engagement with host CD4+ T helper cell all the way to budding of new HIV particles )?
GP120, GP41, Integrase, Reverse Transcriptase, Protease
