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PSYC 5100 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

the application of psychological research and concepts to investigation of a crime

A

investigative psychology

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2
Q

five categories of profiling:

A
  1. psychological profiling
  2. suspect-based profiling
  3. geographical profiling
  4. crime scene profiling
  5. equivocal death analysis
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3
Q

profiling based on experience and “gut feelings” rather than on research and statistical data

A

clinical profiling

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4
Q

the ____ profiling approach is case focused and tries to infer characteristics of an offender from the analysis of evidence gathered from a specific crime or series of crimes

A

clinical

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5
Q

a procedure that employs statistical group data based on prior offenders to identify an individual offender who committed similar crimes

A

actuarial profiling

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6
Q

the naturally occurring rate of a phenomenon within a given population

A

base rate

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7
Q

the process of identifying personality traits, behavioral tendencies, and demographic variables of an offender based on characteristics of the crime

A

profiling

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8
Q

process of determining the likelihood and seriousness of harm carried out by a person who displayed warning signs, such as making veiled oral or written threats

A

threat assessment

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9
Q

a process to evaluate individuals who have violated social norms or displayed bizarre behavior, particularly when they appear menacing or unpredictable

A

risk assessment

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10
Q

controversial and potentially illegal method that tries to identify an offender based on characteristics of prior offenders who have committed similar crimes

A

suspect-based profiling

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11
Q

illegal singling out of someone (ex. by law enforcement) solely on the basis of his or her race or ethnicity

A

racial or ethnic profiling

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12
Q

a type of profiling that focuses on the location of the crime and how it relates to the residence and/or base of operations of the offender

A

geographic profiling

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13
Q

one of several forms of profiling which refers to examining features at the scene of the crime to discern characteristics about the offender (also referred to as offender profiling)

A

crime scene profiling

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14
Q

any behavior that goes beyond what is necessary to commit the crime

A

signature

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15
Q

____ signature is left deliberately by the offender, whereas ____ signature is beyond the offender’s awareness

A

crime scene signature; psychological signature

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16
Q

the intentional alteration of a crime scene before the arrival of the police

A

staging

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17
Q

self arousal and gratification of sexual desire without a partner or partners

A

autoeroticism

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18
Q

a behavioral pattern found at the crime scene whereby the offender tries to psychologically “undo” the murder

A

undoing

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19
Q

indicates planning and premeditation on the part of the offender. in other words, the crime scene shows signs that the offender maintained control of himself or herself and of the victim, if it is a crime against a person

A

organized crime scene

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20
Q

demonstrates that the offender committed the crime without careful planning. in other words, the crime scene indicators suggest the person acted on impulse, in rage, or under extreme excitement

A

disorganized crime scene

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21
Q

indicates that the nature of the crime demonstrates both organized and disorganized behavioral patterns

A

mixed crime scene

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22
Q

this approach ties one individual to two or more similar crimes

A

case linkage analysis (CLA)

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23
Q

seeking evidence to confirm one’s own preconceived notions about a person or situation

A

confirmation bias

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24
Q

reconstruction of the personality profile and cognitive features (especially intentions) of deceased individuals
-also referred to as psychological autopsy or equivocal death analysis

A

reconstructive psychological evaluation (RPE)

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25
Q

postmortem analysis often reserved for cases in which suicide occurred or is suspected or alleged
-frequently done to determine the reasons and precipitating factors for the death

A

psychological autopsy

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26
Q

primary investigative methods for crime scene or offender profiling (3)

A
  1. information from the scene of the crime
  2. interviews with victims and witnesses
  3. linkage analysis
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27
Q

primary investigative methods for psychological profiling

A

risk and threat assessment methods and procedures

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28
Q

primary investigative methods for geographical profiling

A

computer models of typical spatial behavioral patterns of offenders

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29
Q

primary investigative methods for suspect-based profiling

A

base-rate information of previous offenders

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30
Q

primary investigative methods for equivocal death analysis (2)

A
  1. interviews and background information
  2. reviews of records and documents
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31
Q

incidents in which an individual (or individuals) kill a number of individuals (usually a minimum of three over time)

A

serial murder

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32
Q

the killing of three or more individuals without any cooling-off period, usually at two or more locations

A

spree murder

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33
Q

the unlawful killing of three or more persons at a single location with no cooling-off period between murders

A

mass murder

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34
Q

the number of serial murderers in the united states has ____ over time

A

decreased

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35
Q

some have estimated that there are about ___ - ___ serial murderers active at any given point in the united states

A

35-40

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36
Q

serial killers generally select victims based on three factors:

A
  1. availability
  2. vulnerability
  3. desirability
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37
Q

this refers to the lifestyle of the victim or the circumstances in which the victim is involved

A

availability

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38
Q

this pertains to the degree to which the victim is susceptible to attack by the offender

A

vulnerability

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39
Q

this refers to the appeal of the victim to the offender; it may involve such victim characteristics as race, gender, ethnicity, age, occupation, hair color, sexual appeal, or other specific features preferred by the offender

A

desirability

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40
Q

most serial killers frequently commit crimes within comfort zones that are often defined by an ___ point, such as their residence, employment, or the residence of a relative

A

anchor

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41
Q

only about ___ of female offenders killed strangers, in contrast to male offenders who almost exclusively killed strangers

A

1/3

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42
Q

the average number of victims murdered by female serial offenders is ___

A

9

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43
Q

most victims of female serial killers are ___, ___, or ___

A

husbands, former husbands, or suitors

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44
Q

traditionally, female serial killers murder primarily for ____ or ___ gain

A

material or monetary gain

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45
Q

typical method of killing for female serial murderers

A

poison or pills

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46
Q

the motivation of health care workers’ serial killings are variable: (5)

A

recognition
revenge
attention
power
control

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47
Q

a situation in which an individual enters a public place or barricades himself or herself inside a public building, such as a fast food restaurant, and randomly kills patrons and other individuals

A

classic mass murder

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48
Q

a situation in which at least three family members are killed (usually by another family member)

A

family mass murder

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49
Q

an individual engaged in killing or attempting to kill in a public area

A

active shooter

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50
Q

five-category typology based on the motivations for mass killings:

A
  1. revenge
  2. power
  3. loyalty
  4. profit
  5. terror
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51
Q

within this typology, the mass murderer seeks to get even with a group of people he dislikes

A

revenge typology

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52
Q

this mass murderer enjoys and craves the fear they engender and the immense control they have over their victims

A

power typology

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53
Q

usually, the need for ___ and ___ go together

A

revenge and power

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54
Q

this mass murderer is inspired to kill by a warped sense of love, usually based on a desire to save their loved ones from misery and hardship

A

loyalty typology

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55
Q

this typology is most commonly found in family mass murder

A

loyalty

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56
Q

this typology is classified by the intention to eliminate victims and witnesses to a crime, such as a robbery, also sending the message to other potential witnesses that the same thing could happen to them if they try to testify to authorities

A

profit typology

57
Q

the perpetrator in this typology wants to send a message through a horrific murderous rampage

A

terror typology

58
Q

a term for conduct, usually on the part of employees, that qualifies as emotional harm or minor physical harm to other employees (distinct from workplace violence)

A

workplace aggression

59
Q

aggressive actions, including deaths, that occur at the workplace (not necessarily caused by those who work within the organization)

A

workplace violence

60
Q

4 types of workplace violence

A

type 1: criminal intent
type 2: customer/client/patients
type 3: co-worker
type 4: personal

61
Q

this offender has no legitimate relationship to the workplace or the victim and usually enters the workplace to commit a criminal action such as a robbery or theft

A

type 1 - criminal intent

62
Q

common victims of type 1 offenders

A

small, late-night retail establishments, such as convenience stores and restaurants, and taxi drivers

63
Q

this offender is the recipient of some service provided by the victim or workplace and may be either a current or former client, patient, student, customer, or inmate or person under correctional supervision

A

type 2

64
Q

this offender has an employment-related involvement with the workplace (the act of violence is usually committed by a current or former employee, supervisor, or manager who has a dispute with another employee of the workplace

A

type 3 - co-worker

65
Q

this offender is usually referred to as the “disgruntled employee” and is often someone who has been fired, demoted, or lost benefits

A

type 3 - co-worker

66
Q

the killing of someone of higher authority than the perpetrator

A

authority homicide

67
Q

this offender has an indirect involvement with the workplace because of a relationship with an employee (may be a current or former spouse or partner, someone who was in a dating relationship with the employee, or a relative or friend)

A

type 4 - personal

68
Q

which type accounts for the vast majority of violence and homicides?

A

type one - criminal intent

69
Q

robbers and other assailants account for ___% of workplace homicides

A

70.3%

70
Q

work associates account for ___% of workplace homicides

A

21.4%

71
Q

relatives account for ___% of workplace homicides

A

4%

72
Q

terrorism perpetrated by individuals and/or groups inspired by or associated with primarily US-based movements that espouse extremist ideologies of political, religious, social, or environmental nature

A

domestic terrorism

73
Q

this form of terrorism refers to violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of criminal laws and are under the direction of a foreign government, group, organization, or person

A

international terrorism

74
Q

extremist groups that adhere to an antigovernment or racist ideology and often engage in a variety of hate crimes and violence

A

right-wing extremists

75
Q

political activists who move from activism to violence

A

left wing extremists

76
Q

persons whose activism revolves around one issue and ultimately turns to violence

A

special interest extremists

77
Q

environmental activists who have used terrorist tactics to draw attention to dangers in or to the environment

A

radical environmental groups

78
Q

terrorist activities carried out with the use of nuclear, biological, or chemical substances (also sometimes referred to as bioterrorism)

A

nuclear/biological/chemical (NBC) terrorism

79
Q

those motivated by goals of the organization they belong to and the possible consequences of their actions

A

rationally motivated terrorists

80
Q

motivated by their own sense of failure or inadequacy

A

psychologically motivated terrorists

81
Q

those who are motivated by fear of irreparable damage to their ways of living, national heritage, or culture

A

culturally motivated terrorists

82
Q

a learned passive and withdrawn response in the face of perceived hopelessness

A

learned helplessness or reactive depression

83
Q

relating to terrorism, theory proposes that terrorist wants to be meaningful and accomplish something in his or her life

A

quest for significance theory

84
Q

model for engaging in terrorist activity that sees the person as afraid of own mortality and believes engaging in terrorism will reduce this fear

A

terror management theory

85
Q

tendency of groups to make decisions that are more extreme than if the same decisions were made by individuals independent of the group

A

risky shift

86
Q

terrorist who operates alone, or occasionally with one or two others (may or may not be sympathetic to the goals of an established terrorist organization)

A

lone wolf terrorist

87
Q

the scapegoating or demonizing of one cultural group by members of another cultural group (refers to the emergence of terrorist groups)

A

cultural devaluation

88
Q

a psychological process that allows one to justify committing reprehensible actions

A

cognitive restructuring

89
Q

3 components of cognitive restructuring:

A
  1. moral justification
  2. euphemistic language
  3. advantageous comparison
90
Q

the process of convincing oneself that one’s actions are worthy and have a moral and good purpose

A

moral justification

91
Q

based on the well-known research finding that language shapes thought patterns on which people base many of their actions
-people can display more cruelty or at least can feel better about what they are doing when their conduct is given a sanitized or neutral label

A

euphemistic langauge

92
Q

terrorists are convinced that their way of life and fundamental cultural values are superior to those they attack

A

advantageous comparison

93
Q

engaging in actions that obscure the identity of the victim, such as excessive facial battery, or treating victims like objects rather than human beings

A

dehumanization

94
Q

a concept that allows an individual to deny responsibility for an action because he or she was told to perform it by someone higher in authority (also referred to as obedience to authority or strong respect for authority)

A

displacement of responsibility

95
Q

a process by which individuals feel they cannot be identified, primarily because they are disguised or are subsumed within a group

A

deindividuation

96
Q

clinical condition that involves intense sexual arousal fantasies and urges directed at children

A

pedophilia

97
Q

the attraction to young adolescent girls or boys for sexual gratification by adults, usually males

A

hebephilia

98
Q

sex abuse in which victims are outside the immediate or extended family

A

extrafamilial child molestation

99
Q

the clinical term for a sexual condition exhibited in extreme fantasies, urges, or behaviors involving nonhuman objects, suffering or humiliation of oneself or one’s partner, or children or other nonconsenting persons

A

paraphilia

100
Q

in sexual assault, offending against victims regardless of their age or other characteristics

A

crossover offending

101
Q

child sex abuse where victims are within the immediate or extended family

A

intrafamilial child molestation

102
Q

pertains to sexual abuse and assault when perpetrator and victim are siblings

A

sibling sexual abuse

103
Q

refers to beliefs and attitudes of many criminal sexual offenders that relationships with children are more emotionally and socially satisfying than relationships with adults

A

emotional congruence with children (ECWC)

104
Q

a child sex abuser who demonstrates a long-standing, exclusive preference for children as both sexual and social companions (also called immature child sex offender)

A

fixated child sex offender

105
Q

one who had fairly normal relationships with adults but later reverted to children for sexual and social companionship because of feelings of inadequacy

A

regressed child sex offender

106
Q

an adult who seeks children almost exclusively for sexual gratification

A

exploitative child sex offender

107
Q

an adult who victimizes children for both sexual and aggressive purposes

A

aggressive (sadistic) child sex offender

108
Q

emerging online threat to scare minors into providing updated images or payment to avoid disclosure of their past postings

A

sextortion

109
Q

an approach to therapy that focuses on changing beliefs, fantasies, attitudes, and rationalizations that justify and perpetuate antisocial or other problematic behavior (often used in the treatment of sex offenders)

A

cognitive behavior therapy

110
Q

prevalence of child sex abuse in girls

A

1 in 4

111
Q

prevalence of child sex abuse in boys

A

1 in 20

112
Q

are younger or older children more vulnerable?

A

younger

113
Q

what characteristics do child sex offenders use to select their victims? (3)

A
  1. typically known to offender
  2. submissive nature
  3. immature physical appearance
114
Q

true or false: child sex offenders are almost always male

A

true

115
Q

true or false: child sex offenders have adequate interpersonal skills

A

false; inadequate

116
Q

do child sex offenders often have problems with alcohol?

A

yes

117
Q

do child sex offenders often have unstable work histories?

A

yes

118
Q

true or false: child sex offenders are often high school dropouts

A

true

119
Q

interpersonal and intimacy deficits of child sex offenders (3)

A
  1. low social competence
  2. poor self-esteem
  3. emotional congruence with children
120
Q

4 classifications of male child sex offender patterns

A
  1. fixated type
  2. regressed type
  3. exploitative type
  4. aggressive or sadistic type
121
Q

the MTC: CM3 divides the regressed and fixated types into three separate factors:

A
  1. degree of fixation on children
  2. level of social competence achieved
  3. the amount of contact an offender has with children
122
Q

female sex offender typology

A

heterosexual nurturers

123
Q

sexual arousal theory

A

atypical stimuli is learned

124
Q

cognitive distortions are similar to ___

A

rape myths

125
Q

cognitive distortions include problems in ___ (3)

A

executive, neurocognitive functioning, and prefrontal processing

126
Q

sex trafficking is the ___ leading criminal enterprise in the world

A

third

127
Q

victims of sex trafficking are

A

women and girls

128
Q

sex trafficking offenders establish ___ relationships with potential victims

A

trusting

129
Q

____ is an issue within the treatment of child sex offenders

A

motivation

130
Q

offenders of internet-facilitated sexual offending are often

A

non-hispanic white, single, and unemployed

131
Q

internet-facilitated sexual offenders are slightly ___ than contact sex offenders

A

younger

132
Q

four components of rapid risk assessment for sex offender recidivism

A
  1. prior sex offenses
  2. age
  3. ever targeted male victims
  4. ever having an extrafamilial victim
133
Q

risk assessment for child sex offenders (3 components)

A
  1. social isolation
  2. sexual preoccupation
  3. multiple paraphilias
134
Q

some juvenile sex offenders are socially ___ and ___

A

isolated and inadequate

135
Q

some juvenile sex offenders are highly ___ and ___

A

impulsive and coercive

136
Q

who developed offender profiling?

A

david canter

137
Q

true or false: mass murder is carefully planned and deliberate

A

true

138
Q

do mass murderers have a fascination with guns?

A

yes

139
Q

this killer seeks revenge or wants to be famous anonymously or even for profit

A

set and run killer

PSYC 5100 (4 decks)

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