Final Exam Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
the application of psychological research and concepts to investigation of a crime
A
investigative psychology
2
Q
five categories of profiling:
A
- psychological profiling
- suspect-based profiling
- geographical profiling
- crime scene profiling
- equivocal death analysis
3
Q
profiling based on experience and “gut feelings” rather than on research and statistical data
A
clinical profiling
4
Q
the ____ profiling approach is case focused and tries to infer characteristics of an offender from the analysis of evidence gathered from a specific crime or series of crimes
A
clinical
5
Q
a procedure that employs statistical group data based on prior offenders to identify an individual offender who committed similar crimes
A
actuarial profiling
6
Q
the naturally occurring rate of a phenomenon within a given population
A
base rate
7
Q
the process of identifying personality traits, behavioral tendencies, and demographic variables of an offender based on characteristics of the crime
A
profiling
8
Q
process of determining the likelihood and seriousness of harm carried out by a person who displayed warning signs, such as making veiled oral or written threats
A
threat assessment
9
Q
a process to evaluate individuals who have violated social norms or displayed bizarre behavior, particularly when they appear menacing or unpredictable
A
risk assessment
10
Q
controversial and potentially illegal method that tries to identify an offender based on characteristics of prior offenders who have committed similar crimes
A
suspect-based profiling
11
Q
illegal singling out of someone (ex. by law enforcement) solely on the basis of his or her race or ethnicity
A
racial or ethnic profiling
12
Q
a type of profiling that focuses on the location of the crime and how it relates to the residence and/or base of operations of the offender
A
geographic profiling
13
Q
one of several forms of profiling which refers to examining features at the scene of the crime to discern characteristics about the offender (also referred to as offender profiling)
A
crime scene profiling
14
Q
any behavior that goes beyond what is necessary to commit the crime
A
signature
15
Q
____ signature is left deliberately by the offender, whereas ____ signature is beyond the offender’s awareness
A
crime scene signature; psychological signature
16
Q
the intentional alteration of a crime scene before the arrival of the police
A
staging
17
Q
self arousal and gratification of sexual desire without a partner or partners
A
autoeroticism
18
Q
a behavioral pattern found at the crime scene whereby the offender tries to psychologically “undo” the murder
A
undoing
19
Q
indicates planning and premeditation on the part of the offender. in other words, the crime scene shows signs that the offender maintained control of himself or herself and of the victim, if it is a crime against a person
A
organized crime scene
20
Q
demonstrates that the offender committed the crime without careful planning. in other words, the crime scene indicators suggest the person acted on impulse, in rage, or under extreme excitement
A
disorganized crime scene
21
Q
indicates that the nature of the crime demonstrates both organized and disorganized behavioral patterns
A
mixed crime scene
22
Q
this approach ties one individual to two or more similar crimes
A
case linkage analysis (CLA)
23
Q
seeking evidence to confirm one’s own preconceived notions about a person or situation
A
confirmation bias
24
Q
reconstruction of the personality profile and cognitive features (especially intentions) of deceased individuals
-also referred to as psychological autopsy or equivocal death analysis
A
reconstructive psychological evaluation (RPE)
25
postmortem analysis often reserved for cases in which suicide occurred or is suspected or alleged
-frequently done to determine the reasons and precipitating factors for the death
psychological autopsy
26
primary investigative methods for crime scene or offender profiling (3)
1. information from the scene of the crime
2. interviews with victims and witnesses
3. linkage analysis
27
primary investigative methods for psychological profiling
risk and threat assessment methods and procedures
28
primary investigative methods for geographical profiling
computer models of typical spatial behavioral patterns of offenders
29
primary investigative methods for suspect-based profiling
base-rate information of previous offenders
30
primary investigative methods for equivocal death analysis (2)
1. interviews and background information
2. reviews of records and documents
31
incidents in which an individual (or individuals) kill a number of individuals (usually a minimum of three over time)
serial murder
32
the killing of three or more individuals without any cooling-off period, usually at two or more locations
spree murder
33
the unlawful killing of three or more persons at a single location with no cooling-off period between murders
mass murder
34
the number of serial murderers in the united states has ____ over time
decreased
35
some have estimated that there are about ___ - ___ serial murderers active at any given point in the united states
35-40
36
serial killers generally select victims based on three factors:
1. availability
2. vulnerability
3. desirability
37
this refers to the lifestyle of the victim or the circumstances in which the victim is involved
availability
38
this pertains to the degree to which the victim is susceptible to attack by the offender
vulnerability
39
this refers to the appeal of the victim to the offender; it may involve such victim characteristics as race, gender, ethnicity, age, occupation, hair color, sexual appeal, or other specific features preferred by the offender
desirability
40
most serial killers frequently commit crimes within comfort zones that are often defined by an ___ point, such as their residence, employment, or the residence of a relative
anchor
41
only about ___ of female offenders killed strangers, in contrast to male offenders who almost exclusively killed strangers
1/3
42
the average number of victims murdered by female serial offenders is ___
9
43
most victims of female serial killers are ___, ___, or ___
husbands, former husbands, or suitors
44
traditionally, female serial killers murder primarily for ____ or ___ gain
material or monetary gain
45
typical method of killing for female serial murderers
poison or pills
46
the motivation of health care workers' serial killings are variable: (5)
recognition
revenge
attention
power
control
47
a situation in which an individual enters a public place or barricades himself or herself inside a public building, such as a fast food restaurant, and randomly kills patrons and other individuals
classic mass murder
48
a situation in which at least three family members are killed (usually by another family member)
family mass murder
49
an individual engaged in killing or attempting to kill in a public area
active shooter
50
five-category typology based on the motivations for mass killings:
1. revenge
2. power
3. loyalty
4. profit
5. terror
51
within this typology, the mass murderer seeks to get even with a group of people he dislikes
revenge typology
52
this mass murderer enjoys and craves the fear they engender and the immense control they have over their victims
power typology
53
usually, the need for ___ and ___ go together
revenge and power
54
this mass murderer is inspired to kill by a warped sense of love, usually based on a desire to save their loved ones from misery and hardship
loyalty typology
55
this typology is most commonly found in family mass murder
loyalty
56
this typology is classified by the intention to eliminate victims and witnesses to a crime, such as a robbery, also sending the message to other potential witnesses that the same thing could happen to them if they try to testify to authorities
profit typology
57
the perpetrator in this typology wants to send a message through a horrific murderous rampage
terror typology
58
a term for conduct, usually on the part of employees, that qualifies as emotional harm or minor physical harm to other employees (distinct from workplace violence)
workplace aggression
59
aggressive actions, including deaths, that occur at the workplace (not necessarily caused by those who work within the organization)
workplace violence
60
4 types of workplace violence
type 1: criminal intent
type 2: customer/client/patients
type 3: co-worker
type 4: personal
61
this offender has no legitimate relationship to the workplace or the victim and usually enters the workplace to commit a criminal action such as a robbery or theft
type 1 - criminal intent
62
common victims of type 1 offenders
small, late-night retail establishments, such as convenience stores and restaurants, and taxi drivers
63
this offender is the recipient of some service provided by the victim or workplace and may be either a current or former client, patient, student, customer, or inmate or person under correctional supervision
type 2
64
this offender has an employment-related involvement with the workplace (the act of violence is usually committed by a current or former employee, supervisor, or manager who has a dispute with another employee of the workplace
type 3 - co-worker
65
this offender is usually referred to as the "disgruntled employee" and is often someone who has been fired, demoted, or lost benefits
type 3 - co-worker
66
the killing of someone of higher authority than the perpetrator
authority homicide
67
this offender has an indirect involvement with the workplace because of a relationship with an employee (may be a current or former spouse or partner, someone who was in a dating relationship with the employee, or a relative or friend)
type 4 - personal
68
which type accounts for the vast majority of violence and homicides?
type one - criminal intent
69
robbers and other assailants account for ___% of workplace homicides
70.3%
70
work associates account for ___% of workplace homicides
21.4%
71
relatives account for ___% of workplace homicides
4%
72
terrorism perpetrated by individuals and/or groups inspired by or associated with primarily US-based movements that espouse extremist ideologies of political, religious, social, or environmental nature
domestic terrorism
73
this form of terrorism refers to violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of criminal laws and are under the direction of a foreign government, group, organization, or person
international terrorism
74
extremist groups that adhere to an antigovernment or racist ideology and often engage in a variety of hate crimes and violence
right-wing extremists
75
political activists who move from activism to violence
left wing extremists
76
persons whose activism revolves around one issue and ultimately turns to violence
special interest extremists
77
environmental activists who have used terrorist tactics to draw attention to dangers in or to the environment
radical environmental groups
78
terrorist activities carried out with the use of nuclear, biological, or chemical substances (also sometimes referred to as bioterrorism)
nuclear/biological/chemical (NBC) terrorism
79
those motivated by goals of the organization they belong to and the possible consequences of their actions
rationally motivated terrorists
80
motivated by their own sense of failure or inadequacy
psychologically motivated terrorists
81
those who are motivated by fear of irreparable damage to their ways of living, national heritage, or culture
culturally motivated terrorists
82
a learned passive and withdrawn response in the face of perceived hopelessness
learned helplessness or reactive depression
83
relating to terrorism, theory proposes that terrorist wants to be meaningful and accomplish something in his or her life
quest for significance theory
84
model for engaging in terrorist activity that sees the person as afraid of own mortality and believes engaging in terrorism will reduce this fear
terror management theory
85
tendency of groups to make decisions that are more extreme than if the same decisions were made by individuals independent of the group
risky shift
86
terrorist who operates alone, or occasionally with one or two others (may or may not be sympathetic to the goals of an established terrorist organization)
lone wolf terrorist
87
the scapegoating or demonizing of one cultural group by members of another cultural group (refers to the emergence of terrorist groups)
cultural devaluation
88
a psychological process that allows one to justify committing reprehensible actions
cognitive restructuring
89
3 components of cognitive restructuring:
1. moral justification
2. euphemistic language
3. advantageous comparison
90
the process of convincing oneself that one's actions are worthy and have a moral and good purpose
moral justification
91
based on the well-known research finding that language shapes thought patterns on which people base many of their actions
-people can display more cruelty or at least can feel better about what they are doing when their conduct is given a sanitized or neutral label
euphemistic langauge
92
terrorists are convinced that their way of life and fundamental cultural values are superior to those they attack
advantageous comparison
93
engaging in actions that obscure the identity of the victim, such as excessive facial battery, or treating victims like objects rather than human beings
dehumanization
94
a concept that allows an individual to deny responsibility for an action because he or she was told to perform it by someone higher in authority (also referred to as obedience to authority or strong respect for authority)
displacement of responsibility
95
a process by which individuals feel they cannot be identified, primarily because they are disguised or are subsumed within a group
deindividuation
96
clinical condition that involves intense sexual arousal fantasies and urges directed at children
pedophilia
97
the attraction to young adolescent girls or boys for sexual gratification by adults, usually males
hebephilia
98
sex abuse in which victims are outside the immediate or extended family
extrafamilial child molestation
99
the clinical term for a sexual condition exhibited in extreme fantasies, urges, or behaviors involving nonhuman objects, suffering or humiliation of oneself or one's partner, or children or other nonconsenting persons
paraphilia
100
in sexual assault, offending against victims regardless of their age or other characteristics
crossover offending
101
child sex abuse where victims are within the immediate or extended family
intrafamilial child molestation
102
pertains to sexual abuse and assault when perpetrator and victim are siblings
sibling sexual abuse
103
refers to beliefs and attitudes of many criminal sexual offenders that relationships with children are more emotionally and socially satisfying than relationships with adults
emotional congruence with children (ECWC)
104
a child sex abuser who demonstrates a long-standing, exclusive preference for children as both sexual and social companions (also called immature child sex offender)
fixated child sex offender
105
one who had fairly normal relationships with adults but later reverted to children for sexual and social companionship because of feelings of inadequacy
regressed child sex offender
106
an adult who seeks children almost exclusively for sexual gratification
exploitative child sex offender
107
an adult who victimizes children for both sexual and aggressive purposes
aggressive (sadistic) child sex offender
108
emerging online threat to scare minors into providing updated images or payment to avoid disclosure of their past postings
sextortion
109
an approach to therapy that focuses on changing beliefs, fantasies, attitudes, and rationalizations that justify and perpetuate antisocial or other problematic behavior (often used in the treatment of sex offenders)
cognitive behavior therapy
110
prevalence of child sex abuse in girls
1 in 4
111
prevalence of child sex abuse in boys
1 in 20
112
are younger or older children more vulnerable?
younger
113
what characteristics do child sex offenders use to select their victims? (3)
1. typically known to offender
2. submissive nature
3. immature physical appearance
114
true or false: child sex offenders are almost always male
true
115
true or false: child sex offenders have adequate interpersonal skills
false; inadequate
116
do child sex offenders often have problems with alcohol?
yes
117
do child sex offenders often have unstable work histories?
yes
118
true or false: child sex offenders are often high school dropouts
true
119
interpersonal and intimacy deficits of child sex offenders (3)
1. low social competence
2. poor self-esteem
3. emotional congruence with children
120
4 classifications of male child sex offender patterns
1. fixated type
2. regressed type
3. exploitative type
4. aggressive or sadistic type
121
the MTC: CM3 divides the regressed and fixated types into three separate factors:
1. degree of fixation on children
2. level of social competence achieved
3. the amount of contact an offender has with children
122
female sex offender typology
heterosexual nurturers
123
sexual arousal theory
atypical stimuli is learned
124
cognitive distortions are similar to ___
rape myths
125
cognitive distortions include problems in ___ (3)
executive, neurocognitive functioning, and prefrontal processing
126
sex trafficking is the ___ leading criminal enterprise in the world
third
127
victims of sex trafficking are
women and girls
128
sex trafficking offenders establish ___ relationships with potential victims
trusting
129
____ is an issue within the treatment of child sex offenders
motivation
130
offenders of internet-facilitated sexual offending are often
non-hispanic white, single, and unemployed
131
internet-facilitated sexual offenders are slightly ___ than contact sex offenders
younger
132
four components of rapid risk assessment for sex offender recidivism
1. prior sex offenses
2. age
3. ever targeted male victims
4. ever having an extrafamilial victim
133
risk assessment for child sex offenders (3 components)
1. social isolation
2. sexual preoccupation
3. multiple paraphilias
134
some juvenile sex offenders are socially ___ and ___
isolated and inadequate
135
some juvenile sex offenders are highly ___ and ___
impulsive and coercive
136
who developed offender profiling?
david canter
137
true or false: mass murder is carefully planned and deliberate
true
138
do mass murderers have a fascination with guns?
yes
139
this killer seeks revenge or wants to be famous anonymously or even for profit
set and run killer
