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PSYC 5100 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

an individual who continually commits crimes (does not usually qualify as a psychopath)

A

sociopath

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2
Q

a person who demonstrates a discernible cluster of psychological, interpersonal, and neurophysical features that distinguish that person from the general population

A

psychopath

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3
Q

what are the three categories of psychopaths?

A

primary, secondary (neurotic), and dyssocial

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4
Q

the “true” psychopath - this individual demonstrates those physiological and behavioral features that represent psychopathy

A

primary psychopath

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5
Q

individual with psychopathic characteristics, but who commits antisocial acts because of severe emotional problems or inner conflicts (distinct from primary psychopath)

A

secondary psychopath

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6
Q

individual with psychopathic characteristics who is antisocial because of social learning and does not possess the features of the primary psychopath

A

dyssocial psychopath

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7
Q

a disorder characterized by a history of continuous behavior in which the rights of others are violated

A

antisocial personality disorder (APD)

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8
Q

a primary psychopath who engages in repetitive antisocial or criminal behavior

A

criminal psychopath

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9
Q

a characteristic found in psychopaths whereby the words they speak are devoid of emotional sincerity

A

semantic aphasia

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10
Q

developed by Robert Hare, currently the best known instrument for the measurement of criminal psychopathy

A

psychopathy checklist (PCL)

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11
Q

this checklist assesses the affective (emotional), interpersonal, behavioral, and social deviance facets of psychopathy from various sources, including self-reports, behavioral observations, and collateral sources, such as parents, family members, friends, and arrest and court records

A

PCL-R

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12
Q

a statistical procedure by which underlying patterns, factors, or dimensions are identified among a series of scale items

A

factor analysis

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13
Q

a behavioral dimension, identified through factor analysis, representing the interpersonal and emotional aspects of psychopathy

A

factor 1

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14
Q

factor 1 relates to ____

A

interpersonal and emotional components

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15
Q

lying, conning, and manipulating others; superficial charm; grandiose self-worth are characteristic of which factor?

A

factor 1

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16
Q

a behavioral dimension representing the socially deviant lifestyle characteristics of psychopaths

A

factor 2

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17
Q

factor 2 relates to ____

A

socially deviant lifestyle

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18
Q

irresponsibility; sensation seeking; lack of realistic goals; poor planning; impulsivity relate to which factor?

A

factor 2

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19
Q

a core feature of psychopathy that refers to emotional shallowness, callousness, and lack of empathy

A

factor 3

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20
Q

factor 3 relates to ____

A

affective

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21
Q

shallow emotions; callousness; little empathy; failure to accept responsibility for actions relate to which factor?

A

factor 3

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22
Q

model of psychopathy that incorporates antisocial behavior

A

four-factor model

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23
Q

factor 4 relates to ____

A

antisocial tendencies

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24
Q

poor self-regulation; persistent criminal activity; antisocial behavior; early behavior problems relate to which factor?

A

factor 4

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25
Q

recent model focusing on callous-unemotional traits, disinhibition, and boldness

A

triarchic psychopathy model (TriPM)

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26
Q

what are the three dimensions of the triarchic psychopathy model?

A

meanness, disinhibition/externalizing proneness, and boldness/fearless dominance

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27
Q

in psychopathy research, meanness is proposed as an additional feature characterizing the psychopathic personality (refers to generally cruel verbal or physical behavior toward others)

A

meanness trait

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28
Q

collection of traits in juveniles believed to be precursors of adult psychopathy (also a key characteristic of adult psychopaths)

A

callous-unemotional (CU) traits

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29
Q

this trait refers to impulsivity, poor self-regulation, low frustration tolerance, irresponsibility, alienation, and unreasonable risk taking

A

disinhibition trait (externalizing proneness)

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30
Q

this trait consists of personality characteristics of charisma, fearlessness, novelty seeking, calmness in the face of danger, and low stress reactivity

A

boldness trait (fearless dominance)

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31
Q

a cluster of personality traits that are associated with criminal psychopathy

A

dark triad

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32
Q

three components of the dark triad:

A

psychopathy, narcissism, and machiavellianism

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33
Q

what is machiavellianism?

A

master manipulation of others

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34
Q

there are _____ female than male psychopaths, both in the general population and among persons convicted of crime

A

fewer

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35
Q

in the general population, the estimated prevalence of psychopathy among men is ____%

A

1%

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36
Q

prevalence rate of psychopathy for female offenders in the jail setting

A

15.5%

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37
Q

estimated prevalence rate of psychopathy for male offenders in the jail setting

A

25-30%

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38
Q

the branch of psychology that combines theory and research from the neurosciences and traditional psychology

A

neuropsychology

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39
Q

term used for the neurological indicators of a particular phenomenon, such as psychopathy

A

markers

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40
Q

criminal psychopaths manifest an abnormal or unusual balances between the two hemispheres of the brain, both in language processing and in emotional or arousal states

A

hemisphere asymmetry

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41
Q

the research observation that psychopaths seem to be able to talk about emotional cues but lack the ability to use them effectively in the real world

A

emotional paradox

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42
Q

higher-order mental abilities involved in goal-directed behavior (include organizing behavior, memory, inhibition processes, and planning strategies)

A

executive function

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43
Q

a process whereby someone responds in time to a warning signal in order to avoid a painful or aversive stimulus

A

avoidance learning

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44
Q

term used for a variety of psychiatric diagnoses that indicate that the individual has problems in living (also referred to as mental disorder)

A

mental illness

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45
Q

limitations in cognitive capacity, determined by IQ tests and a variety of performance measures (cannot be cured, but can be compensated by care and training) - formerly called mental retardation

A

intellectual disability

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46
Q

the official guidebook or manual, published by the American Psychiatric Association, used to define and diagnose specific mental disorders

A

diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (DSM)

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47
Q

which revised edition is the DSM currently in?

A

fifth (DSM-5)

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48
Q

which four categories of mental disorders are most relevant in the DSM?

A
  1. the schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders
  2. bipolar disorder
  3. major depression
  4. antisocial personality disorder
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49
Q

mental disorder characterized by severe breakdowns in thought patterns, emotions, and perceptions

A

schizophrenia

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50
Q

things or events that a person with mental disorder sees or perceives (characteristic of schizophrenia and some forms of dementia)

A

hallucinations

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51
Q

mental disorder characterized by a system of false beliefs or delusions

A

delusional disorder

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52
Q

this disorder is characterized by episodes of behavior that are alternately characterized by such features as euphoria, hyperenergy, and distractibility (manic phase) and diminished interest or pleasure in all activities and depressed mood (depressive phase)

A

bipolar disorder

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53
Q

in essence, bipolar disorder is a ____ disorder

A

mood

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54
Q

lifetime risk of suicide among persons with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least ____ times that of the general population

A

15 times

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55
Q

general label for symptoms that include an extremely depressed state, general slowing down of mental and physical activity, and feelings of self-worthlessness

A

major depressive disorder

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56
Q

disorder characterized by a history of continuous behavior in which the rights of others are violated

A

antisocial personality disorder (APD)

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57
Q

a diagnostic label used to identify children who demonstrate habitual misbehavior

A

conduct disorder (CD)

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58
Q

it is estimated that between ____% and ____% of the population qualifies for an antisocial personality disorder diagnosis

A

0.2% and 3.3%

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59
Q

the ability to participate in a variety of court proceedings

A

adjudicative competence

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60
Q

the legal requirement that a defendant is able to understand the proceedings and to help the attorney in preparing a defence

A

competency to stand trial

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61
Q

a judicial ruling that a criminal defendant, because of mental illness, defect, or other reasons, is unable to understand the nature and objective of the criminal proceedings or is unable to assist his or her defense lawyer (may apply to a variety of judicial stages, including plea bargaining, trial, and sentencing)

A

incompetent to stand trial (IST)

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62
Q

a criminal defendant’s argument that his or her mental illness relieves him or her from responsibility for a crime
-legal tests of insanity vary widely, with the most common being the ability to know right from wrong

A

insanity defense

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63
Q

a legal determination that a defendant was so mentally disordered at the time of the crime that he or she cannot be held criminally responsible

A

not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI)

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64
Q

an insanity standard based on the conclusion that if a defendant has a defect of reason, or a disease of the mind, so as not to know the nature and quality of his or her actions, then he or she cannot be held criminally responsible

A

m’naughten rule

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65
Q

the m’naughten rule is also called the _____

A

right and wrong test

66
Q

a standard for evaluating the insanity defense that recognizes that the defendant suffers from a condition that substantially (1) affects mental or emotional processes or (2) impairs behavior controls

A

brawner rule

67
Q

a section of the ALI/brawner rule that excludes abnormality manifested only by repeated criminal or antisocial conduct (specifically designed to disallow the insanity defense for psychopaths)

A

caveat paragraph

68
Q

a rarely used legal standard of insanity that criminal defendants are not criminally responsible if their unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect

A

durham rule

69
Q

the durham rule is also referred to as the ____

A

product rule

70
Q

a law designed to make it more difficult for defendants using the insanity defense in the federal courts to be acquitted

A

insanity defense reform act of 1984

71
Q

the part of the insanity defense that requires acceptance of the possibility that a defendant could not control his or her behavior to conform to the requirements of the law (the volitional prong is not recognized in federal law or the law of many states)

A

volitional prong

72
Q

a verdict alternative in some states that allows defendants with mental disorders to be found guilty even if they might meet standards for insanity (the verdict is said to afford them treatment in prison settings, but such treatment is not guaranteed)

A

guilty but mentally ill (GBMI)

73
Q

a cluster of behavioral patterns that result from a psychologically distressing event outside the usual range of human experience

A

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

74
Q

studies estimate that between ___% and ___% of all americans suffer from PTSD

A

1% and 7%

75
Q

the prevalence of PTSD among _____ is believed to be considerably higher than the prevalence in the general population

A

military veterans

76
Q

a psychiatric syndrome characterized by the existence within an individual of two or more distinct personalities, any of which may be dominant at any given moment (formerly called multiple personality disorder (MPD))

A

dissociative identity disorder

77
Q

a process whereby mental or physical disorders are unintentionally induced or developed in patients by physicians, clinicians, or psychotherapists

A

iatrogenic

78
Q

complete or partial memory loss of an incident, series of incidents, or some aspects of life’s experiences

A

amnesia

79
Q

psychosis was found in a recent study to increase the odds of violence by as much as ___% to ___%

A

50% to 70%

80
Q

only ___% of the men and ___% of the women who developed schizophrenia committed violent offenses

A

11.3% of the men and 2.3% of the women

81
Q

some researchers have reported that ___% to ___% of persons in jails and federal and state prisons have severe mental disorders

A

10% to 15%

82
Q

it is estimated that ___% to ___% of inmates carry an antisocial personality disorder diagnosis

A

40% to 80%

83
Q

process of determining the likelihood and seriousness of harm carried out by a person who displayed warning signs, such as making veiled oral or written threats

A

threat assessment

84
Q

requirement from the tarasoff case that clinicians must actively warn potential victims of threats of serious bodily harm made by their clients

A

duty to warn

85
Q

requirement from the tarasoff case that clinicians must take steps to protect possible victims from serious bodily harm as a result of threats made by the clinician’s clients (does not require the clinician to contact the potential victim)

A

duty to protect

86
Q

an approach to risk assessment that combines the strength of actuarial predictions with the experiences of the practitioners. SPJ offers guidelines for providing the risk assessment

A

structured professional judgment (SPJ)

87
Q

the cognitive shortcuts that people use to make quick inferences about their world - it is the information that is most readily available to us mentally and is usually based extensively on the most recent material we gain from the news or entertainment media

A

availability heuristic

88
Q

term that encompasses both murder and nonnegligent homicide

A

criminal homicide

89
Q

the felonious killing of one human being by another with malice aforethought

A

murder

90
Q

the killing of a human being without premeditation but with the intention to kill in the “heat of the moment,” such as under high emotional states of anger or passion

A

nonnegligent manslaughter

91
Q

the unlawful killing of another through reckless or negligent behavior, without intention to kill

A

negligent manslaughter

92
Q

the intentional inflicting of bodily injury on another person, or the attempt to inflict such injury

A

assault

93
Q

inflicting, or attempting to inflict, bodily injury on another person, with the intent to inflict serious injury

A

aggravated assault

94
Q

a classification system that identifies commonalities among members of groups to aid in investigation of crime and offering treatment services

A

typology

95
Q

examples of typology

A

serial murderers, terrorists, sex offenders

96
Q

___% of the total homicide offenders are those who committed a homicide that was precipitated by a general altercation or argument or verbal dispute that escalated into a fight

A

45%

97
Q

the majority of these offenders had records of past criminal histories

A

offenders who committed a homicide during the commission of a felony, such as robbery, burglary, grand theft, rape, kidnapping, or carjacking

98
Q

___% of total homicide offenders committed a domestic-violence related homicide, accounting for the second-largest group

A

25%

99
Q

the fourth classification of homicide

A

offenders who were charged with a degree of homicide after an accident, usually involving automobiles

100
Q

death resulting from hostile aggression

A

general altercation homicide

101
Q

the tendency to perceive hostile intent in others even when it is lacking

A

hostile attribution bias

102
Q

the ability to control one’s behavior in accordance with internal cognitive standards

A

self-regulation

103
Q

these homicides are motivated by instrumental-controlled aggression

A

felony commission homicides

104
Q

similar to controlled-instrumental aggression, actions undertaken to obtain a specific goal

A

proactive violence

105
Q

crimes committed against persons by their current or former spouses, boyfriends, or girlfriends

A

intimate partner violence (IPV)

106
Q

a primary psychopath receives a score of ____ or above on the PCL-R checklist

A

30 or above

107
Q

prevalence of psychopathy in general population

A

1%

108
Q

prevalence of psychopathy in prisoners

A

15-25%

109
Q

___% to ___% of offenders meet criteria for antisocial personality disorder

A

50% to 80%

110
Q

____% to ____% of offenders meet the criteria for psychopathy

A

15% to 25%

111
Q

individuals who fit the criteria of a psychopath, having certain fundamental traits, but largely succeed in their exploitation

A

successful psychopath

112
Q

raine’s verbal dichotic listening task found that psychopaths are ___ lateralized for verbal processing, indicating that psychopaths have ____ connections between words and emotions

A

less; poor

113
Q

fMRI studies indicate that psychopaths show ____ activation of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex

A

reduced

114
Q

psychopaths ____ differentiate pleasant from unpleasant pictures

A

do not

115
Q

normal people show ____ waves on an EEG when awake and alert, but psychopaths show ____ waves

A

beta; delta

116
Q

maturation retardation hypothesis coincides with ____

A

aging out of criminal behavior around the same time as maturation of EEG

117
Q

psychopaths age out much ____ than normal people

A

slower

118
Q

psychopaths have a deficit in passively avoiding consequences for actions (impulsive)

A

passive avoidance deficit

119
Q

psychopath’s childhood experiences are indicative of ____ and ____ in the home

A

abuse and neglect

120
Q

biology provides poor foundation for the formation of conscience

A

interactive model

121
Q

psychopaths with ____ backgrounds committed more violent offenses

A

unstable

122
Q

lower rate of _____ for female psychopaths

A

recidivism

123
Q

female psychopaths are ____ aggressive and violent than male psychopaths

A

less

124
Q

higher recidivism rates for ____ psychopaths than nontreated

A

treated

125
Q

this woman had postpartum psychosis and drowned her 5 children (was found not guilty by reason of insanity, but is still in a psychiatric facility)

A

andrea yates

126
Q

only ___% of crimes judged directly related to depression

A

3%

127
Q

this disorder is the most frequently diagnosed in criminal populations (50% to 80%)

A

antisocial personality disorder

128
Q

____% to ____% of criminal populations are mentally disordered

A

80% to 90%

129
Q

major psychiatric diagnoses are infrequent - ____% to ____%

A

10% to 15%

130
Q

___% of the currently mentally disordered are not violent

A

90%

131
Q

murder accounts for only ___% to ___% of the violent crime rate

A

1% to 2%

132
Q

only ____% of murder cases involve a stranger as the victim

A

19%

133
Q

aggravated assaults are basically _____

A

a failed homicide attempt

134
Q

first degree murder is

A

premeditated

135
Q

second degree murder

A

not the same level of premeditation (“crime of passion”)

136
Q

example of nonnegligent manslaughter

A

beating that “unintentionally” leads to death

137
Q

some states may place crimes of passion (beatings, chokings) in this category

A

nonnegligent manslaughter

138
Q

single homicide

A

one victim

139
Q

double homicide

A

two victims

140
Q

triple homicide

A

three victims

141
Q

mass murder

A

4 or more victims

142
Q

family mass murder

A

4 or more members of a family are murdered

143
Q

spree murder

A

some time took place between murders

144
Q

serial murder

A

3 or more murders (separate events)

145
Q

males _____ females as both victims and offenders

A

predominate

146
Q

____% of murder victims are male

A

78%

147
Q

____% of murder offenders are male

A

65%

148
Q

most murder offenders are between the ages of

A

20 and 29

149
Q

highest offending rate for murder among race

A

african american

150
Q

____% of all arrests for violent crimes are african americans

A

37%

151
Q

____% to ____% of all arrests for murder are african americans, indicative of a significant overrepresentation

A

40% to 54%

152
Q

____ levels of serious crimes in lower socioeconomic levels

A

higher

153
Q

____% of murder victims are killed by a stranger

A

19%

154
Q

____% of murder victims are related to their offender

A

25%

155
Q

____% of murder victims are killed by someone they knew

A

56%

156
Q

males are violently victimized by a stranger ___ times more than females

A

two times

157
Q

____ are more likely to be murdered by a spouse

A

females

158
Q

____% of all homicides committed with a firearm

A

70%

159
Q

____% of all homicides are committed with a handgun

A

81%

160
Q

knives account for less than ____% of all homicides

A

13%

161
Q

___% of victims of intimate violence are female and ___% of offenders are male

A

75% ; 75%

PSYC 5100 (4 decks)

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