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final exam Flashcards

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1
Q

you have been hired to run a trial to see if a new anxiety medication works. Even though you are collecting the data, you won’t know who gets the drug and who gets the placebo. The people taking the drug or placebo also don’t know. This type of an experiment is:

A

double blind

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2
Q

The group that receives the placebo is known as

A

control group

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3
Q

In the study described in chapter 1, cell phone use is the _________ and cancer is the _________

A

independent variable: dependent variable

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4
Q

what is the last step in the scientific process

A

drawing a conclusion

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5
Q

a statement that is a good hypothesis:

A

is testable and refutablew

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6
Q

what is a theory?

A

a widely-accepted explanation for an observation, that is testable and well-supported by evidence

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7
Q

when scientists carry out an experiment, they are testing a

A

hypothesis

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8
Q

true or false: a placebo is a fake treatment that mimics the treatment of the experimental group

A

true

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9
Q

in a controlled experiment, the control and experimental groups differ in that

A

the independent variable is applied to only one group

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10
Q

which substance is most likely to dissolve in water

A

a hydrophilic molecule

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11
Q

which type of chemical bond is the weakest

A

hydrogen

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12
Q

the bond that attaches two hydrogens to an oxygen in an H2) molecule is a(n) _______ bond

A

covalent

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13
Q

an acidic solution has _______ hydrogen ions compared to water

A

more

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14
Q

an acidic solution has a _______ pH value compared to water

A

lower

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15
Q

your friend makes instant coffee by mixing coffee powder in hot water. the coffee is the ________, the powder is the ______ and the water is the ________

A

solution, solute, solvent

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16
Q

olive oil is _______ because it _________

A

hydrophobic; doesn’t interact with water

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17
Q

human’s ability to shive is an attempt to increase the body’s internal temperature and maintain ________

A

homeostatis

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18
Q

which characteristic is not present in all types of living organisms?

A

obtain energy directly from sunlight

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19
Q

when an atom loses an electron, what happens?

A

it becomes positively charged

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20
Q

the nucleus of an atom contains ______ while the _______ surrounds the nucleus

A

protons & neutrons; electrons

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21
Q

which is not one of the four types of organic molecules that make up all living things on earth

A

atoms

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22
Q

what is atomic mass

A

the mass of an atom indicated the number of protons plus neutrons

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23
Q

what is true about organic molecules

A

an organic molecule contains at least one carbon-hydrogen bond

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24
Q

an atom of oxygen has 8 protons, 8 electrons, and 8 neutrons. what is the atomic number of oxygen

A

8 because oxygen has 8 protons

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25
what property of water molecules leads to surface tension of liquid water
formation of hydrogen bonds between water molecules
26
what is an monomer
a small molecule that can react with similar molecules to form a polymer
27
why does water have a pH of seven
water dissociates to form an equal amount of H+ ions and OH- ions
28
the octet rule states that many atoms will share, donate, or accept ______ to have eight in the outer shell
electrons
29
what is homeostasis
the body's maintenance if a relatively stable internal environment even when the external environment changes
30
which chemical bond forms when an atom accepts an extra electron or donates an electron
ionic bond
31
which type of fatty acid is usually found in lipids that are liquid at room temperature
unsaturated cis-fat
32
the monomers that make up proteins are
amino acids
33
simple diffusion occurs when molecules move from _______ using ________
high to low concentration; no energy
34
facilitated diffusion occurs when molecules move through _____ in the cell membrance
proteins
35
which lipid molecule is part hydrophobic and part hydrophilic, allowing it to make the selectively-permeable cell membrane
phospholipid
36
which organelle could cause the most damage to the rest of the cell by leaking its digestive enzymes into the cytoplasm
lysosome
37
fungi are eukaryotic organisms. scientists have found it more difficult to develop treatments for fungal infections such as yeast infection and athlete's foot. why are fungal infections harder to treat than bacterial infections
fungi are eukaryotes like humans, so their cellular components are similar
38
penicillin interferes with ______, causing bacteria to die from _____
cell walls; osmosis
39
what do all cells have in common? Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have ______
cell membranes
40
what is attached to the rough ER in eukaryotes
ribosomes
41
the cell theory states that
all living times are made of one of more cells, the cell is the basic unit of life, every new cell comes from the division of pre-existing cell
42
humans are eukaryotes because our cells have a _____
nucleus
43
plasma membranes are selectively permeable, or semipermeable. this means that:
the membrane regulates what enters and leaves the cell
44
which cellular structure synthesizes proteins
ribosome
45
which is an example of a prokaryotic cell
bacteria cell
46
how does cancer develop
it develops in a multistep process in which multiple mutations lead to cancer
46
The smallest unit of life is the ______
cell
46
tumors that do not spread throughout the body are _________, and those that do spread are termed _______.
benign; malignant
46
place the phases of mitosis in order from start to finish
prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
46
which process occurs during anaphase of mitosis
sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell
46
benign tumors are non-cancerous tumors. how are malignant tumors different from benign tumors
cells in a malignant tumor grow uncontrollably, invade and damage nearby tissues, and may metastasize
46
during the cell cycle, the cell must pass through several checkpoints that confirm that the cell is ready to progress to the next phase of the cycle. If the requirements of one phase have not been met, the cell cannot proceed to the next phase. these checkpoints help control the rate of cell division. if a mutation disables one of these checkpoints, what is most likely to happen
the cell begins dividing too often, forming a tumor
46
during which step does the cytoplasm of a cell divide, fully separating the two daughter cells
cytokinesis
46
during which phase of mitosis do nuclear membranes reform around the separated copies of DNA
telophase
47
during which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers shorten, pulling sister chromatids apart from one another and toward opposite ends of the cell
anaphase
47
during which phase of mitosis does chromatin condense into chromosomes as the nuclear membrane breads down
prophase
47
what is a carcinogen
a substance which damages DNA, causing cancer
48
in general, what causes normal cells to because cancer cells
rapid cell division
49
which is a products of cell division by mitosis
two daughter cells with identical chromosomes
50
which step of the cell cycle doubles of amount of DNA
S
51
a proto-oncogene promotes normal cell division and differentiation. when mutated, that gene can become a(n) _______
oncogene
52
a cell that is in G0 phase is
not currently dividing
53
what does it mean to say that a person has a heterozygous genotype for a disease and no disease phenotype
it means that the person does not show symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive
54
women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA 1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. the dominant alleles are associated with elevated cancer risk. of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer?
bb
55
emily has CF, a recessive disease. she decides to have children with a man who does not have CF and who has no family history of CF. what combination of gametes can each of them produce, and what is the probability that they will have a child who is a carrier for CF
emily: aa, man AA; 100% probability
56
children often have many of the phenotypes of their parents because
they inherit half of their genetic material from each parent
57
if meiosis were to fail and a cell skipped meiosis 1, so that meiosis 2 was the only meiotic division, how would you describe the resulting cells
diploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes
58
one of the purposes of meiosis is to
reduce the chromosome number in each resulting cell by half
59
a human female has ______ chromosomes in each skin cell and ______ chromosomes in each egg
46;23
60
what is the best way to describe a gene
a section of DNA in which the code for a protein is located
61
what best describes an individual who is homozygous for a gene
an individual inherits two of the same allele for a gene
62
what best describes an individual who is heterozygous for a gene
an individual inherits two different alleles for a gene
63
what are homologous chromosomes
a maternal and paternal chromosomes that have the same genes
64
an organism has 48 chromosomes in its diploid somatic cells. how many chromosomes are in it gametes
24
65
human somatic cells, such as muscle cells, contain 46 total chromosomes. how many chromosomes would a human sperm cell contain
23 total
66
which statement described a phenotype
the physical trait produced by an organism's genetic makeup
67
which statement describes a genotype
the pair of DNA sequences an organism has for a trait
68
which statement describes an allele
one variation of the code for a protein
69
which statement describes recessive alleles
any allele whose presence can be masked by another allele
70
which statement describes incompletely dominant alleles
two alleles that blend to create an intermediate phenotype
71
which statement describes codominant alleles
two alleles that are expressed separately and equally
72
in humans, albinism is a collection of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by an absence of the pigment melanin in skin, hair, and eyes. Normal pigmentation (A) is dominant over albino characteristics (a). For this question, assume the phenotype is determined by a single gene with two alleles. if both parent's display the albino phenotype, what are all of the possible genotypes that may be observed in their offspring
aa only
73
what caused nondisjunction during meiosis
sister chromatids fail to separate
74
what meiotic event produces four gametes with abnormal numbers of chromosomes
meiosis 1 nondisjunction
75
which of these can result in a trisomy such as down syndrome
an egg with 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes
76
which combination contains the normal chromosome number
a human egg-23; a human sperm-23, human zygote-46
77
what is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types
they carry A- and B-type surface markers, so they are universal acceptors of blood
78
if two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women by 5ft 5in tall and the other 5ft 8in tall
because environmental factors also play a role in the phenotype of this trait
79
how is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance
in codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; incomplete dominance, heterozygotes have an intermediate phenotype
80
how are polygenic and multifactorial traits different
polygenic traits are genetically based, whereas multifactorial traits have both genetic and environmental influences
81
predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome
female
82
predict the sex of a baby with an XXY combination of sex chromosomes
male
82
if a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his son inherit that disease from him
no, all his sons inherit their x chromosomes maternally
83
why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases
males have a Y chromosome that cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele
84
which of the statements describes a polygenic trait
a trait that is influenced by two or more gene
85

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