Final Exam Flashcards
(258 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is true about the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?
A
The frontal lobe is critical for motor control and executive functions
2
Q
Which structure is part of the basal ganglia and is strongly associated with the control of movement?
A
Caudate nucleus
3
Q
Which imaging technique is best for detecting extremely rapid changes in cortical electrical activity by measuring tiny magnetic fields produced by neurons?
A
MEG
4
Q
Which statement about TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation) is correct?
A
TMS uses powerful magnets to briefly stimulate cortical areas directly
5
Q
Which directional term in neuroanatomy means “towards the belly” (and thus, underneath the brain when viewed upright)?
A
Ventral
6
Q
Why are injuries to the medulla often fatal?
A
It regulates vital functions such as breathing and heart rate
7
Q
What is the primary function of the axon hillock?
A
Deciding whether to send an electrical signal down the axon
8
Q
Which of the following is a major function of the hypothalamus?
A
Regulating hunger, thirst, hormonal systems
9
Q
Myelin sheaths around axons
A
are only produced by oligodendrocytes (in CNS) and Schwann cells (in PNS)
10
Q
When the sympathetic nervous system is activated, which of the following is most likely to occur?
A
The body prepares for “fight or flight” (e.g., increasing heart rate)
11
Q
Which statement about glial cells is correct?
A
Astrocytes help regulate blood flow and synapse formation
12
Q
Which of the following is not one of the four principal zones common to all neurons?
A
Collateral zone
13
Q
What is the primary purpose of “difference images” in functional brain imaging (e.g., fMRI or PET)?
A
Subtracting baseline activity to reveal regions specifically involved in a task
14
Q
Which of the following best describes the role of neurotransmitter receptors on the postsynaptic membrane?
A
They bind incoming transmitter molecules, altering the postsynaptic cell
15
Q
The limbic system includes the amygdala and hippocampus, which are strongly associated with
A
emotion and memory
16
Q
Corpus callosum
Midbrain
Forebrain
Hindbrain
A
- Connects the two cerebral hemispheres
- Contains the tectum/colliculi and tegmentum/substantia nigra
- Includes the cerebral cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system
- Includes the cerebellum, pons, and medulla
17
Q
Which layer of the meninges is the innermost and closely adheres to the surface of the brain?
A
Pia mater
18
Q
Which statement best describes the thalamus?
A
It relays sensory information to appropriate cortical regions
19
Q
Which statement correctly distinguishes the somatic versus autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
A
Somatic nerves connect the brain with sensory organs and skeletal muscles; autonomic nerves control glands and internal organs
20
Q
In seizure disorders, a petit mal seizure is characterized by:
A
A brief loss of awareness with a spike-and-wave EEG pattern
21
Q
Which type of synapse is described as an axon forming a connection directly onto a dendrite?
A
Axo-dendritic synapse
22
Q
The sodium-potassium pump is responsible for:
A
Actively transporting Na+ out and K+ into the neuron to maintain ionic gradients
23
Q
Which enzyme quickly inactivates acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
A
Acetylcholinesterase
24
Q
Temporal summation is defined as:
A
The summing of postsynaptic potentials from the same synapse when they occur in rapid succession
25
Postsynaptic Receptor
Transporter
Presynaptic Terminal
Synaptic Cleft
Acetylcholinesterase
- The protein on the post synaptic membrane that binds neurotransmitters to initiate a cellular response
- The protein that reabsorbs neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic terminal to terminate the signal
- The site from which neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft
- The narrow gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells where neurotransmitters are released
- The enzyme that rapidly degrades acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
26
What is the typical resting membrane potential of a neuron?
-50 to -80 mV
27
What is the absolute refractory period?
A brief period immediately after and action potential when no stimulus can trigger another action potential
28
Which of the following best describes neurophysiology?
The study of the electrical and chemical processes that underlie neural communication
29
The primary function of a postsynaptic receptor is to:
Bind neurotransmitter molecules and initiate a postsynaptic potential
30
"Selective permeability" of the neuronal membrane means that:
The membrane allows only specific ions to pass through while restricting others
31
Spatial summation in a neuron refers to:
The integration of multiple postsynaptic potentials arriving simultaneously at different locations on the cell
32
Which ion is most abundant inside the neuron and plays a key role in establishing the resting potential?
Potassium (K+)
33
Depolarization
Refractory Period
All-or-None Property
Saltatory Conduction
Hyperpolarization
- A change in membrane potential that makes the inside of the cell less negative (closer to zero).
- The phase following an action potential during which the neuron cannot fire another action potential regardless of the stimulus strength
- The characteristic that once an action potential is initiated, its amplitude remains constant no matter how strong the stimulus is
- A process in which the action potential "jumps" from one node of Ranvier to the next along a myelinated axon
- A change in membrane potential that makes the inside of the cell more negative (further from zero)
34
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) results in:
Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, making it less likely to fire
35
Which statement best describes the "all-or-none" property of action potentials?
An action potential is only generated if the membrane potential reaches a fixed threshold, and its amplitude does not vary with stimulus strength
36
An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is best described as:
A depolarizing change that brings the membrane potential closer to the threshold
37
At the presynaptic terminal, the influx of which ion triggers neurotransmitter release?
Calcium (Ca2+)
38
Which ion is most abundant inside the neuron and plays a key role in establishing the resting potential?
Potassium (K+)
39
Saltatory conduction refers to:
The "jumping" of the action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next on a myelinated axon
40
Event-related potentials (ERPs) are best defined as:
The averaged EEG responses that are time-locked to specific stimuli
41
During the initial (depolarizing) phase of an action potential, which ion's influx is primarily responsible?
Sodium (Na+)
42
Which statement correctly contrasts the propagation of action potentials with that of graded potentials?
Action potentials are actively propagated along the axon without decrement, whereas graded potentials passively spread and decay over distance
43
What is one consequence of demyelination, as seen in conditions like multiple sclerosis?
Slowed conduction velocity along axons, leading to impaired neural communication
44
Which of the following best distinguishes graded (local) potentials from action potentials?
Graded potentials vary in amplitude and decay over distance, whereas action potentials are all-or-none and actively propagated without decrement
45
Which of the following best summarizes the process of chemical synaptic transmission?
An action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal, triggering Ca2+ influx that causes vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release; the neurotransmitter then binds to postsynaptic receptors to generate a postsynaptic potential, and its effect is quickly terminated by degradation or reuptake.
46
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane and decrease the likelihood of an action potential.
True
47
What is one likely consequence of damage specifically to the axon hillock region?
A reduced ability to integrate synaptic inputs, leading to impaired action potential initiation.
48
What is the implication of the all-or-none property for neural information encoding?
Stimulus intensity is encoded by the frequency (rate) of action potentials rather than their amplitude
49
Penfield's electrical stimulation mapping revealed that the somatosensory cortex is organized in a somatotopic manner. This means that:
Different body parts are represented in distinct, spatially ordered regions of the cortex.
50
Which of the following best describes a neurotransmitter antagonist?
A molecule that binds to the receptor without activating it, thereby blocking the action of the neurotransmitter.
51
Which cell type is responsible for myelin sheaths in the central nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
52
What primarily contributes to the synaptic delay observed at chemical synapses?
The time needed for voltage-gated Ca2+ channels to open, trigger vesicle fusion, and for neurotransmitters to diffuse across the synaptic cleft.
53
The passive decay of graded potentials is primarily due to the resistance and capacitance properties of the neuronal membrane.
True
54
Reuptake
Degradation
Diffusion
- Neurotransmitters are actively transported back into the presynaptic terminal for reuse
- Neurotransmitters are enzymatically broken down into inactive molecules
- Neurotransmitters passively disperse out of the synaptic cleft into the surrounding space
55
If a neuron's sodium-potassium pump were inhibited, which of the following would most likely occur over time?
The ionic gradients would gradually diminish, impairing the ability to generate action potentials.
56
Which of the following best distinguishes the absolute refractory period from the relative refractory period?
During the absolute refractory period, no stimulus - regardless of strength - can trigger an action potential; during the relative refractory period, only a stimulus stronger than normal can elicit one.
57
Which of the following best differentiates the roles of axons and dendrites?
Axons conduct all-or-none action potentials, whereas dendrites primarily receive inputs and conduction graded potentials.
58
The decision for a postsynaptic neuron to fire an action potential is determined primarily by:
The summation of all excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials at the axon hillock
59
Voltage-gated sodium channels open during the rising phase of an action potential and rapidly inactivate thereafter.
True
60
Postsynaptic receptors are critical for synaptic transmission because they:
Convert chemical signals (neurotransmitter binding) into electrical changes in the postsynaptic neuron.
61
The absolute refractory period limits the maximum frequency at which a neuron can fire an action potential.
True
62
Which factor would most likely enhance the effectiveness of spatial summation at the axon hillock?
Synapses located closer to the axon hillock
63
How does the time interval between successive EPSPs affect the likelihood of triggering an action potential?
Shorter intervals result in overlapping EPSPs, increasing the chance of reaching threshold
64
The sodium-potassium pump directly generates the action potential.
False
65
Which imaging method is most suitable for mapping brain structure with high spatial resolution without using ionizing radiation?
MRI
66
Following an action potential, the membrane potential often becomes briefly more negative than the resting potential - a phenomenon known as afterhyperpolarization.
True
67
Which process involves the formation of connections between neurons as axons and dendrites extend?
Synaptogenesis
68
Which receptor type directly changes its ion permeability upon binding a neurotransmitter?
Ionotropic receptor
69
In the developing neural tube, where does the mitosis of progenitor cells primarily occur?
In the ventricular zone
70
Which neurotransmitter is known as the brain's primary inhibitory chemical?
GABA
71
The nervous system originates from which embryonic germ layer?
Ectoderm
72
What is "reuptake" in synaptic transmission?
It is the reabsorption of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron
73
Which of the following factors have been shown to enhance adult hippocampal neurogenesis?
- Environmental training
- Cognitive training
- Exercise
74
Which factors influence a drug's pharmacokinetics?
- Metabolism by the liver
- Route of administration
- Excretion via the kidneys
75
Enzymatic degradation
Reuptake
Exocytosis
- Breakdown of neurotransmitters by enzymes
- Reabsorption of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron
- Neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft
76
In a dose-response curve, the ED50 is defined as:
The dose at which a drug produces 50% of its maximal effect
77
Alzheimer's disease is simply the inevitable result of normal aging and shows no distinct pathological changes in the brain.
False
78
Which statement best describes the role of synaptic vesicles in neurotransmission?
They store neurotransmitters an release them via exocytosis
79
Metabotropic receptors directly open ion channels when activated.
False
80
Apoptosis
Synaptogenesis
Neurogenesis
- The programmed cell death that helps refine neural circuits
- The formation of synaptic connections between neurons
- The process by which new neurons are generated from progenitor cells
81
Which environmental factors can influence gene expression through epigenetic mechanisms?
- Diet
- Stress
- Maternal care
82
Methylation
Genotype
Epigenetics
- A chemical modification of DNA that generally reduces gene expression
- The complete set of genetic information inherited by an individual
- The study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not alter the DNA sequence
83
The human brain continues to refine its synaptic connections - through processes like pruning - well into adolescence, which helps improve cognitive efficiency.
True
84
What structure forms when the neural groove closes during early embryonic development?
Neural tube
85
Which neurotransmitters are classified as amino acid neurotransmitters?
- Glutamate
- GABA
- Glycine
86
What is the primary role of neurotrophic factors during neural development?
They "feed" neurons and promote their survival
87
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of cellular events during early brain development?
Neurogenesis, cell migration, cell differentiation, synaptogenesis, neuronal cell death, synapse rearrangement
88
Which statement best explains the concept of drug tolerance?
Repeated exposure can lead to decreased receptor sensitivity or receptor number
89
Benzodiazepines relieve anxiety by acting on which recpetor?
GABAA receptor
90
The "sensitive period" in visual development refers to:
A developmental window when visual experience strongly and permanently shapes the visual cortex
91
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT)
Acetylcholine (ACh)
- Plays a key role in motor control and reward
- Involved in mood regulation, sleep, appetite
- Functions in both the peripheral nervous system (neuromuscular junction) and brain
92
Selective reuptake inhibitors (e.g., SSRIs) increase neurotransmitter concentration in the synaptic cleft by blocking reuptake.
True
93
What is the primary function of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels at the axon terminal?
They open to allow calcium influx that triggers vesicle fusion
94
What role does the nucleus accumbens play in the brain?
It is a central part of the reward system, involved in processing pleasure
95
Which term describes the activity-dependent process that eliminates excess synapses while strengthening others?
Synapse rearrangement (synaptic pruning)
96
Amblyopia is best described as:
A reduction is visual acuity due to abnormal visual experience during a sensitive developmental period.
97
Ruffini corpuscle
Merkel's disc
Meissner's corpuscle
Free nerve endings
Pacinian corpuscle
- Stretching of the skin
- Edges and fine details of objects
- Light touch and changes in localized movement
- Pain, itch, and temperature changes
- High-frequency vibration and pressure
98
Which neural pathway is most directly involved in initiating voluntary movement?
Pyramidal (corticospinal) system
99
What is the primary function of muscle spindles?
To detect changes in muscle length and the rate of change, providing proprioceptive feedback
100
Which neural pathway carries most of the pain information from the body to the brain?
Anterolateral (spinothalamic) system
101
Sensory adaptation is the process by which a receptor's response increases with constant stimulation.
False
102
What is sensory transduction?
The process of converting an environmental stimulus into a receptor potential in a sensory cell
103
The sensory homunculus in the primary somatosensory cortex represents body parts in proportion to their physical size.
False
104
Which of the following are methods of pain control discussed in the book?
- Acupunture
- Opiate drugs
- Placebo effect
- Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)
105
Basal Ganglia
Primary Motor Cortex (M1)
Cerebellum
Supplementary Motor Area (SMA)
Premotor Cortex
- Modulates movement initiation and amplitude through inhibitory/excitatory pathways
- Executes voluntary movements by sending commands directly to muscles
- Coordinates and fine-tunes motor activity, ensuring balance and precision
- Contributes to internally generated movement sequences and planning
- Plans and organizes movements, especially those guided by external cues
106
Damage to which structure is most closely associated with the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra
107
What are labeled lines in sensory processing?
Nerve fibers that carry specific types of sensory information from receptors to the brain
108
Which receptor in the skin is specialized for detecting high-frequency vibration and pressure?
Pacinian corpuscle
109
Mirror neurons are best described as neurons that:
Fire both when an individual performs a movement and when observing that same movement in others
110
Which dimension of pain associated with descriptors like "throbbing" and " shooting"?
Sensory-discriminative dimension
111
In the context of the somatosensory system, what does a "receptive field" refer to?
The specific area of the body where a stimulus will alter the firing rate of a sensory neuron
112
The auditory cortex is solely responsible for basic auditory perception; its removal eliminates the ability to hear pure tones.
False
113
Bitter
Umami
Salty
Sweet
Sour
- G protein - coupled receptor activation via T2R receptors
- G protein - couple receptor activation via a T1R1 + T1R3 heterodimer
- Ion channel-mediated depolarization by sodium ions
- G protein - coupled receptor activation via a T1R2 + T1R3 heterodimer
- Ion channel-mediated depolarization by protons
114
Ossicles
Organ of Corti
Pinna
Basilar membrane
Tympanic membrane
- A chain of three small bones that amplify and transmit sound vibrations in the middle ear
- The sensory structure within the cochlea that contains hair cells for sound transduction
- The external part of the ear that captures and funnels sound waves
- A structure in the cochlea that vibrates at specific location corresponding to different sound frequencies
- A flexible membrane (eardrum) that vibrates in response to sound and separates the external and middle ears
115
Which structure in the cochlea contains the hair cells that transduce sound?
Organ of Corti
116
Which structure captures, focuses, and filters incoming sound waves?
Pinna
117
Motion sickness can result from a conflict between vestibular and visual inputs
True
118
What is the main purpose of a cochlear implant?
Bypass damaged hair cells to directly stimulate the auditory nerve
119
What is the primary function of the ossicles in the middle ear?
Amplify and transmit sound vibration from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
120
Select all structures that are part of the inner ear
- Cochlea
- Utricle
- Semicircular canals
- Saccule
121
How is pitch primarily encoded along the basilar membrane?
Tonotopic organization
122
Which type of deafness is most often caused by damage to hair cells or the auditory nerve?
Sensorineural deafness
123
What do interaural time differences refer to?
Differences in the time of arrival of sounds at each ear
124
What best describes olfactory receptor neurons?
They are located in the olfactory epithelium and send axons to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb
125
Which basic tastes are mediated by G protein-coupled receptors?
Sweet, bitter, umami
126
Which component of the vestibular system detects rotational movements of the head?
Semicircular canals
127
What creates the "blind spot" in each eye's visual field?
Optic disc
128
Which retinal cells produce the action potentials that travel via the optic nerve to the brain?
Ganglion cells
129
Which visual processing steam is chiefly responsible for object identification ("what" the object is)?
Ventral stream
130
Which structure of the eye is primarily responsible for bending (refracting) incoming light to help form a focused image on the retina?
Cornea
131
Primary Visual Cortex (V1)
Extrastriate Cortex
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)
Optic Chiasm
Superior Colliculus
- The first cortical area that processes visual input in a retinotopic map
- Higher-order visual areas that analyze complex features such as form, color, and motion
- The thalamic relay station that receives input from retinal ganglion cells before projecting to cortex
- The crossing point where fibers from the nasal hemiretina project to the opposite hemishpere
- A midbrain structure in volved in reflexive eye movements and orienting responses to visual stimuli.
132
Which type of photoreceptor is mainly responsible for high-acuity and color vision?
Cones
133
Photoreceptors (rods and cones) generate graded potentials - not action potentials - in response to light.
True
134
What is the term for the process by which the shape of the lends is adjusted to bring near objects into focus?
Accommodation
135
The dorsal visual stream is primarily responsible for object recognition, while the ventral stream processes spatial location.
False
136
According to Hubel and Wiesel's findings, which stimulus best activates a simple cell in the primary visual cortex?
A bar of light with a specific orientation
137
What is the process called in which stimulated retinal cells inhibit the activity of neighboring cells to enhance contrast?
Lateral inhibition
138
Select all of the following components that are part of the central visual pathway (from the retina to the cortex):
- Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)
- Optic tract
- Optic nerve
- Optic chiasm
- Primary visual cortex (V1)
139
Accommodation
Optic disc
Fovea
Cornea
Lateral inhibition
- The process by which the lens changes shape to focus near objects
- The point where ganglion cell axons exit the eye, resulting in a blind spot
- The central region of the retina with the highest cone density, providing the greatest acuity
- The transparent outer layer of the eye that refracts incoming light
- The mechanism by which activated retinal cells inhibit their neighbors, sharpening contrast in vision
140
Which structure in the thalamus receives the majority of retinal ganglion cell input?
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN)
141
Where on the retina is visual acuity the highest due to the dense concentration of cones and minimal intervening layers?
Fovea
142
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is best defined as:
A long-lasting increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation
143
Which stage of memory involves the temporary storage of information for only a few seconds in the absence of rehearsal?
Short term memory (STM)
144
Damage to the cerebellum leads to severe impairments in forming new declarative memories.
False
145
Priming is best described as:
A change in processing a stimulus following previous exposure
146
Cerebellum
Amygdala
Dorsomedial Thalamus
Mammillary Bodies
Hippocampus
- Critical for the timing and coordination of conditioned motor responses (e.g., the eye-blink reflex)
- Modulates memory strength through emotional arousal and fear conditioning
- Part of the medial diencephalon that relays memory-related information and is often damaged in amnesic conditions
- Works as a relay in the memory circuit; its damage contributes to severe memory deficits
- Essential for forming and consolidating new declarative memories
147
Semantic memory
Procedural memory
Nondeclarative memory
Declarative memory
Episodic memory
- General knowledge about facts and concept
- Memory expressed through the performance of skills
- Memory demonstrated through behavior without conscious recollection
- Memory that can be consciously recalled and described
- Memory for personal events and experiences
148
Patient H.M. could improve on mirror tracing tasks even though he was unable to form new declarative memories
True
149
Which type of amnesia is defined as the difficulty in forming new memories after the onset of a disorder?
Anterograde amnesia
150
Select all the brain regions that have been implicated in forming new declarative memories:
- Dorsomedial thalamus
- Entorhinal cortex
- Perirhinal cortex
- Mammillary bodies
- Parahippocampal cortex
- Hippocampus
151
Which brain structure is most critical for forming new declarative memories?
Hippocampus
152
What is memory?
The process of acquiring, storing, and retrieving information
153
Which receptor is key for the induction of long-term potentiation (LTP) in the hippocampus?
NMDA receptor
154
Patient H.M. is best known for which memory impairment?
Inability to form new declarative memories
155
Which brain region is primarily involved in the classical conditioning of the eye-blink reflex?
Cerebellum
156
Which type of memory is demonstrated by skills such as mirror tracing or riding a bike?
Nondeclarative (procedural) memory
157
Which behavior exemplifies behavioral compensation for thermoregulation?
Moving toward a heat source when feeling cold
158
Select all hormones that are involved in short-term gut regulation of appetite.
- GLP-1
- PYY3-36
- Cholecystokinin (CCK)
- Ghrelin
159
In homeostatic systems, what is a "set zone"?
A range around the set point within which the regulated variable is maintained
160
Glucagon
Glycogen
Insulin
Basal metabolism
- A hormone that increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogen breakdown
- A stored form of glucose found primarily in the liver and muscles
- A hormone that facilitates glucose uptake into cells and promotes energy storage
- The minimal amount of energy expended to maintain essential physiological function at rest
161
How is osmosis best defined?
The passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane to equalize solute concentrations
162
What is homeostasis?
Maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment through regulatory processes
163
In response to a high-salt diet, the extracellular fluid becomes hypertonic, which triggers osmotic thirst
True
164
Osmotic thirst is initiated when:
The extracellular fluid becomes too concentrated with solutes, drawing water out of cells
165
What role does insulin play in energy homeostasis?
It facilitates glucose uptake into cells and promotes the conversion of excess glucose into glycogen
166
What characterizes a semipermeable membrane?
It allows certain molecules (like water) to pass while restricting others (such as many solutes)
167
Which hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys?
Vasopressin (also known as ADH)
168
The hypothalamus is solely responsible for regulating appetite, with no input from other brain regions or peripheral signals.
False
169
Which hormone is produced by adipose tissue to signal long-term energy reserves?
Leptin
170
Which statement best distinguishes endotherms from ectotherms?
Endotherms generate their own heat through metabolic processes, whereas ectotherms rely on external heat sources
171
Bariatric surgery aims only to remove excess fat tissue and does not affect hormonal signals related to appetite
False
172
Which concept describes how a system counteracts deviations from a desired value by triggering corrective actions?
Negative feedback
173
Which receptor type plays a key role in detecting low blood volume (hypovolemia) to trigger thrist?
Baroreceptors
174
Which type of plaque is described as non-fibrillar, often an early or precursor lesion in Alzheimer's disease?
Diffuse plaque
175
Which APOE gene allele is most strongly linked to an increase risk of late-onset Alzheimer's disease?
APOE-e4
176
Abnormal phosphorylation of which protein leads to the formation of neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer's disease?
Tau protein
177
Which secretase cleaves within the beta-amyloid region of the amyloid precursor protein, thereby preventing the formation of beta-amyloid?
Alpha-secretase
178
Which two hallmark lesions are found in Alzheimer's disease?
Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
179
Who is credited with first describing the neuropathological feature characteristic of Alzheimer's disease in 1906?
Alois Alzhemier
180
Regarding familial Alzheimer's disease, which statement in true?
It is linked to mutations in genes such as APP, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 and usually presents early
181
Which factor contributes to the underdiagnosis of Alzheimer's dementia?
Early symptoms are mild and often mistaken for normal aging
182
Which enzyme is responsible for the initial cleavage of amyloid precursor protein in the pathway that produces beta-amyloid?
β-secretase (BACE-1)
183
How does Alzheimer's disease typically progress in terms of cognitive decline?
It starts with mild memory and language issues that gradually worsen and interfere with daily activities
184
If drug A binds to a certain type of receptor more strongly than drug B, then drug A is said to have greater __________.
Affinity
185
Down-regulation of a neuron's receptors might caused by ________.
The agonistic effects of a drug
186
Which of the following would not be considered an extrinsic influence on cells?
Genes
187
Rodent pups with an inattentive mother secrete an abnormally high level of glucocorticoids in response to stress as adults. In terms of epigenetics, this response is due to
Methylation of the gene for the glucocorticoid receptor
188
Which chemical is not an amino acid neurotransmitter?
Dopamine
189
Which statement concerning phenylketonuria (PKU) is true?
Left untreated, it can cause intellectual disability
190
Children who have inherited phenylketonuria (PKU) can be helped by
Dietary manipulation
191
A patient in the hospital requires anti-nausea medication. Which procedure provides the most rapid route of administration?
IV drip
192
In neurogenesis, cells that give rise to neurons divide via mitosis in the _________ zone inside the neural tube
Ventricular
193
Which chemical is not a monoamine neurotransmitter?
Acetylcholine
194
The mitotic division of nonneural cells to produce neurons is called
Neurogenesis
195
Methylation ________ gene expression through ________.
Inhibits; DNA modification
196
People who have used a particular dose of a drug several times may develop a similar response to the same dosage of other drugs in the same class. This is an example of __________.
Cross-tolerance
197
Teenagers with the highest IQ show
An especially long period of cortical thinning
198
Projections using norepinephrine originate in which one of the following structures?
Locus coeruleus
199
Which of the following is an example of epigenetics?
Mothering style affects the developing brain
200
A decrease in physiological response after repeated drug exposure is called _________.
Tolerance
201
The neurotransmitter ________ is found in nuclei of the basal forebrain.
Acetylcholine
202
If one eye of a kitten is occluded during the sensitive period, visual cortex cells later show __________ responses to visual stimuli presented to that eye
Decreased
203
Which one of the following statements best demonstrates epigenetic effects on gene expression?
Mice raised by foster parents behave more like their foster parents than their genetic parents
204
Which feature does not normally change during the life span?
Genotype
205
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a hereditary disorder that involves faulty metabolism of
Protein
206
A higher drug dosage binds a higher proportion of receptors, thereby increasing the response. This relationship is called the ________.
Dose-response curve
207
The effect of a drug is based on its receptor binding affinity and its concentration. To be equally effective, a drug with low affinity will require a(n) __________ concentration compared to a drug with high affinity.
Higher
208
Verapamil inhibits neurotransmitter release by blocking _________.
Calcium channels
209
The _________ muscles are essential for accommodation.
ciliary
210
Quanta of light that enter the eye are captured in rod cells by
rhodopsin
211
The sweet taste is mediated by
slow, metabotropic receptors
212
When athletes work out to improve their stamina, one of the goals is to enhance their
slow-twitch muscle fibers
213
Each level of the auditory system shows ________ mapping.
tonotopic
214
Naloxone (Narcan), which is used to revive people who are dying of opioid overdose, is an opioid
antagonist
215
The dorsal column system crosses to the contralateral side of the nervous system at the level of the
medulla
216
Sound latency differences between the two ears allows an animal to
localize sounds
217
The brain recognizes action potentials from different sensory modalities as separate and distinct because
action potentials from different sensory modalities are carried by different nerve tracts
218
The ________ are the regions of the auditory pathway of the human brain in which information from both ears is first integrated.
superior olivary nuclei
219
The ________ is (are) primarily responsible for refracting light to form an image on the retina.
cornea
220
The _________ ear contains the tiny chain of bones that facilitate sound conduction.
middle
221
In the organ of Corti, which structure is located between the basilar membrane and the tectorial membrane?
Hair cells
222
A high density of ________ is responsible for the dark color of the fovea, and this density is what make visual ________ so high in this area.
cones, acuity
223
If a person facing forward hears a sound to her left,
her right ear will be cast in a sound shadow
224
Sustained stimulation of a receptor results in a reduction in receptor sensitivity called
sensory adaptation
225
The prepyriform cortex is also known as the
primary olfactory cortex
226
Genes for the M and L photopigments are on the X chromosome. Since women have two X chromosomes while males have only one, which of the following is true?
Men are more likely than women to have visual impairments caused by genetic defects
227
Which statement best reflects the evolutionary advantage of sensory adaptation?
It prevents the nervous system from being overwhelmed by stimuli that offer very little information about the world.
228
Plasticity of somatosensory cortical maps is evident following
All of the above
229
Afferent fibers from the periphery that carry nociceptive information terminate on neurons in the
dorsal horn of the spinal cord
230
An on-center/off-surround cell responds most strongly when
only the center of its receptive field is completely illuminated
231
Which portion of the retina has the highest density of photoreceptors?
The fovea
232
The initial site of damage in noise-induced deafness is usually
hair cells
233
The receptors through which capsaicin exerts its effects are
responsive to sudden increases in temperature
234
The representation of the human body in the somatosensory cortex especially emphasizes the
hands and lips
235
The human visual system is only sensitive to a narrow range of the electromagnetic spectrum: from about _________ nanometers
400 to 700
236
The wide variety of ear shapes and sizes seen in mammals can be attributed to
adaptations to different environmental challenges
237
The phenomenon of adaptation refers to
the constantly changing sensitivity of photoreceptors to light in order to match illumination levels
238
Frequency of sound is measured in
hertz
239
Primary somatosensory cortex (S1) is located in the
postcentral gyrus
240
The onion-like receptor found in skin that selectively responds to vibration and pressure is the
Pacinian corpuscle
241
What features of the visual system of a prey animal, such as a rabbit, serve to better detect predators?
Their eyes are located on the sides of the head, they have wide peripheral vision, and little overlap in their fields of vision
242
The canals of the cochlea are filled with ________, so that sound information in the inner ear is carried in the form of _________.
fluid; waves
243
The blind spot in our visual field is created by _________ at the _________.
a lack of photoreceptors; optic disc
244
During LTP induction, calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II (CaMK II) enhances synaptic efficacy by:
Inserting additional AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane
245
Blocking NMDA receptors in CA1 pyramidal cells would most directly impair a mouse's ability to:
Strengthen newly active hippocampal synapses
246
Which brain region is especially important for the spatial "cognitive map" that lets rats remember a maze?
Hippocampus
247
In classical eye-blink conditioning, information about the tone (CS) and the air-puff (US) converges in the cerebellum.
True
248
Which secretase cleaves within the amyloid-β region of APP, preventing formation of the peptide implicated in Alzheimer's plaques?
⍺-secretase
249
During osmotic thirst, water leaves body cells because the extracellular fluid has become:
Hypertonic relative to the intracellular fluid
250
Which ion entering the postsynaptic neuron through NMDA receptors is critical for initiating the molecular cascade of long-term potentiation (LTP)?
Calcium (Ca2+)
251
Leptin is a hormone released by adipose tissue that generally suppresses appetite.
True
252
Which term describes the optimal range that a negative-feedback system tries to maintain, rather than a single rigid value?
Set zone
253
In Aplysia, short-term habituation of the gill-withdrawal reflex is primarily due to:
Reduced neurotransmitter release from the sensory neuron
254
Which physiological response helps ectotherms regulate their body temperature?
Moving between sunny and shady areas
255
Allostasis differs from homeostasis because allostasis emphasizes:
Shifting set zones to meet anticipated demands
256
An APOE-e4 allele is best described as:
A genetic risk factor that increases the likelihood of late-onset Alzheimer's dementia
257
Which secretase cleaves within the beta-amyloid region of the amyloid precursor protein, thereby preventing the formation of beta-amyloid?
Alpha-secretase
258
The cerebellum plays an important role in procedural (skill) learning such as mirror tracing.
True
