Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is psychology?

A

the science of mental processes and behavior

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2
Q

What are some examples of mood disorders?

A

Major depressive disorder (mdd) Suicide

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3
Q

What is major depressive disorder?

A

Affect (mood) Behavior (actions) Cognitive (thoughts) More common in women Most common psychological disorder in U.S. -Affects 20% people in the U.S. -2-3 time as many women as men in the U.S. Genetics - runs in families (twin studies show twin is 4x more likely to develop MDD is twin has is) Malfunctioning neurotransmitters - serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine Left frontal lobe activity (center for sympathy and empathy impulse control and sexual behavior) - less activity in people with mdd

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4
Q

Describe Structuralism

A

William Wundt was one of the fathers of structuralism. Structuralists examined sensory and perception by manipulating stimuli and asking subjects to report what they experienced. It attempted to understand what the mind was doing. Major tool of structuralism was introspection. Looked at structures of the brain and created theories about their functions Problems occurred with structuralism because researchers could agree upon what the data meant.

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5
Q

Describe Functionalism

A

Study of consciousness Functionalist wanted to now the why behind certain behaviors Focused on level of person and group Strongly influenced by Charles Darwin; used theories of Darwin and natural selection William James spokesperson for functionalism

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6
Q

Who was William James?

A

First American Psychologist Together with William Wundt they are considered the Fathers of Psychology Wrote the first general text book on psychology Early spokes person of functionalist and argued against structuralism Proposed that mental life is a unity that flows and changes In his book, Principals of Psychology he presents ideas about consciousness, attention, memory, habits and emotions

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7
Q

What is learning?

A

A relatively permanent change in behavior or behavioral repertoire that results from experience

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8
Q

What are the three types of learning?

A

Classical conditioning Operant conditioning Cognitive and social learning

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9
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Discovered by Ivan Pavlov (physiologist), while studying the digestive system of dogs Type of learning that occurs when a neautral stimulus becomes associated with a stimulus that causes a reflexive behavior and in time this neutral stimulus is sufficient to elicit, draw out from the animal, that behavior

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10
Q

what are the 4 components of classical conditioning?

A

Broken into 4 components: -unconditioned stimulus -unconditioned response -conditioned stimulus -conditioned response

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11
Q

In Pavlovs dog study what were the 4 components of classical conditioning?

A

Unconditioned stimuli = food Unconditioned response = salivation Conditioned stimulus = door opening/bell Conditioned response = salivation

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12
Q

What are effective US stimuli?

A

any stimulus that affectively elicits a desired response. (electric shock, food and water)

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13
Q

What are effective CS stimuli?

A

A neutral stimulus that does not eleicit a desired response prior to conditioning (light, or tone)

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14
Q

What is Avoidance learning?

A

classical conditioning with a CS and unpleasnnt US that leads the animal to try and avoid the CS

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15
Q

What is memory?

A

A general ability or faculty that allows us to interpret the perceptual workd to help us organize responses to changes that take place in the world

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16
Q

What are the different types of memory stores?

A

Sensory memory, short term memory, long term memory

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17
Q

What are the different types of sensory memory?

A

Visual, olfactory, gustatory - taste, auditory, tactile - touch, nocioceptive - pain, thermal - temp, vestigular - balanace, procioceptive - body position

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18
Q

What are the most common types of sensory memory studied in Psychology?

A

Iconis and Echoic

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19
Q

What are characteristics of sensory memory?

A

Short Duration (less than 50MS) Large Capacity (11-12 items) Modality Specific (Visual, hearing) Not under conscious control

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20
Q

Describe short term memory

A

memory that is limited in both capacity and duration can typicaly hold between 5 and 9 time can last from several seconds to less than 1 minute without rehearsal also called short term store or working memory first researched by william james and ebbinghaus very susceptible to disruptions

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21
Q

How is short term memory defined?

A

The temporary memory store accessed after recent exposure to a stimulus to be recalled.

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22
Q

Where does Short Term memory reside in the brain?

A

Hippocampus (interior to temporaral lobe)

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23
Q

How can we increase our short term memory?

A

chunking - recode the data into larger chunks, then we can remember more information

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24
Q

where do we retain most of our short term memory?

A

in the auditory domain. Process information as sounds or words and how they are pronounces. VS long terms seems t the coded by meaning rathet than sound

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25
Q

What are characteristics of LTM?

A

has an unlimited capacity, extremely long duration, can decay over time

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26
Q

Allan Urho Paivio theory?

A

dual coding theory suggests that visual and verbal information act as two distinctive systems

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27
Q

what are the goals of psychology?

A

The four main goals of psychology are to describe, explain, predict and control the behavior and mental processes of others.

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28
Q

what are the different types of neurons?

A

Sensory neuron -Responds to input from sense organs Motor neuron -Sends signals to muscles to control movement Interneuron -Connects to other neurons

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29
Q

what is a glial cell?

A

Fills the gaps between neuronal cells Influences communication among them neurons Helps in the care and feeding of neurons

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30
Q

what is a brain circuit?

A

Set of neurons that affect one another

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31
Q

What are the major parts of a neuron? insert pic

A
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32
Q

what is action potential?

A

Moves down the axon

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33
Q

what is the All-or-none law?

A

Either action potential occurs or it doesn’t

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34
Q

what is Myelin

A

Fatty protein substance surrounding the axon

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35
Q

what are the basic properties of action potentials?

A

show a propagated (a response that is reproduced) remain the same size regardless of stimulus intensity. increase in firing rate to increase in stimulus intensity. have a refractory (resting) period of 1 ms - upper firing rate is 500 to 800 impulses per second. show spontaneous activity that occurs without stimulation.

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36
Q

what is the resting period for action potential?

A

period of 1 ms

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37
Q

what is the chemical make up of solutions inside and outside and axon?

A

Axon has a soluble solution of positively charged ions inside (potassium–K+) and outside (sodium–Na+) the axon

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38
Q

what are some key traits about axon electrical charges?

A

Without stimulation the axon has a charge within that is -70mV compared to outside—the resting potential When stimulated, the axon will allow sodium channels open, increasing the positive charge, and starting an action potential Na+ molecules flow in, and K+ molecules flow out at the beginning of action potential At the end of the action potential flow is reversed

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39
Q

What is Just Noticeable Difference?

A

The size of the of the difference in a stimulus characteristics needed for a person to detect a difference between two stimuli or a change in a single stimulus.

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40
Q

What is Difference Threshold?

A

is the minimum difference in stimulation that a person can detect 50 percent of the time

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41
Q

What is Weber’s Law?

A

A constant percentage of magnitude change is necessary to detect a difference - calculated to be about 5%

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42
Q

What is Absolute Threshold?

A

The magnitude of the stimulus needed, on average, for an observer to detect it half the time it is present.

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43
Q

What is top down processing?

A

strategy of information processing and knowledge ordering, starting first with the high-level aspects and then working your way down to the fine details. An example of this would be recognizing someone you know.

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44
Q

What is bottom up processing?

A

strategy of information processing and knowledge ordering, known as “small chunk” processing and suggests that we attend to or perceive elements by starting with the smaller, more fine details of that element and then building upward until we have a solid representation of it in our minds. An example of this would be trying to figure out something diferent about someone you know.

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45
Q

What are rods?

A

very sensative to light, allow us to see shades of grey, white and black each eye contains 100-120 million rods gross detail, night/low light vision

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46
Q

What are cones?

A

not as sensative to light, but allow us to see color each eye contains 5-6 million cones fine details and daytime light

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47
Q

What is transduction?

A

When the eye converts electromagnetic energy that is light into neural impulses/signals.

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48
Q

What is accomodation?

A

Adomatic adjustment the eye makes to see at particular distances

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49
Q

What is dark adaption?

A

Process that leads to increased sensativity to light after being in the dark

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50
Q

what does the pupil do?

A

regulates light

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51
Q

what does the iris do?

A

contains the muscles that contract the eye

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52
Q

what does the cornea do?

A

protects the eye from injury

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53
Q

what is the retina?

A

sheet of tissue at the back of the eye, containing receptor cells that convert light to neural signnals

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54
Q

what is the fovea?

A

area of retina with the highest density of cones and highest resolution

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55
Q

what is the optic nerve?

A

axons of ganglion cells are gathered into a single large cord

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56
Q

what are ganglion cells?

A

collect signal from retina and pass to optic nerve

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57
Q

What is the mean IQ?

A

100

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58
Q

What is the standard diviation IQ?

A

15

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59
Q

What perentage of people fall into the average mean IQ?

A

68

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60
Q

What makes language?

A

language production: generated through learning, imitation and reinforcement (ie a child get reinforced for saying specific words (operant conditioning) language comprehension phonology (phonemes - basic building blocks of language)

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61
Q

What are phonemes?

A

Basic unit of speech, single speech sounds, created by the coordination of lungs, vocal cavities, larynx, lips tongue and teeth english uses about 45 phonemes, although 9 make up more than half the words Holt reports 869 phonemes in all of human language

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62
Q

What are morphemes?

A

smallest unit with meaning in language can be roots or affixes depending on whether they are the main part of dependent part of a work a few morphemes are also phonemes examples are A and Up

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63
Q

What is grammar?

A

The set of rules such as syntax and semantics that allow communication with one another.

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64
Q

What are semantics?

A

rules to derive meaning from mrphemes, words and sentences (adding -ed to a regular verb to transform a word into past tense

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65
Q

What is syntax?

A

rules to order words into sentences

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66
Q

What are the 4 components to the psychological state emotion?

A
  1. A positive or negative subject experience 2. The activation of specific mental processes and stored information 3. Bodily arousal 4. Characteristic overt behavior
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67
Q

Explain the James/Lange Theory

A

You feel emotions after your body reacts (ie in a car, you slam on the brakes, you get a rush of adrenaline, interpret, then emotion

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68
Q

Explain the Schacter-Singer Experiment

A

Participants were given epinephrine(told it was vitamin B) and then watched a person being sad or happy, the person would then act sad or happy matching the person they were with

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69
Q

What are the two routes to emotion?

A

Events and Appraisal

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70
Q

What the are different theories of emotion?

A

James-Lange Theory, Cannon-Bard Theory, Cognitive Theory, Emerging Synthesis

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71
Q

Are emotions universal across cultures?

A

Yes, based on facial expressions emotions appear to be similar across cultures

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72
Q

What are Freud’s structures of the mind?

A

Ego, Superego, and ID

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73
Q

Describe the Ego

A

Mostly located in the conscious min, but also present in the preconscious and unconscious levels Develops in childhood (before superego) Acts as referee between ID and Superego

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74
Q

Describe the Superego

A

At the preconscious and unconscious levels Develops in childhood Home to morality and conscience governed by the ego ideal

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75
Q

Describe the ID

A

At the unconscious level present at birth Home to sexual and aggressive drives Governed by the pleasure principle

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76
Q

Explain the Psychosexual Stages

A

Oral stage Anal Stage Phallis Stage Latency Stage Genital Stage

77
Q

What does Freud say about personality development?

A

What we must pass successfully through each phase to get to the next and failure to pass through a state leads to fixation and at times of stress we regress to that stage.

78
Q

Describe successful completion of Freud’s psychosexual stages

A

Oral stage = weaning from mothers breast or nipple Anal Stage = toilet training Phallis Stage = identifying with same sex parents Latency Stage = transformation from repressed sexual urges to more productiveand socially acceptable activities Genital Stage - formation of mature sexual love relationships and development of interests and talent for productive work

79
Q

What are some of the problems that can occur if a person doesn’t move successfully between stages?

A

Fixation = a persistent focus of the id’s peasure seeking energiers on an earlier stage of pyschosexual development at times of stress a person regress to a stage they didn’t successfully complete Neurosis = abnormal behavior de to conflict between the ego and either id or superego Psychosis = A break from reality caused by the fixation

80
Q

What are the Oedipus and Electra complex?

A

Oedipus = Freud thought all boys, in the phallic stage needed to compete with father for mothers affection (castration anxiety - fear father will castrate them) Electra = Girls go through a similar experience with mother for their fathers affection (penis envy- girls desire what the penis can get you, not the penis itself)

81
Q

Name the Freud Defense Mechanisms

A

Denial = refuse to accept threatening thoughts Intellectualization = threatening thoughts are subdued by rationalizing them Repression = banish anxiety producing or unacceptable thoughts Regression = retreat to earlier stage in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses Projection = project threatening thoughts onto others Reaction formation = ego makes unacceptable thoughts their opposites Rationalization = self justifying reasons Sublimation = diverts sexual or aggressive impulses to other actives such as working out of a hobby Undoing = action to undo threatening thoughts or behavior (accidental insult to significant might result in lengthy praise

82
Q

Who are Freuds Followers?

A

Carl Jung, Alfred Adler, Karen Horney

83
Q

What are some of Carl Jung’s theories?

A

Student of Freud, agree with a lot of Freuds theories but had issues with his theory that babies were sexual beings The psyche is composed of the ego, personal unconscious, and the collective unconscious Archetypes that all cultures have in the world: The hero, the devil, the damsel in distress, the mother figure, innocent youth

84
Q

What are some of Alfred Adler’s theories?

A

Strive for superiority Inferiority complex

85
Q

What are some of Karen Horney’s theories?

A

Basic anxiety = envious of stuff not had Privilege Envy = envious of priveleges a man has and what his penis can give him not his penis

86
Q

what are examples of Teratogens?

A

maternal illness - chicken pox, rubella and HIV alcohol and drugs (heroin and cocaine) - cause mental retardation, sleep and attentional problems caffeine and smoking - cause low birth weight and miscarriage diet and pollution - malnutrition like a vitamin deficiency (vitamin b - birth defects, folic acid - spina bifida) maternal stressors

87
Q

what are examples of specific paternal Teratogen influences?

A

fathers who smoke a pack or more of cigs a day had a 43% increased risk of having a child with cancer cocaine can damage the sperm and impair grown in fetus and child alcohol - genetic damage to the sperm leading to birth defects toxic substances (from work) - increase risk of chromosomal abnormalities increasing risk of miscarriage or birth defects

88
Q

who is jean piaget?

A

was a Swiss developmental psychologist and philosopher known for his epistemological studies with children.

89
Q

What are Jean Piaget’s cognitive development stages?

A

Sensorimotor Stage—development of the notion of object permanence Preoperational Stage—mental representations, conservation and egocentrism Concrete Operations Stage—mental manipulation of objects Formal Operations Stage—abstract reasoning

90
Q

What are the key traits of the sensormotor period?

A

Age - 0–about 2 years Major achievements Object permanence Imitation Also shows stranger anxiety, a discomfort with those other than those with whom they are familiar. If mom and day leave room kid cries

91
Q

What are the key traits of the Preoperational period?

A

Age - 2–6 or 7 years Major achievement Capacity for mental representation and symbolic play. thinks a dog and cat looks the same No concept of conservation - wants more or all Egocentrism The Theory of Mind begins to develop The child begins to understand others’ points of view. Might not agree with the other view but understands that they have one The ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others and to understand that others have beliefs, desires, and intentions that are different from one’s own

92
Q

What are the key traits of the Concrete Operations period?

A

Age - 6 or 7–11 years Major achievements Can take another person’s perspective (theory of mind becomes fully developed) Classifying objects. Can put all socks and shirts and pants into separate piles Conservation and other reversible mental operations (math)

93
Q

What are the key traits of the Formal Operations period?

A

Age - 11 years (at the earliest) Major achievements Abstract concepts and the consequences of their actions Logic—deductive reasoning from the general to the specific Reversibility (use math) Hypothetical thinking and abstractions

94
Q

What have we learned after Jean Piaget’s studies?

A

Competencies often appear at earlier ages than Piaget suggested. IE kids can do math bfore age 11 Theory of mind Can attribute mental states to oneself and to others Piaget underestimated children - he used his own children to experiment

95
Q

what reflexes are present at birth?

A

Rooting (3-4 months) Moro (2 months) (PICK ME UP!!) Stepping (2 months) Grasping (after 2 months) Tonic neck (4-5 months) Sucking (3 months) Palmar grasp (4 months) Startle—falling (5 months) Swimming (6 months) Plantar—bottom of foot (1 year) Babinski—side of foot (1 year) Withdrawal (life time)

96
Q

Explain how a child develops head down and from torso outward

A

child is very close to legally blind at birth, vison gets better over time. Infets pay close attention to a mothers lips and eyes

97
Q

What are some of the key physical and motor development milestones of children 2-5 months?

A

Eye tracking of movement Lifts head / torso while on stomach Holds head steady Holds onto objects in their hand Depth perception begins to develop

98
Q

What are some of the key physical and motor development milestones of children 6-9 months?

A

Rolls over Sits upright Picks up small objects Shifts objects from hand to hand Crawls

99
Q

What are some of the key physical and motor development milestones of children 10-12 months?

A

Pulls themselves upright to standing Walks with support Turns pages in a book

100
Q

What are some of the key physical and motor development milestones of children 13-18 months?

A

Scribbles Walks unassisted Points at pictures when asked Throws a ball and maintains balance

101
Q

what are the different development stages of adolescence?

A

Physical development - Puberty Cognitive development - Abstract reasoning Adolescent egocentrism - Imaginary audience-smile, you’re on stage!! (always center of everyone’s attention) - Personal fable—I am so very special (i’m the best and very special - sometimes lie about themselves to make them sound better) - Peer pressure (want to be spcial but copy trends to fit in) - peer pressure can be good - ie good influence

102
Q

What are some of the key social and emotional developments in adolescence?

A

Conflicts with parents (begins @ puberty) - Most frequent in early adolescence - Most intense in mid-adolescence (because they feel and look like an adult without the responsibilities) Mood swings - Depression - Loneliness Risk taking (frontal cortex isn’t fully developed yet Men 16-25 take more risks ideal age for army is men age 18-25 (more risk takers) Peer relationships

103
Q

what changes happen to our bodies as we age?

A

moment we are born we are programmed to die Genes - skin cells don’t replicate Environment - climate changes and environment changes state to state Menopause (for women) - hormonal changes…men have a menopause like change as well. Perception - Cataracts (clouding of the lens) - senses deteriorate. hereditary. - Hearing - 200-400HZ starts to go which is the range of the human voice. This typically falls on mostly men but some women too (men - possibly because they work with loud machinery) - Smell Memory - Recall of specific episodic memories - Working memory forget things…might be that they think they are expected to be forgetful…if they tried harder then might remember Intelligence and specific abilities - Fluid intelligence (ability to solve novel problems - peaks at 26) - Crystallized intelligence (normal everyday problems - peaks at 65) Research methods - Longitudinal studies (drop off overtime…long period study) - Cross-sectional studies ( reviews a specific age set and compares) Cerebral reserve hypothesis Less-differentiated brain

104
Q

What are Erikson’s 8 psychosocial stages?

A
  1. Trust vs. mistrust (birth – 18 mo.) 2. Autonomy vs. doubt (18 mo. to 3 yr.) 3. Initiative vs. guilt (4 – 6 yr.) 4. Industry vs. inferiority (7 – 12 yr.) 5. Identity vs. role confusion (12-18 yr.) 6. Intimacy vs. isolation—young adulthood (19-40s) 7. Generativity vs. self-absorption-mid-adulthood (40s to 50s) 8. Ego Integrity vs. despair—into old age (40s to death)
105
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of infancy

A

0-18mo conflict:Trust v. conflict imp events:Feeding outcome:Caregiver provides proper care or child develops mistrust

106
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of early childhood

A

18 mo - 3 yrs conflict:Autonomy v. doubt and shame imp events:Toilet training outcome:Personal control or child begins to doubt herself

107
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of preschool

A

4-6 yrs conflict:Initiative v. guilt imp events:Exploration outcome:Child tries to control his environment

108
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of school age

A

7-12 yrs conflict:Industry v. inferiority imp events:School outcome:Socialization and academics

109
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of adolesence

A

12-18 yrs conflict:Identity v. role confusion imp events:Social relationships outcome:Child develops a sense of self

110
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of young adulthood

A

19-40 yrs conflict:Intimacy v. isolation imp events:Relationships outcome:Form loving friendships

111
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of middle adulthood

A

40-50 yrs conflict:Generativity v. self-absorpsion imp events:Work and parenthood outcome:Nurturing things that will outlast them

112
Q

Explain conflict, important events and outcome for the psychosocial stage of maturity

A

65 to death conflict:Ego-integrity v. despair imp events:Reflection on life outcome:Feel a sense of fulfillment withlife

113
Q

what is stress?

A

the general term describing the psychological and bodily response to environmental threats and challenges that alters the body’s state of equilibrium (homeostasis)

114
Q

what are the two types of stressors and what are examples of both?

A

Acute stressor - short lives stressor, immediate harm to us Chronic stressor - something that persists and never goes away

115
Q

what does Selye’s general adaptation syndrome tell us about stress and our bodies resistance?

A

The body’s resistance to stress can only last so long before exhaustion sets in. phase 1: stress resistance down and then up phase 2: stress resistance moves up and slowly goes down phase 3: stress resistance goes down

116
Q

what are characteristics of the alarm phase in stress?

A

Fight-or-flight response Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis Cortisol, lymphocytes (e.g., t-cells and b-cells), uric acid and acetylcholine - cortisol rises during stress -Controls digestion, immune system, mood and emotions -Sexuality -Energy storage and expenditure Sympathetic & parasympathetic systems Cognitive appraisal

117
Q

what are characteristics of the Resistance Phase in stress?

A

Occurs when responses to stressors in the Alarm Phase did not alleviate the problem We become cranky—impatient and annoyed with trivial matters -The body starts to tire -Sleep patterns are interrupted (sleep too much or too little) -The stressed person becomes over-tired, anxious and forgetful -Resistance to illness and diseases decreases (immune system worsens)

118
Q

what are characteristics of the Exhaustion Phase in stress?

A

Complete breakdown of physical resistance to disease and illnesses (body worn out) -High blood pressure -Heart disease -Ulcers

119
Q

how can perceived control be a source of stress?

A

Learned helplessness- if we feel we can’t escape our fate we give in Predictability stress has more to do with the amount of control we perceive (if we feel we don’t have much control we won’t)

120
Q

what happens to the immune system when a person experiences stress?

A

Stress can suppress the production of white blood cells -B cells— –type of white blood cell (called a b-lymphocyte) that produce antibodies to fight infection and disease –develop from stem cells in the bone marrow -T cells— –Natural killer (NK) cells –Lymphocytes processed in the thymus and secrete lymphokines -Glucocorticoids and stress— –hormones used to help the body cope with acute stressors

121
Q

what are some of the healthy related issues that can arise due to stress?

A

heart disease -Stress and blood pressure -Atherosclerosis -Depression and heart disease -Anxiety and heart disease immune suppression - cancer –Immune system suppression and NK (Natural Killer) t-cells—AKA cytotoxic lymphocytes –Stress –Perception of control autonomic nervous system effects (headaches, hypertension)

122
Q

what are the different stages of sleep?

A

Stage 1(hypnogogic sleep)—drowsiness Stage 2—muscles tense and relax (45-60%) Stage 3—deep sleep Stage 4—deep sleep Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep—

123
Q

what are the key characteristics of stage 1 sleep?

A

low amplitude brain waves Easily awakened May experience hypnic jerk - twitch About 5 minutes don’t realize that you are falling sleep we can measure this with brain waves

124
Q

what are the key characteristics of stage 2 sleep?

A

Sleep spindles and high-amplitude brain waves Easily awakened Relaxed and less-responsive to environment

125
Q

what are the key characteristics of stage 3 sleep?

A

20-50% of sleep is delta sleep (Slow-wave sleep [SWS]) Heart rate and body temperature decrease Not easily wakened

126
Q

what are the key characteristics of stage 4 sleep?

A

> 50% delta sleep (SWS) Deep sleep Lowest HR, Temp, breathing rate delta sleep

127
Q

what are the key characteristics of REM sleep?

A

Brain activity similar to wakeful state Eyes moving Fast / irregular HR / respiration Muscles paralyzed Genital arousal consolidated learned muscles paralyzed - which is good so predators can’t see movement when we sleep

128
Q

what are some sleep conditions?

A

Insomnia Sleep apnea

129
Q

what are key characteristics of insomnia?

A

Caused by stress Treatments -Medications -Psychological treatments medications can cause this…or can cause us to have no REM sleep

130
Q

what are key characteristics of sleep apnea?

A

Cessation of breathing (up to 70s) and loud snoring 18 million persons affected in US Treatment -CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure) device -Weight loss

131
Q

What does DMS-V stand for?

A

Diagnostic and statistical manual or mental disorders

132
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages or DMS-V?

A

Dis - changing number and breadth of disorder. Overlapping criteria Adv -sidestep dispute about cause of disorder. Promotes consistency in diagnoses

133
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

delusions hallucinations (tactile or visual) disordered behaviors disorganized speech - talks alot and makes no sense

134
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

flat affect - lack expressive responses alogia - poverty of speech, slowing in speech (not intelligible to humans avolition - failure to form to complete goal related activities

135
Q

What are delusions of schizophrenia?

A

persecution - someone is out to get them grandeur - they are a VIP in the world reference - events that occur in the world have special meaning directed at them (earthquake is a sign from god to them!) control - the subject’s thoughts are controlled by someone else - usually government or aliens

136
Q

what are characteristics of schizophrenia?

A

hereditary - 13% increase risk when one parent has the disorder - 36% increase risk when both parents has the disorder - 17% when a sibling has schizophrenia - 48% when an identical twin has schizophrenia most common in densely populated and low income areas hispanic americans are less likely to develop schizophrenia than other groups prenatal - maternal exposure to hunger, stress increase incidences or schizophrenia. complications leading to o2 deprivation in fetus people in the northern hemisphere (russian, ireland, scandanavia)

137
Q

What is another name of dysthymia?

A

chronic depression

138
Q

What are the characteristics of dysthymia?

A

less sever than MDD longer lasting than MDD (lasts a minimum or 2 yeras in adults often becomes thought of an ingrained in who the person is - characteristic trait

139
Q

What are symptoms of dysthymia?

A

low self esteem - self downing feelings of helplessness insomnia or hypersomnia low energy or fatigue lack or appetite or overeating poor concentration and inability to make decisions overly critical constantly complaining and incapable of having fun

140
Q

what are the different types of Psychopharmacology used to treat Mood Disorders?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)—the first effective treatment for depression Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) interactions with tyramine (in cheeses and wine) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) -Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil - side effects - insomnia, sexual disfunction (less or more) Serotonin (SSRIs) /norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) -Serzone, Effexor - helps by blocking of reuptake St. John’s wort—as effective as SSRIs in studies - homeopathic (not FDA approved or monitored) Lithium - used for bipolar disorder, - treats positive/manic symptoms

141
Q

what is cognitive therapy?

A

Beck A type of therapy that focuses on realistic and rational thoughts rather than on their feelings or behaviors

142
Q

what is are the ABC’s of REBT?

A

it’s actually ABCDEF! Activating event + Beliefs = Consequences (anxiety, for example) Dispute of the irrational belief causes Effect of a new philosophy, and with Further action the new, rational belief takes hold

143
Q

what is Albert Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)?

A

Healthy function interrupted by -self-downing -Hostility and rage toward others’ poor -performance -Low frustration tolerance—blaming everything and everyone for problems

144
Q

what are the ABC’s of depression?

A

Activating event + Beliefs = Consequences (anxiety, for example)

145
Q

what are the different types of Biomedical Therapies used to treat psychological conditions?

A

Psychopharmacology - Antipsychotic or neuroleptic drugs - good for treating bipolar disorder Electroconvulsive therapy (also known as electroshock therapy) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

146
Q

what is the focus, goal and techniques associated with behavioral therapy?

A

focus: Maladaptive behavior goal:Change the behavior, its antecedents or its consequences techniques:Progressive relaxation; systematic desensitization; Exposure techniques; Stimulus control; Behavior modification

147
Q

what is the focus, goal and techniques associated with Cognitive Therapy?

A

focus: Automatic thinking; cognitive distortions; Faulty beliefs and irrational thoughts goal:Change dysfunctional and unrealistic thinking to more rational thinking; Recognize the continuum of relationships in thinking, behaviors and feelings techniques:Use of the ABCDEF technique; Psycho-education; Role-playing

148
Q

what are some characteristics of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

Used when medication and therapy are ineffective Effective treatment for MDD (Depression) Fell out of favor in 1940;s because it was overused/abused, used to keep people docile. Abuse Regaining popularity Memory loss - anterior grade amnesia used to help treat major depresive disorder don’t really know why it works. thought is that it’s like restarting a computer - stimulates cell growth - increase in neurons

149
Q

what are some characteristics of Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)?

A

Relatively new technique 100- to 200- (microsecond is 10-6 s) microsecond bursts of high-intensity magnetism May replace ECT - it’s available in dr office used for depression and addictions rearranges molefules in cortex - can specify a very specific part of the brain to treat

150
Q

what are the different types of Psychopharmacology used to treat Schizophrenia?

A

Antipsychotic (neuroleptic) medications—thorazine (first generation antipsychotics) -Target positive symptoms -Tardive dyskinesia a consequence (uncontrollable shaking) Atypical antipsychotics (second generation antipsychotics like Risperdal) -Newer -Target both the positive and the negative symptoms -Reduces amount of dopamine in the brain Early treatment (men 17-25 are the most common group, typically they live in urban/poor areas) introduction of drugs to treat Schizophrenia created a rapid decline in state and county mental hospital populations

151
Q

what are the different types of Psychopharmacology used to treat Mood Disorders?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)—the first effective treatment for depression Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) interactions with tyramine (in cheeses and wine) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) -Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil - side effects - insomnia, sexual disfunction (less or more) Serotonin (SSRIs) /norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) -Serzone, Effexor - helps by blocking of reuptake St. John’s wort—as effective as SSRIs in studies - homeopathic (not FDA approved or monitored) Lithium - used for bipolar disorder, - treats positive/manic symptoms

152
Q

what are key characteristics in Psychoanalysis?

A

Free association - patient lies down and away from the dr. has them tell them the first thing that pops into their head Dream analysis—freud says that all dreams have meaning -the royal road to the unconscious -Wish fulfillment -Unveiling the defense mechanisms -Resistance—patient refuses to cooperate -Interpretation -Transference - ie repressed sexual urges for father transferred onto freud freud says that dreams are our way of fullfilling our dangerous wishes (affair or killing someone)

153
Q

what is humanistic therapy?

A

Carl Rogers developed this therapy also called Client-centered therapy Incongruence help to identify the patients -Real self (ego) -Ideal self (super ego)

154
Q

what are Client-centered therapy techniques?

A

Reflection Empathy means to put yourself in someone elses shoes) Unconditional positive regard

155
Q

what are the operant conditional based behavior therapy techniques?

A

Behavior modification -Reinforcement, extinction and punishment (drugs for alcohol aversion) Token economies -Used with mentally handicapped -Coprophagia in institutions Self-monitoring techniques

156
Q

what are cognitive distortions that are common in cognitive therapy?

A

Dichotomous thinking - black and white only ,either you are great or awful nothing in the middle Mental filter - only think about bad and filter out good Mind reading - they know what the other person is thinking (about them) Catastrophic exaggeration - if I don’t “x” my world will end Control beliefs - either everything is out of your control of that you must control your life completely or lose control forever

157
Q

what is attitude?

A

An attitude is “a relatively enduring organization of beliefs, feelings, and behavioral tendencies towards socially significant objects, groups, events or symbols”

158
Q

how can attitude help us predict behavior?

A

Strong, stable, relevant, important, memorable attitudes most predictive if someone is strongly religious we assume they are in church on sunday

159
Q

how can behavior affect attitude?

A

Cognitive dissonance tells us that in defending a randomly assigned attitude changes peoples’ attitudes. Why? This produces a feeling of discomfort leading to an alteration in one of the attitudes, beliefs or behaviors to reduce the discomfort and restore balance etc.

160
Q

What are the ABC’s of attitude?

A

Affective component: this involves a person’s feelings / emotions about the attitude object. For example: “I am scared of spiders”. Behavioral component: the way the attitude we have influences how we act or behave. For example: “I will avoid spiders and scream if I see one”. Cognitive component: this involves a person’s belief / knowledge about an attitude object. For example: “I believe spiders are dangerous”.

161
Q

what knowledge does attitude give us?

A

Provides meaning for life Allows prediction what / how events might happen Gives structure and organization We know someone is religious, so we can predict that they go to church

162
Q

what is Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory?

A

we have an inner drive to hold all our attitudes and beliefs in harmony and avoid disharmony (or dissonance). Cognitive dissonance –conflicting attitudes, beliefs or behaviors. This conflict produces feelings of discomfort Leads one to alteration one of the attitudes, beliefs or behaviors In turn, this leads to a reduction of discomfort

163
Q

What are the different methods of reducing dissonance?

A

Indirect strategies Feeling good about ourselves in other areas of life Direct strategies Change our attitude about what we believe Trivializing an inconsistency

164
Q

What are stereotypes?

A

A belief (or set of beliefs) about people from a particular category or group

165
Q

how can stereotypes be used as cognitive shortcuts?

A

Assign social information to a category of people

166
Q

what is prejudice?

A

An attitude (generally negative) toward members of a group

167
Q

what are the 2 components of prejudice?

A

Cognitive—beliefs and expectations about a group Emotional—negative feelings towards a group

168
Q

what is discrimination?

A

Negative behavior based on prejudice negative behavior toward individuals from a specific group due to unjustified negative attitudes about that group based on anything that distinguishes groups

169
Q

Why Does Prejudice Exist?

A

Realistic conflict theory - Competition for resources - Prejudice reduced when competition is eliminated ie poor whites started competing with blacks for jobs and were the worst offenders of prejudices social learning: Prejudice transmitted through culture

170
Q

what are the two categories or social prejudice?

A

Ingroup Outgroup

171
Q

what does robber’s cave study tell us about prejudice?

A

when the boys were competing they were violent and prejudice toward each other when they were asked to work together toward a common goal it eliminated the bad behavior

172
Q

how can people change their prejudice?

A

Contact hypothesis Re-categorization Mutual interdependence

173
Q

how can we change our attitude through a central route?

A

Central route— - paying close attention to the persuasive argument - If you’re already against the premise it is not too useful

174
Q

how can we change our attitude through a Peripheral route?

A

Peripheral route - The source of the argument is attractive (Kate Upton) - The source is famous (Bono) - The number of arguments for or against can be swaying - The opinions of others exposed to the argument

175
Q

how can we change our attitude through a Mere exposure effect?

A

Mere exposure effect - exposure to other things changes attitude (college?)

176
Q

how can we change our attitude through Persuasive people?

A

Identity - Experts or famous people Fast talking - Fast-talkers seem to be most persuasive Seems honest

177
Q

how can we change our attitude through Persuasive message?

A

Fear (politicians - if you vote for obama the country will die in 4 yrs) Public service messages (ex-smokers dying on commercials)

178
Q

Who studied operant conditioning?

A

Thorndike BF Skinner because of their research they contributed to the development of a few standard methods of studying operant and instrumental conditioning

179
Q

How did Thorndike study operant conditioning?

A

Thorndike, studied cats in puzzle boxes, to understand their intellegence. He studied the time it would take them to escape. Called instrumental conditioning Was the first learning theorist to attempt to explain what was being leraned in operant conditioning and why

180
Q

How did BF Skinner study operant conditioning?

A

Skinner studied with rats (reward training - positive reinforcement). Suggested that classical conditioning supposes no higher order of thinking was needed by animals Coined the term operant repsonse - to differentiate from classical conditioned response

181
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

A contingency exists in which a reinforcement will occur as a reward for a specific behavior

182
Q

What are types of contingencies?

A

Non rewarding: Extinction - response gets no reinformcenent and response rate decreases. - At first it continues but for a short time and then ceases. -Might have extinction burst, of increase on behavior out of frustration - Benefit is that it will adapt new behaviors to try and elicit reward Omission- The response prevents the consequence of the reward, suggesting that another response would have earned the reward, the responding decreases Punishment: A response is folled by an adversive consequence, the outcome is a decrease in responding

183
Q

What is the partial reinforcement extinction effect?

A

it is not necessary that reinforcement occur on every trial in classical or instrumental conditioning or for every response in operant conditioning. In operant/instrumental conditioning contexts, it is usually important to reinforce behavior rather generously during the early stages of acquisition simply to insure that the organism maintains a sufficient level of performance that occasional reinforcements will be received. From that point, it is possible to “wean lean;” that is, one can progressively reduce the percent reinforcement even to the point where, on the average the organism is not receiving enough nutritive value from the reinforcer to replace the energy expended to receive it.

184
Q

How did BF Skinner feel about punishment in operant conditioning?

A

he felt is was no more effective that positive reinforcement in short term, less effective in long term

185
Q

What are some important components of understanding punishment in operant conditioning?

A
  1. Intensity: The more intense the punisher, the more effective the punishment, except when the intensity is increased 2. Delay of the punishment: The punisher loses effectiveness at the time between response and consequence increases - Partial or continuous schedule of punishment 3. Concurrent reinforcement:The effects of the punishment are neutralized if an appetitive and an aversive reinforcer both follow the behavior 4. Punishing stimuli with an appetitive reinforcer can make the punisher a secondary reinforcer
186
Q

What are some side effects of punishment?

A

Conditioned fear and avoidance Aggression Could also be negatively reinforcing by taking awa a source of annoyance Displaced aggression - against one who didn’t inflct the punishment

187
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

occurs when an unpleasant object or event is removed after a response thereby increasing the likelihood of that response in the future - escape learning - also called avoidance learning - a response prevents an aversive consequence

188
Q

What are some reinforcement variables?

A

Size matters- the size of the reinforcement is important, the larger the reinforcement the more powerful the contingency There has to be a need for the reinforcement, if you don’t need it then it doesn’t matter how powerful the reinforcement is The delay between the response and the reinforcement is important, the more immediate the reinforcement strengthens initial learning

189
Q

reminder study chapter 1-4 diagrams!!!!! (eye!!!)

A

reminder study chapter 1-4 diagrams!!!!! (eye!!!)