final exam Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

this class of clefting involves the cleft of the soft palate and hard palate that continues through the alveolar ridge on both sides leaving a free premaxilla usually associated with bilateral cleft lip

A

class 6

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2
Q

what causes clefting of the lip?

A

incomplete fusion of maxillary process and globular process

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3
Q

these are ready made, contoured arch bars that are adapted to fit accurately to each tooth and provide hooks for connecting the arches

A

arch bars

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4
Q

what diet is essential for promotion of healing?

A

protein and vitamins such as A, C, and riboflavin

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5
Q

what is open reduction used for?

A

the use of a surgical flap procedure to expose the fracture ends and bring them together for healing

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6
Q

what descriptive words are used to classify a fracture?

A

location, direction, nature and severity

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7
Q

this class of clefting involves the cleft of the soft palate and hard palate that continues through the alveolar ridge on one side of the premaxilla- usually associated with cleft lip of the same side

A

class 5

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8
Q

what is contraindicated with a patient that has xerostomia?

A

lemon and glycerin swabs

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9
Q

other than American dental association, what can ADA stand for?

A

Americans with disabilities act

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10
Q

what are predisposing causes of fractured jaws?

A

tumors, cysts, osteoporosis, or osteomyelitis

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11
Q

how many times a day should a caregiver clean the mouth of an unconscious patient?

A

three times

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12
Q

this cleft is a submucous cleft in which the muscle union is imperfect across the soft palate..the palate is short, the uvula is often bifid, a groove is situated at the midline of the soft palate and the closure to the pharynx is incompetent

A

class 7

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13
Q

how often should a patient be seen in office if they have a cleft?

A

every 3-4 months

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14
Q

when is final orthodontic treatment done on a patient with clefting?

A

during mixed dentition years or later

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15
Q

when is surgery preformed on cleft lip?

A

2-3 months of age…

child must be 10 wks of age, 10 lbs and achieved serum hemoglobin of 10 mg

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16
Q

who is cleft lip more common in?

A

males

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17
Q

a combination of two levels is also possible such as a right Le Fort 1 and a left Le Fort 2

A

Le Fort Combination

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18
Q

what are traumatic causes of fractured jaws?

A

domestic violence, gunshots, sporting injuries, falls, road traffic accidents and industrial accidents

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19
Q

what type of patients are contraindicated for IMF?

A

pt. with chronic airway diseases

pt who vomit regularly

pt. with mental illness

dietary problems

oral hygiene and dietary limitations lead to increased dental caries and perio infection

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20
Q

what are the types of mandibular fractures described by location?

A

alveolar process, condyle, angle, body, symphysis

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21
Q

this type of classification of clefting is a cleft of the tip of the uvula

A

class 1

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22
Q

who is cleft palate more common in?

A

females

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23
Q

how can you confirm appointments with deaf patients?

A

use the state telecommunication relay service to call a deaf patient directly with reminders

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24
Q

what are examples of risk factors that can cause clefting?

A

multifactorial genetic and environmental

1 in 500 births of Asians and native Americans

early in first trimester-
use oft tobacco
alcohol consumption
phenytoin, vitamin a, corticosteroids, drug abuse

maternal age >40 yrs

inadequate diet such as vitamins, esp. folic acid

lack of prenatal care and instruction

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25
this type of fracture classification by nature has no communication with outside
simple
26
this type of fracture classification by nature is shattered
comminuted
27
this clefting class involves clefting of the soft palate and hard palate
class 4
28
when a patient has a cleft palate, what are some things you want to insure?
biofilm removal, fluoride use
29
when someone has had fixation, what type of diet is recommended?
liquid or soft diet
30
this represents a failure of normal fusion of embryonic processes during development in the first trimester of pregnancy?
cleft lip and palate
31
how early is orthodontic treatment started on a patient in with clefting?
as early as 3 yrs
32
what are facial deformities involved with clefting?
depression of the nostril on the side with cleft lip deficiency of upper lip which may be short or retroposed over prominent lower lip
33
how is legal blindness defined?
having central vision of no more than 20/200 in the better eye with glasses or having peripheral fields of no more than 20 diameter
34
this is accomplished by applying wires or elastic bands between the maxillary and mandibular arches
intermaxillary fixation
35
what clinical signs may be present with a fractured jaw?
pain upon movement tenderness on slight pressure displaced teeth, fractured or mobile muscle spasm crepitation laceration, bleeding, discoloration (ecchymosis) and enlargement of soft tissue
36
this type of fracture classification by nature is known as green stick, has one side of a bone broken and the other side bent
incomplete
37
what mouth rinse should be used after oral surgery?
chlorhexadine 0.12% rinse or saline
38
what are some oral manifestations of someone with a cleft palate?
malocclusion, poorly formed teeth and a mouth breather
39
What is essential for building gingival tissue resistance?
a varied diet that includes adequate portions of all essential food groups
40
the high level craniofacial fracture extends transversely across the bridge of the nose, across the orbits and the zygomatic arches, and across the pterygoid plates
Le Fort 3
41
this type of fracture classification by nature has communication with outside
compound
42
the midface fracture extends over the middle of the nose, down the medial wall of the orbits, across the infraorbital rims and posteriorly, across the pterygoid plates
Le Fort 2
43
when does a cleft lip become apparent?
by the end of the second month in utero
44
this type of fracture involves shattering bone
compound comminuted
45
this is double vision, perception of two images of a single subject
diplopia
46
when a patient has not been able to masticate properly, the patient may have frequently induced intake of?
soft and cariogenic foods, frequent and sugary snacks, intake of high sucrose and energy beverages
47
this prohibits discrimination on the basis of a disability and requires public and commercial facilities to meet standards of accessibility by removing architectural, transportation and communication barriers
americans with disabilities act
48
what types of systems are used for immobilization??
transosseous wiring plates of various sizes titanium mesh bone clamps, staples and screws
49
what methods of feeding are optional when someone has had fixation?
plastic straw, spoon feed, tube feed
50
when can gingivitis develop?
9-19 days
51
what weeks does the cleft palate and lip form during gestation?
lip- 4th and 8th week palate- 6th and 12th week
52
what is the healing time for a fracture?
6 weeks for mandibular 4-6 weeks maxillary
53
when does a cleft palate become evident?
by the end of the third month
54
what are the common missing teeth of someone with clefting?
maxillary lateral incisors, maxillary premolar, and mandibular second premolars
55
this class of clefting involves a cleft of the soft palate
class 3
56
this is placed before eruption of maxillary teeth at the cleft site... it creates a normal architecture through which the teeth can erupt
alveolar graft
57
to control bleeding, what is something a patient could use?
bite on a tea bag firmly for 30 minutes
58
this class of clefting is a cleft of the uvula (bifid uvula)
class 2
59
what are children with cleft palates more susceptible to?
upper respiratory and middle ear infections breathing problems speech problems such as nasally tones
60
this is a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or an acquired opening such as a cleft of the hard palate
obturator
61
this type of fracture is a horizontal fracture line that extends above the roots of the teeth, above the palate, across the maxillary sinus, below the zygomatic process, and across the pterygoid plates
Le Fort 1
62
what type of fracture occurs in young children
incomplete