Final Exam A&P Flashcards

1
Q

Circuit that pumps blood to the lungs

A

Pulmonary circuit

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2
Q

Pulmonary circuit starts from what side of the heart?

A

Right side

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3
Q

In pulmonary circuit, what diffuses from blood into lungs?

A

CO2 (Carbon dioxide)

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4
Q

In pulmonary circuit, what diffuses from lungs into blood?

A

O2 (Oxygen)

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5
Q

In pulmonary circuit, blood returns to what side of the heart?

A

The left side

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6
Q

What circuit pumps blood to the tissues?

A

Systemic circuit

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7
Q

In systemic circuit, what side of the heart does it start?

A

Left side.

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8
Q

In systemic circuit, it delivers what to the body & head ?

A

O2 (Oxygen)

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9
Q

In what circuit picks up CO2 & waste from cells of body & head?

A

Systemic circuit.

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10
Q

In systemic circuit, which side of the heart does the blood return ?

A

Right side of heart

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11
Q

Blood flow of deoxygenated blood

A

Superior & inferior vena cava
Coronary sinus
right atrium
right ventricle
pulmonary trunk/PA
Lungs

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12
Q

blood flow of oxygenated blood

A

Lungs
4 pulmonary veins
coronary arteries
left atrium
left ventricle
Aorta
Body & head

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13
Q

What valve is between the right atrium & the right ventricle ?

A

Tricuspid Valve

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14
Q

What valve is in between the left atrium & left ventricle?

A

Bicuspid (Mitral valve)

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15
Q

Flow of blood

A

begins w/ deoxygenated blood
1. Sup&inf vena cava
- Right atrium & coronary sinus same time
- Tricuspid valve
2. Right ventricle
- pulmonary semilunar valve
3. Pulmonary trunk
4. Pulmonary arteries
-lung tissue
OXYGENATED START
5. Pulmonary veins
6. left atrium
- bicuspid valve
7. Left ventricle
- aortic semilunar valve
8. Aorta
-coronary arteries
to heart tissues
then deoxygenated blood starts again with cor0nary sinus- cardiac veins into right atrium.

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16
Q

conducting system of the heart contains

A
  1. sinoatrial (SA) node
  2. Atrioventricular (AV) node
  3. Bundle of His
  4. AV bundle
  5. Purkinje fibers
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17
Q

What structure is the pacemaker of the conducting system?

A

The Sinoatrial (SA) node

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18
Q

Depolarization phase in cardiac muscle

A

causes voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open

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19
Q

early repolarization phase

A

voltage gated Na channels & some voltage gated Ca 2+ channels close.

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20
Q

Plateau phase

A

voltage gated Ca2 channels remain open

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21
Q

final repolarization phase

A

voltage gated Ca2 channels close
many more voltage gated K+ channels open.

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22
Q

EKG deflections

A

p wave
QRS complex
t wave

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23
Q

What happens in P wave?

A

Atrial depolarization which Result in atrial contractions.

AD—> AC

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24
Q

what happens in QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarization results in ventricular contractions

VD —> VC

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25
what happens in T wave?
represents ventricular repolarization precedes in ventricular relaxation. VR--> VR
26
What happens in PQ interval ?
Atria are contracting & begin to relax. Ventricle begin to depolarize
27
what happens in QT interval?
ventricles contract & begin to relax
28
Altered EKGs
heart rate > 100 bpm termed tachycardia heart rate < 60 bpm termed bradycardia
29
what does Atrial flutter look like?
2-3 P waves for each QRS complex caused by ectopic APs in the atria
30
what is characterized by no P waves; normal QRS complexes: irregular timing
Atrial fibrillation. ventricles constantly stimulated by atria, reduced pumping effectiveness & filling time.
31
What is characterized by no QRS complexes; no rhythmic contraction of myocardium
Ventricular fibrillation
32
characterized by occasional shortened intervals between contractions
premature atrial contractions
33
characterized by prolonged QRS complexes; exaggerated voltage; inverted T wave
Premature ventricular contractions
34
atrial contraction called
atrial systole
35
ventricles relax called
ventricular diastole
36
first heart sounds is described as
Lubb
37
what sound occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole caused by vibration of AV valves & fluid as AV valves close
"lubb"
38
second heart sound is described as
"dubb"
39
what sounds occurs at the beginning of ventricular diastole as semilunar valves in aorta and pulmonary artery close
" dubb"
40
layers of the blood veesel wall
tunica intima tunica media tunic externa
41
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of smooth muscle?
Tunica media
42
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of connective tissue ?
Tunica externa
43
what layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of epithelial cells?
tunica interna
44
types of capillaries
continuous fenestrated sinusoidal
45
walls have no gaps between endothelial cells and less permeable to large molecules
continuous capillaries
46
plasma membrane forms very thin, porous diaphragm, highly permeable
Fenestrated
47
larger fenestrae, gaps can exist between endothelial cells.
sinusoidal capillaries
48
which capillaries have gaps between adjacent endothelial cells
sinusoidal capillaries
49
what are the structures involved in the capillary network?
Arteriole, metarteriole, thoroughfare channel, precapillary sphincter atrial capillaries venous capillaries venule.
50
capillary that have regions where their enodthelial cells have no cytoplasm and in some cases even have gap in the plasma membrane but no gaps
fenestrated
51
where blood moves from one capillary network to another.
portal system
52
what example is this, blood in the hypothalamus and they use the hypothalamophosis portal system to move that blood to the pituary gland where there could be a different capillary network.
example of a portal system
53
parts of the aorta
1, ascending aorta 2. aortic arch 3. descending aorta further divided into thoracic aorta abdominal aorta
54
3 vessels that branch from the aortic arch
1. brachiocephalic artery 2. left common carotid 3. left subclavian artery
55
3 vessels that supply blood to the brain
1. Internal carotid artery 2. vertebral arteries 3. circle of willis
56
3 vessels that drain the brain
1. internal jugular veins 2.
57
a clot that had initially formed on a blood vessel wall but has broken off and traveled through the bloodstream
Embolus
58
a clot that forms on the wall of a blood vessel at a site of damage
thrombus
59
blood loss from a ruptured vessel
Hemorrhage
60
difference between thoracic & abdominal aorta
thoracic aorta- portion of the descending aorta superior to the diaphragm abdominal aorta - portion of descending aorta inferior to diaphragm.
61
major arteries of upper limb
subclavian artery axillary artery brachial artery radial artery ulnar artery
62
abdominal aorta visceral branches
superior mesenteric artery - small intestine suprarenal arteries - supply adrenal gland renal arteries- supply kidneys Gonadal arteries - supply gonads inferior mesenteric artery- large intestine, rectum.
63
arteries of lower limb
common iliac artery eternal & internal iliac femoral artery popliteal artery anterior tibial artery
64
vein of upper limb
cephalic vein basilic vein brachial vein median cubital vein brachial vein radial vein ulnar vein
65
Allows for large and rapid changes to resistance of blood flow
Blood vessel diameter
66
An increase in hematocrit causes
increased viscosity and increased resistance
67
increases resistance and decreases blood flow
Vasoconstriction
68
The tendency for a blood vessel's volume to increase with increased blood pressure is called
compliance
69
Heart rate is often assessed by detecting a pulse in the ____, which is on the anterior, lateral aspect of the wrist.
radial artery
70
is a measure of the force blood exerts against blood vessel walls
Blood pressure
71
flow is opposed by
resistance
72
What changes rate of flow
Resistance changes greatly with vessel diameter * Small change in diameter = large changes resistance
73
Resistance is affected by several factors
1. Blood viscosity- changes slowly 2. Vessel length 3. Vessel diameter- great impact
74
a measure of a liquid’s resistance to flow
Viscosity: As viscosity increases, more pressure is required to force it to flow
75
As blood is forced out of L Ventricle, it produces a pressure wave, or ?
pulse along the arteries
76
the most prevalent class of proteins in plasma, and is helpful in regulating water movement between the blood & surrounding tissue?
albumins
77
following is a type of protein in blood plasma, and is a vital component in the formation of blood clots?
fibrinogen
78
Antibodies belong to which of the following groups of plasma proteins?
Globulins
79
what are the formed elements in the blood?
RBC,WBC, & platelets
80
function of red blood cells "erythrocytes"
transport O2 & CO2
81
functions of white blood cells "leukocytes"
immune response
82
function of platelets "thrombocytes"
involved in blood clotting
83
what are the components of hemoglobin ?
1 polypeptide chain (globin), 1 heme, 1 iron. 2. aplha and 2 beta chain
84
what component of hemoglobin directly binds oxygen?
iron
85
how is most carbon dioxide transported in blood?
converted to bicarbonate and hydrogen ion
86
how is oxygen transported in the blood?
combined with hemoglobin
87
what is hemostasis?
the cessation of bleeding
88
what is coagulation?
vascular spams & platelet plugs can only close small tears cuts in vessel walls
89
common pathway coagulation order
Factor X to Prothrombinase to Prothrombin to thrombin to Fibrinogen to fibrin
90
Clear fluid containing water and solutes, and traveling in lymphatic vessels, is called _____.
lymph
91
lymph with absorbed fats traveling in lacteals is called
chyle
92
Primary lymphatic organs
where lymphocytes become immunocompetent— able to launch an immune response * Red bone marrow * Thymus * Red bone marrow is location where lymphocytes originate * Pre-B cells become immunocompetent in red bone marrow * Pre-T cells become immunocompetent in thymus
93
secondary lymphatic organ & tissue
where lymphocytes interact with each other, other immune cells, foreign bodies/ microorganisms to produce an immune response * Include: * Lymphatic nodules, incl. tonsils * Lymph nodes * Spleen * Diffuse lymphatic tissue
94
Pre-B cells become immunocompetent in ___.
red bone marrow
95
function of spleen
Destroying defective RBCs * Macrophages phagocytize old/damaged RBCs * Detecting & responding to foreign bodies in blood
96
___________ immunity is non-specific; it is the same each time the body encounters a threat.
Innate
97
Adaptive immunity
Subsequent encounters with a foreign substance are recognized and responded to quicker, because of previous encounter
98
Adaptive immunity is the ability of lymphocytes to recognize, respond to, & “remember” a substance that is called
an antigen
99
antigen produced in the cell
endogenous
100
antigen if obtained from outside the cell
exogenous
101
Antigens found within a body cell can be attached to a(n) _____________ (while still in the cell) & then presented on the outside of the cell.
Major histocompatability complex molecule
102
Method of recognition by lymphocytes often involves interaction with
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules
103
display endogenous antigens- those produced in the cell
MHC class I molecules
104
display exogenous antigens- those obtained from outside the cell
MHC class II molecules
105
The type of lymphocyte that typically is the first to binds MHC Class II molecules & begin to proliferate is a
Helper T cell
106
-------- are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Reticular cells
T cells
107
The first to recognize the antigen in MHC Class I Become activated when exposed to their specific antigen * Antigen is presented by MHC Class I molecules, which helps ID abnormal or infected cells * Activation leads to proliferation...
Cytotoxic T cells
108
For MHC Class II molecules, ------ are usually the first to recognize the antigen
Helper T cells
109
Antibodies that are transferred from a mother to her child through breast milk is an example of _____ acquired adaptive immunity
passive natural
110
in MCH Class II, the Helper T cell begins to divide Daughter cells can find & stimulate
B cells or cytotoxic T cells
111
B cells & Cytotoxic T cells then proliferate: responsible for immune response that destroys antigen and Become
Memory Helper T cells- long lived!
112
ACQUIRING ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY-- individual is exposed to antigen & individual’s immune system responds
Active immunity
113
another person or animal develops immunity, which is transferred to another individual
passive immunity
114
ACQUIRING ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY can also be
Natural- occurs through everyday living; not intentional * Artificial- deliberate introduction of antigen or antibody
115
antibodies produced by another person or animal are injected
Passive artificial immunity
116
antibodies from the mother are transferred to her child across the placenta or in milk
passive natural
117
antigens are delibertaletly introduced in a vaccine
active artificial
118
antigens are introduced through natural exposure
active natural immunty
119
The volume of air remaining in respiratory passages & lungs after the most forceful expiration is called ___.
Residual volume
120
increase volume in thoracic cavity
Muscles of Inspiration
121
decrease volume in thoracic cavity by depressing ribs & sternum
Muscles of expiration
122
When volume in the thoracic cavity increases
prressure in the thoracic cavity decreases and air flows into the thoracic cavity.
123
sum of IRV, TV, ERV
Vital capacity
124
sum of IRV, TV, ERV, AND residual volume
Total lung volume
125
volume inspired/expired with each normal breath
Tidal volume
126
volume of air that can be forcefully inspired after a normal inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume
127
Volume of air that can be forcefully expired after a normal expiration
expiratory reserve volume
128
circular fold
formed by mucosa & submucosa (perpendicular to& submucosa (perpendicular to length of sm. int.)length of sm. int.
129
projections of mucosa
villi
130
cytoplasmic extensions of epithial cells
microvilli
131
female gonads
ovaries
132
femele gametes
oocyte
133
at 4 months fetal development
oogonia
134
at birth many oogonia have degenerated remain one produce
primary oocytes
135
at puberty, primary oocytes periodically resume to produce the
secondary oocyte
136
oocytes develop in
follicles
137
at birth, female have primary oocytes located in
primordual follicle
138
at puberty, some primordial follicle become
primary follicles, where granulosa cells form
139
hormonal changed stimulate some follicles to continue to develop
theca. theca interna- cells that help produce ovarian hormones theca externa- connective tissue that merges with stroma of ovary
140
the initial cell formed when two gametes, typically an egg cell (ovum) and a sperm cell, fuse during fertilization.
zygote
141
follicular cells that remain in ovary become the
corpus lutem
142
if pregnacy does follow ovulation what enlarges and remains active
Corpus luteum
143
if pregnancy does NOT follow ovulation what is functionsl for 10-12 days then begins to degenerate
corpus luteum.
144
If fertilization DOES occur, the :developing embryo produces
human chorionic gonadotropin HCG keeps corpus luteum from degenerating estro and progestrone level stays high
145
if fertilization does NOT occur
no HCG pro and estro levels decreases
146
uterine cycle divide into
menses - mild hemorrhage proliferative phase- endometrium begins to regenerate estrogen causes remaining epithial cells to divide rapidly & replace those lost secretory phase -
147