Final Exam - Cumulative Flashcards
(585 cards)
1
Q
most executive functions have been associated with which part of the brain?
A
prefrontal cortex
2
Q
are the boundaries of the prefrontal cortex within the frontal well or poorly defined?
A
poorly defined
3
Q
miller and cohen suggest that the PFC serves to enforce rules that are ___ to a given situation
-ex. it’s ok to wipe food off your child’s mouth, but not your uber driver’s mouth
A
appropriate
4
Q
the PFC also manages ____ to the rules
-ex. it’s ok (heroic even) to grab a stranger’s arm and yank them (if they’re about to step in front of a bus)
A
exceptions
5
Q
relative positions of regions within the PFC:
___ = toward midline
A
medial
6
Q
relative positions of regions within the PFC:
___ = away from midline
A
lateral
7
Q
relative positions of regions within the PFC:
___ = toward back (or top of head)
A
dorsal
8
Q
relative positions of regions within the PFC:
___ = toward belly (or jaw of head)
A
ventral
9
Q
connectivity tracing studies reveal distinct ___ and ___ PFC networks, along with overlapping regions of shared connectivity
A
lateral and medial
10
Q
___ PFC networks support: “general purpose peerceptual-motor preparatory, goal monitoring”
A
lateral PFC networks
11
Q
___ PFC networks support: “emotion/memory integration, physical awareness”
A
medial PFC networks
12
Q
true or false: both PFC networks depend on “motor control, conflict monitoring”
A
true
13
Q
brain lesion data links ___ PFC damage with a lack of action, initiative, and planning
A
lateral
14
Q
patients respond OK to questions, show normal-ish IQ, but fail to prepare for the future, stick to a task, or maintain attention for longer than a few moments. if left alone, they sit down and don’t initiate any action at all
A
dysexecutive syndrome
15
Q
___ PFC damage is linked with excessive, impulsive action, without self awareness
A
medial PFC damage
16
Q
people with damage to the medial aspects of the PFC typically show ___ syndrome
A
disinhibition syndrome
17
Q
deficits in controlling aspects of behavior
-they have problems integrating emotional information into decision making processes
-they are unaware of their inappropriate behavior, and appear manic, impulsive, and disorganized
A
disinhibition syndrome
18
Q
____ medial PFC lesions can lead to bizarre behavior that is overly influenced by contextual cues
-these “environmental dependency” patients primarily react to whatever is around them, without any appreciation of social rulees
A
anterior medial PFC
19
Q
ex. of anterior medial PFC lesions
A
walking into a room in which there is a picture leaning against the wall, along with a hammer and some nails - the person will immediately start hanging up the photo
20
Q
a common method of evoking rule conflict in the lab
A
stroop task
21
Q
true or false: relating and resolving conflicting rules is associated with a well functioning dorsomedial PFC
A
true
22
Q
the ___ PFC is strongly linked to working memory, which involves the maintenance and manipulation of relevant information, along with the exclusion of irrelevant information
A
dorsolateral PFC (DLPFC)
23
Q
do we see little or lots of evidence for DLPFC activity in working memory tasks in fMRI studies?
A
lots of
24
Q
an alternative model by Cowan suggests that working memory is just the subset of ___ long term memory items (and conceptually associated items) that have been used in the last few minutes
A
genetic
25
alternative model proposed by Cowan: this smaller subset of all items in working memory are capable of being manipulated by the "central executive" - or ___
consciousness
26
the ___ also contributes to working memory
basal ganglia
27
a series of paired objects are presented, and your task is to decide if one of them matches the last set
dynamic working memory task
28
is the basal ganglia enhanced or hindered by difficult working memory trials?
enhanced
29
is rule learning handled solely in the prefrontal cortex?
no ; the basal ganglia makes a real contribution
30
is there evidence for distinct PFC-basal-ganglia-thalamic networks that support "executive" functions within motor, cognitive, and emotional domains?
yes
31
motor loop (3 components)
1. primary motor
2. premotor
3. supplementary motor cortex
32
prefrontal loop
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
33
affective loop (2 components)
anterior cingulate and orbitofrontal cortex
34
language is most strongly associated with which two areas of the brain?
left IFG (broca's area) and L posterior auditory association cortex (wernicke's area)
35
broca's area
left IFG
36
wernicke's area
L posterior auditory association cortex
37
relationship between broca's area and wernicke's area
densely interconnected, but independently support different aspects of language processing
38
damage to broca's area
production deficits
39
damage to wernicke's area
comprehension deficits
40
aprosodia ("robotic speech") results from ___ hemisphere damage
right hemisphere
41
efficient language processing is strongly dependent on ___ we generate about upcoming words within a sentence
-this greatly speeds our ability to process language
expectations
42
if we present folks with a series of words, we can see an ERP that appears after a word that doesn’t meet these expectations, an ____
-this is distinct from the P300 ERP
N400
42
only ___ based violations trigger the N400
meaning-based
42
____ deviance (ex. a different font, or spoken by a different person) evoke a P300-like ERP
non-semantic
43
the bigger the deviation, the larger the ___
N400
43
any given language is made up of just ___ to ___ phones (or speech sounds)
30-100
44
there are only around ___ phones in all languages
200
45
infants lose the ability to distinguish phones outside their native language by ~___ years of age
~2
46
what is perceived when someone hears a phone
phoneme
47
language is not just auditory. we use both the sound and the sight of someone speaking to decipher language. when the sight doesn't match the sound, we often perceive a third phoneme, not actually present in either modality
the mcgurk effect
47
when did language emerge in human evolution?
one popular model suggests that our refined speech ability may be due in part to a genetic mutation (____) that happened after humans split from other primates, ~7 million years ago
-we share this gene with all mammals, but ours contain two copies, and this distinction may partially underly our language abilities
FOXP2
48
in humans without a second FOXP2 copy, is language ability seriously (and specifically) enhanced or compromised?
compromised
49
darwin's model of evolved traits is based on ___ - the slow, continuous refinement of traits, with each tweak providing a fitness benefit
gradualism
50
in contrast, darwin considered human language to have emerged ___, as a result of coincidental genetic mutations in vocal and brain anatomy
suddenly
51
ghazanfar and others review data suggesting that language could have evolved more gradually (maybe other primates' language is better than we think)
-specifically, he presents evidence for three features:
1. its audiovisual nature (it involves facial cues)
2. its rhythmicity (speech timing, meter)
3. its turntaking pattern (conversation coordination)
52
the audiovisual nature of speech:
both humans and macaques respond faster to ___ audio-visual "speech" stimuli than audio or video alone
combined
53
the rhythmicity of speech:
macaque and human vocalizations have a very similar (and rapid) ___, around 5 per second (HZ)
tempo
54
a typical speech interaction among people consists of vocal exchanges, gaps of silence, and minimal interruptions
-correspondence in back-and-forth timing between human speech and marmoset vocal 'conversations'
turn taking pattern of speech
55
lots of research shows that just two dimensions describe most of people's conscious response to emotional things
pleasure and arousal
56
LPP
late positive potential
57
one of the most reliable effects in human emotion neuroscience is the strong enhancement of a long-lasting ERP called the ___ during emotional scene perception
LPP
58
the LPP is strongly correlated (~0.95) with the ___ ratings of a scene (not pleasantness)
arousal ratings
59
EPN
early posterior negativity
60
the EPN effect is strongest for emotional scenes, but can be evoked by emotional hand gestures, faces, and even emotional ___ (a little)
words
61
separate from emotion, the EPN is enhanced by 'simple' scenes
-the more complicated the scene, the ___ the EPN
weaker
62
the EPN is often larger for ___ compared to unpleasant scenes, but not the reverse
larger for pleasant
63
the ___ still showed a 'pleasure' bias, where the LPP did not
EPN
64
victory scenes modulated the EPN well, but nothing like erotica
-we can't conclude that the EPN shows a pleasure bias
-this suggests a ___-specific enhancement of the EPN
sex-specific
65
was thee EEPN larger or smaller for nudists than erotica?
larger
66
EPN modulation: a body part bias?
it appears that the scenes showing the most recognizable, upright bodies tend to drive the ___ EPNs
strongest
67
the EPN effect replicated
-the largest EPN was evoked by ___ scenes, followed by ___
-this order ___ for the LPP ; largest for erotica, followed by nudists, then mutilations/anim threat
nudist ; erotica ; flips
68
___ reflects emotion, complexity, and the presence of upright bodies
-our visual systems may be tuned to quickly identify obvious signs of people around us
-may actually include multiple overlapping processees
EPN
69
___ reflects the intensity of our conscious emotional response to whatever is around us
-it does not reflect complexity, body parts, etc. (only that it's emotional)
LPP
70
what brain mechanisms drive these ERP arousal effects?
-work in rats and primates suggests that this enhancement may be driven by feedback from the ___
amygdala
71
the density of structural connectivity between amygdala and ventral visual cortex reveals heavy ___ connections from amygdala to visual cortex (feedforward path)
feedback
72
we argue that the ventral visual pathway is a ___ and ___ interactive occipitotemporal network linking early visual areas and the anterior IT cortex (aIT) along multiple routes through which visual information is processed
recurrent and highly interactive
73
the amygdala ___ back to almost every area in the occipitotemporal network...
-the precise nature of the modulatory signals arising from the amygdala remains unknown, but such diffusely distributed signals are likely to direct attentional resources to the processing of visual stimuli signaling potential danger or other emotionally intense events
projects back
74
in monkeys and humans, the amygdala shows a burst of emotion-linked activity ~___ms after the presentation of visual emotional cue
-the timing of this amygdala reactivity strongly suggests that it registers emotion before or after visual cortical processing is complete?
~150 ms ; after
75
using standard fMRI, we found that activity in amygdala and late-stage visual fusiform gyrus (IT) are ___ correlated (0.95)
strongly
76
the time point at which brain activity is reliably enhanced for emotional scenes is ___ seconds
3.9 seconds
77
emotional scenes enhanced activity in late-stage ventral visual cortex and amygdala ~___ second earlier than mid-stage visual cortex
~1 second
78
FP network discriminates emotional scenes before or after amygdala and FG?
after
79
Granger analyses showed that the amygdala, OFC, and FG are all influencing each other ___ in ___ directions
equally ; both
80
the entire visual system (outside V1) is enhanced by ___ stimuli
emotional
81
rapid fMRI data suggests that amygdala and FG ___ this emotional discrimination
initiate
82
other emotion-sensitive regions (like FP network, OFC) may be "___" of the emotional quality of stimuli from amygdala and FG
"informed"
83
fMRI work on emotional perception supports a "___ feedback" model of emotional perception
"reentrant feedback"
84
initial discrimination (first feedback wave) = ___ shift
EPN
85
second discrimination is more consistent with ___
LPP
86
a major goal of cognitive neuroscience is to define the relationships between ___
brain structure, brain function, and "consciousness"
87
brain structure pertains to:
distinct units (how they're connected)
88
brain function pertains to:
how the units of the brain operate in real time
89
consciousness refers to:
an emergent property of brain function
90
what does EEG stand for?
electroencephalography
91
electroencephalography (EEG) provides excellent ____ resolution, but poor ____ resolution
temporal ; spatial (when but not exactly where)
92
millisecond time resolution is characteristic of which noninvasive method?
electroencephalography (EEG)
93
what does fMRI stand for?
functional magnetic resonance imaging
94
fMRI provides excellent ___ resolution, but poor ___ resolution
spatial ; temporal (where, but not exactly when)
95
cognitive neuroscience was born from the combination of three related fields of research on the brain and behavior:
cognitive psychology, neurology, and neurophysiology/neuroimaging
96
how the brain works in healthy folks
cognitive psychology
97
cognitive psychology data was explicitly ___ based
behavior (avoids brain)
98
how brain damage affects behavior in clinical patients
neurology
99
neurology data was ___ based
deficit (brain-behavior linked)
100
how healthy brains work in animal models, later including humans with the development of noninvasive brain recording methods
neurophysiology/neuroimaging
101
true or false: despite lots of investigation, there is little agreement about what consciousness is, and how it might be studied
true
102
over the last ~2 million years, the human cortex has nearly ____ in size
tripled
103
cortex = ___
cerebral cortex
104
the cortex consists of mostly ____ tissue
homogeneous
105
the cortex is greatly ____ in primates and is critical to (but not sufficient for) "____" cognition
expanded ; "higher-order"
106
"subcortex" refers to
everything else in the brain
107
cerebellum, thalamus, basal ganglia, amygdala, hippocampus, midbrain, brainstem, etc
subcortex
108
the subcortex is ___ in size and internal structure
variable
109
the subcortex is similar in ____ and ____ with other mammals
structure and function
110
is the subcortex also essential to higher order cognition?
yes
111
what are the three main components of the cortical surface?
gyrus, sulcus, and fissure
112
rounded protrusion of surface cortex ("mountain")
gyrus
113
depression in surface cortex ("valley")
sulcus
114
a particularly deep sulcus
fissure
115
___/___ of cortical surface is hidden in sulci and fissures (sulci within sulci)
2/3
116
cortical folding refers to cortical "___"
cortical "packaging"
117
cortical folding allows _____, and (maybe) speeds cortical processing time by keeping all brain regions relatively close together
lots of tissue in a small space
118
4 cortical lobes:
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. temporal lobe
4. occipital lobe
119
the boundary region between cortical and subcortical structures located between the frontal lobe and temporal lobe
insula
120
the ____ cortex is where the first stage of cortical processing occurs
the "primary sensory" cortex
121
V1 =
primary visual cortex
122
V2 =
primary auditory corteex
123
S1 =
sensory
124
M1 =
motor
125
this view states that the thalamus relays sensory and motor signals up to the cortical processing areas, and downstream to the brainstem (except smell)
classic view
126
recent work has identified that the structure of the thalamus is mostly (~80%) connections from one region of the cortex to another region of the cortex
modern view
127
the thalamus is heavily involved in ___ connections
cortico-cortical
128
rather than primarily carrying sensory input to cortex, and motor signals out to the body ("first order" connections"), the thalamus is instead heavily involved in cortico-cortical connections, which are referred to as ____
"higher order" connections
129
firing modes appear to enhance (____) or inhibit (____) the 'quality of a connection between brain regions
burst ; tonic
130
the firing mode is changed by relatively long periods of ___ or ___ input from brain stem and cortex
excitatory ; inhibitory
131
two divisions of the nervous system
peripheral and central
132
the autonomic nervous system is part of the ___ nervous system
peripheral
133
two components of the autonomic nervous system
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
134
the ____ nervous system controls self-regulated action of internal organs and glands
autonomic
135
the ____ nervous system controls AROUSING for non-digestive organ systems
sympathetic
136
the ____ nervous system controls CALMING for non-digestive organ systems
parasympathetic
137
the ___ is mostly concerned with housekeeping of the body, but can show strong effects of mental state, such as anticipation or threat reactivity
autonomic nervous system
138
the ___ branch tends to prepare the body for intense action ; 'fight or flight'
sympathetic branch
139
the ____ branch tends to maintain homeostasis and repair ; 'rest and digest'
parasympathetic branch
140
our brains make up ____% of our body weight, but consume ____% of our metabolic resources
2% ; 20%
141
functional imaging is dependent on ___ to track brain activity
blood flow
142
____ were historically considered "support" cells for neurons
glial cells
143
we think that there is approximately ___ glial cell for each neuron in the brain
one
144
excitatory and inhibitory from other neurons
neuronal input
145
neuronal summation occurs at the ____
axon hillock
146
how does neuronal output travel
down the axon to synapse with next neuron
147
the ____ neuron releases neurotransmitter (NT) into the synapse, which modulates activity of the ____ neuron, depending on the neurotransmitter and the receptor type
presynaptic ; postsynaptic
148
basal forebrain constellation of cholinergic neurons, including basal nucleus of meynert ; dorsolateral pontine tegmental constellation of cholinergic neurons
acetylcholine
149
is acetylcholine more widespread or more limited?
widespread
150
is serotonin more widespread or more limited?
widespread
151
is dopamine more widespread or more limited?
more limited
152
the function of this neurotransmitter is to enable muscle action, learning, and memory
acetylcholine
153
with alzheimer's disease, ACh-producing neurons ____
deteriorate
154
the function of this neurotransmitter is to influence movement, learning, attention, and emotion
dopamine
155
excess dopamine receptor activity is linked to ___
schizophrenia
156
starved of dopamine, the brain produces the tremors and decreased mobility of ____
parkinson's disease
157
the function of this neurotransmitter is to affect mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal
serotonin
158
undersupply of serotonin is linked to ___
depression
159
____ and some other antidepressant drugs raise serotonin levels
prozac
160
the function of this neurotransmitter is to help control alertness and arousal
norepinephrine
161
undersupply of this neurotransmitter can depress mood
norepinephrine
162
___ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter
GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)
163
undersupply of this neurotransmitter is linked to seizures, tremors, and insomnia
GABA
164
____ is a major excitatory neurotransmitter; involved in memory
glutamate
165
oversupply of this neurotransmitter can overstimulate the brain, producing migraines or seizures (which is why some people avoid MSG in food)
glutamate
166
"___" and "___" signals (from other neurons) flow through dendrites and cell body to the axon hillock where these signals are averaged together across the cell and over a short period of time ("___")
"go" and "stop" ; ("summation")
167
if 'go' signals win, the action potential is the ___ response
all or none
168
neurons fire at a ___ intensity
fixed
169
continuous 'go' input can increase the firing rate to the limit of the refractory period, perhaps up to ____ times per second
1000
170
(EEG) records the electrical activity of the ____ in real time
cortex
171
___ brain activity is missing from EEG
non-cortical
172
pyramidal neurons in the cortex are oriented in ____
columns
173
as these neurons sum input from other neurons, their electrical charge becomes more _____ near the outside surface of the cortex
voltage-negative
174
real time or "____" EEG is useful for tracking long-lasting '____' mental states, like alertness or sleep
"raw" ; 'tonic'
175
repeated averaging enhances the small but consistent 'hidden' signal
event-related potential (ERP)
176
true or false: brains will respond pretty much the same on trial one as they do on trial one-thousand
true
177
true or false: different people's brains respond differently
false ; they respond similarly
178
averaging reveals the small, consistent EERP from the noisy EEG background, sort of like averaging the single pictures of a movie - the ____ elements remain
consistent
179
things that do not change appear ____, while things that do change ____ together
bolder ; blend
180
with ERP, ____ increases, and ____ decreases
signal ; noise
181
what does ERP stand for?
event-related potential
182
early ERP components (~100 ms after stimulus onset) are mostly driven by basic ____ features, like intensity
stimulus
183
early ERP components are sometimes called ____ components, because they are determined outside the body
exogenous
184
later ERP components (~250+ ms after stimulus onset) are mostly driven by _____ meaning of stimuli
psychological meaning
185
later ERP components are sometimes called the _____ components, because they are determined inside the body
endogenous
186
the first ERP component related to a psychological process was the ____
P300
187
a big ERP shift ~300 ms after a 'rare' event
the P300
188
the P300 was (and is) a hot area of study because it revealed brain reactivity to all sorts of 'psychological events,' including ____ events
missing
189
the P3 is not a sensory response - the P3 can also reflect a ____
broken expectation
190
____ is not recognized in the P3 (it often falls into the background) whereas ____ is noticed immediately
consistently ; change
191
a major problem with ERP
source localization
192
because the brain is ____, not all parts of the brain are perpendicular to the scalp
folded
193
the ____ the activity is from the scalp, the ____ the signal (known as volume conduction)
farther ; weaker
194
as the signal travels, it spreads out, and loses strength (relationship between depth and strength)
volume conduction
195
true or false: strong EEG voltage could represent weak activity close to the scalp OR strong activity from deeper in the brain
true
196
EEG/ERP source localization limitation: electrical activity ____ or _____ among folded sections of cortex
combines or cancels
197
EEG/ERP source localization limitation: source ____ is difficult to distinguish from source depth
strength
198
EEG/ERP source localization limitation: the exact ____ of sources is unknown
number
199
EEG/ERP source localization limitation: each person's head _____ is slightly different
anatomy
200
what does MEG stand for?
magnetoencephalography
201
MEG looks for the ____ field that accompanies the voltage field
magnetic
202
MEG has the same ____ resolution as ERPs, but better ____ resolution than ERPs
temporal ; spatial
203
what does SQUIDS stand for?
superconducting quantum interference devices
204
do magnetic fields spread out like electric fields as they pass through the brain and skull?
no
205
without the smearing effect of volume conduction, MEG is only limited by the ____ and ____ of SQUIDS
size and number
206
MEG loses sensitivity sharply about ____ cm from the SQUID
5 cm
207
MEG is effectively blind to ___ brain structures
deep
208
MEG is really great for ____ cortical tissue, but has no sensitivity to deep cortical stuff
surface
209
what does fMRI stand for?
functional magnetic resonance imaging
210
fMRI yields colorful images that represent the ____ of brain activity with good precision, in a way that is easy to grasp
location
211
3 elements of MRI:
1. strong, fixed magnet
2. radio emitter and receiver
3. weak, variable magnets
212
magnetic hydrogen protons (in water) align with the field, and spin at a known rate (128 MHz for a 3T scanner)
strong, fixed magnet
213
resonance radio wave energy at 128 MHz will "resonate with H protons and tilt them away from the main field
radio emitter and receiver
214
imaging smaller fields are added to across the area to be scanned, which allow a 2D image to be constructed
weak, variable magnets
215
this imaging method essentially detects the density of ____ in tissue, produces a stack of sharp images in about 15 minutes
structural MRI
216
this imaging method involves repeated, lower-resolution imaging of the brain, showing interest in image intensity as it CHANGES OVER TIME)
functional MRI (fMRI)
217
instead of focusing on water concentration, fMRI focuses on the small changes in signal intensity that accompany changes in local ____ oxygenation (BOLD contrast)
blood oxygenation
218
what does BOLD contrast stand for?
blood oxygen level dependent
219
high activity states trigger local increases in blood flow and volume (via astrocytes)
the "resupply" exceeds demand by about ____%
30%
220
this 30% excess of oxygenated blood ____ MRI signal intensity, because oxygenated blood contains slightly ____ iron than deoxygenated blood
increases ; less
221
how does iron affect magnetic fields?
it perturbs magnetic fields and causes signal intensity to sharply drop
222
because BOLD tracks the blood flow change, and not the neural activity that triggered it, BOLD signal onset is ____ and lasts for several seconds after scene offset
delayed
223
fMRI's biggest weakness:
the typical fMRI sampling rate is far slower than the speed of the brain
224
true or false: consciousness is defined as correlated activity across at least 75% of the brain
false; there is little agreement about what consciousness is
225
true or false: consciousness is defined as the electrochemical activity of the brain oscillating above ~15 Hz
false; there is little agreement about what consciousness is
226
human skull volume has ____ over the last 2 million years
tripled
227
human skull volume has ____ over the last 5,000 years
a. remained stable
b. increased slightly
c. doubled
d. tripled
a. remained stable
228
human cortex shows unique structural features, such as:
a. homogeneous tissue organized in columns and layers
b. dense convolutions, including gyri and sulci
c. left-right symmetry in structure
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
229
true or false: the fissures of the cortex are unique to all individuals
false
230
true or false: subcortical structures operate independently from the cortex
false
231
true or false: the cerebral cortex contains primarily neurons, while subcortical structures are primarily glial cells
false
232
true or false: the autonomic nervous system is part of the central nervous system
false ; part of the peripheral nervous system
233
true or false: psychological states can strongly influence the autonomic nervous system
true
234
what autonomic branch would be expected to be more active after eating a large meal?
parasympathetic
235
the thalamus may be critical to consciousness because of its:
a. broad structural connectivity with cortex and brainstem
b. high proportion of cortical - cortical connections
c. capability to switch between "burst" and "tonic" modes of transmission
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
236
a neuron is more likely to fire when:
a. excitatory input arrives on the cell body, vs. a dendrite
b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time
c. excitatory input at the hillock follows multiple inhibitory inputs on the dendrites
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
237
neurons fire at a ___ intensity
fixed
238
a neuron is more likely to fire when:
a. excitatory input arrives on the cell body, vs. a dendrite
b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time
c. inhibitory input at the hillock follows multiple inhibitory inputs on the dendrites
d. all of the above
b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time
239
perception = ___ + ___
sensation + prediction based on experience
240
our visual systems quickly and efficiently represent the world with limited ___ by making use of lots of past ___
limited information ; past experience
241
what we perceive is a ___ of what comes into our senses, guided (or biased) by what we have seen most often in our lifetime
construction
242
we have so much experience viewing ___ that our visual systems can sometimes lead us to perceive anything with many face-like features as being a face, at least momentarily
faces
243
the visual system develops over ___ to become efficient at classifying things commonly around you
childhood
244
photoreceptors that are sensitive to brightness
rods
245
photoreceptors that are sensitive to color
cones
246
the ___ is concentrated with cones
fovea
247
central fixation of the fovea
0 degrees
248
rods dominate ___
peripheral vision
249
pathway to cortex:
1. retinal input
2. 'crosses over' at the chiasm
3. left or right visual field is processed in the opposite lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and occipital cortex
250
a "first order" thalamic nucleus
lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
251
the right visual field is processed solely in the ___ primary visual cortex (V1), and vice versa
right visual field - left primary visual cortex
left visual field - right primary visual cortex
252
the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is a component of which part of the brain?
thalamus
253
the LGN of the thalamus transfers retinal input to ___ in successive stages
V1
254
when transferring retinal input from the LGN to V1, first, a coarse "gist" of the scene is sent, followed by the fine details over the next ~___ms
~10 ms
255
slow, detailed ("specific")
parvo
256
fast, coarse ("global")
magno
257
the primary visual cortex (V1) is located along the ___ fissure
calcarine fissure
258
the primary visual cortex (V1) receives retinal input according to the ___ of the stimulus in the visual field
location
259
the ___ half of your visual field is routed to right V1
left
260
the ___ field areas are routed to the inferior back of V1
upper field areas
261
the ___ fixation point is routed to posterior V1
central fixation point
262
___ areas route to anterior V1
peripheral areas
263
for every degree of the visual field, separate clusters of V1 neurons are sensitive to different ___ (edges, contrast, brightness) of objects in that location
visual features
264
despite considerable differences in our left and right eye's visual field, we see ___ image
one unified image
265
the mystery of binocular vision: each of our eyes sees a different view, yet the image we see is uniform
how is this "convergence" accomplished?
we haven't figured it out exactly
266
why do we have two eyes? there is a consistent difference across prey/predator species in ___ vs. ___ processing
peripheral vs. depth processing
267
___ overlap in visual field (both eyes facing ___) gives a much better account of our distance to the object
wide overlap ; both eyes facing forward
268
prey eyes vs. predator eyes
prey eyes - stronger peripheral vision
269
lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) directs left and right visual input to V1, but keeps track of which eye the retinal input came from in layer ___
layer 4
270
if we present conflicting information into each eye, our perception switches back and forth between the two
binocular rivalry
271
according to binocular rivalry, there must be some ___ and ___ between left and right eye input, reflecting 'higher order' (late visual cortex and prefrontal cortex) processes that bias our perception toward one stimulus
competition and choice
272
binocular rivalry task: when presented a happy face, a neutral face, or an unhappy face, people have a slightly greater likelihood of reporting an __ face than a ___ face
emotional face ; neutral face
273
the visual system converts the light at the retina into the basic properties of visual perception including: (5 components)
1. lightness
2. color
3. depth
4. size
5. motion
274
___ qualities can be different from the physical properties of visual stimuli as measured by purely objective methods (ex. was the dress white and gold or blue and black?)
perceived
275
lightness is a ___ quality, while luminance is a ___ property of an object
perceived quality ; physical property
276
the ___ of an object is not directly related to the ___ of an object
lightness ; luminance
277
lightness could be described as a ___ value, dependent upon local ___ and prior ___
calculated value ; local context ; prior experience
278
our visual systems have not evolved to determine the "___" nature of stimuli, only what we need to manage
"true"
279
through infancy and early childhood (by ___ and ___) we learn what visual features are "correct" and use this information to interpret future scenes
trial and error
280
around what age do we learn what visual features are correct?
around age 3 or 4
281
a global distinction can be made between "___" and "___" visual pathways, although recent data suggests the streams are more mixed
"what" and "where" pathways
282
two pathways within the primary and extrastriate visual cortex:
where pathway and what pathway
283
where pathway - ___ stream
dorsal stream
284
analysis of motion and spatial relations within this pathway
where pathway
285
what pathway - ___ stream
ventral stream
286
analysis of form and color within this pathway
what pathway
287
ventral visual cortex: early vs. late stage:
a rough distinction can be made between early visual ("___") and later visual ("____") processing regions
("simple") and ("complex categorical")
288
which part of the brain is utilized during late stage?
inferior temporal (IT) visual cortex)
289
which part of the brain is utilized during early/mid stage?
occipital visual cortex (V1, V2, V3...)
290
visual cortex - general locations:
this part of the brain is medial inferior temporal
parahippocampal gyrus
291
visual cortex - general locations:
this part of the brain is lateral inferior temporal
fusiform gyrus
292
visual cortex - general locations:
this part of the brain is referred to as the "transition area"
lateral occipital
293
visual cortex - general locations:
this area of the brain is middle temporal
area MT
294
early/mid stage of visual processing occurs within:
V1, V2, V3, V3a
295
'early stage' :
'late stage' :
'early stage' : V1, V2, V3
'late stage' : everything else
296
PPA refers to:
parahippocampal "place area"
297
FFA refers to:
fusiform "face area"
298
lots of fMRI and invasive data reveals that there are multiple ventral visual regions dedicated to the processing of ___ of things like faces, body parts, words, and others
categories
299
where is color perceived?
lesion data suggests that color perception depends on regions of ___ visual cortex, a late stage of visual processing
ventral visual cortex
300
patients with damage in the ventral visual cortex (stroke, tumor) often report a ___ loss of color vision, while other visual abilities remain intact
specific
301
___ cues can even evoke activation in deeper regions of V1 that represent the peripheral visual field (larger objects)
depth cues
302
V1 activity at central fixation, representing a small object activates:
only V1 and V2
303
V1 activity at central fixation and periphery, representing a large object activates:
V1-5
304
the illusory effect in V1 depends on feedback from ___ brain regions
because fMRI reflects average activity over seconds of time, we can see this ___ effect in V1
later brain regions ; context effect
305
in the ___ (a type of monkey), the organization and timing of visual processing stages is relatively well known
macaque
306
visual information is integrated and resolved along the ventral pathway until task-driven decisions can be made in PFC around ~___ ms
~150 ms
307
the first stage of visual processing in V1 is purely ___ driven ("___")
stimulus driven ; ("bottom up")
308
the first stage of visual processing in V1 occurs up to around ~___ ms after cue onset
~50 ms
309
later V1 activity also reflects ___ from other brain regions ("___"), such as late visual cortex and prefrontal cortex
feedback ; ("top-down")
310
later V1 activity occurs ~___ ms after onset
~100 ms
311
feedback biases perception:
~50 ms =
~50 ms = pure sensory
312
feedback biases perception:
~120 ms =
~120 ms = biased
313
perceptual priming:
one model of this process focuses on visual context, which has been shown to churn information in a repeating cycle of ___ and ___ waves
feedforward and feedback waves
314
…we argue that the ventral pathway is a ___ and highly ___ occipitotemporal network linking early visual areas and the anterior IT cortex (aIT) along multiple routes through which visual information is processed
recurrent and highly interactive
315
the ventral visual pathway is ___, ___
reentrant, nonlinear
316
“...anatomical evidence indicates that the ventral pathway is actually a complex network of feedforward and feedback projections, some of which are unidirectional (ex. non-reciprocal) feedback connections and others of which ___ intermediate areas, allowing direct communication between putative early and late stages of the hierarchy”
bypass
317
“visual information from ‘early’ stages of the central route can be transmitted to the most rostral temporal areas or ‘final’ visual processing stages without passing through the ___ areas of the central route”
intermediate
318
a reentrant, nonlinear explanation of the ventral visual pathway might explain how late-stage visual cortex could rapidly ___ early visual cortex
bias
319
visual cues for ___ and object ___ are so convincing because feedback from late-stage visual cortex seems to activate regions of V1 that represent larger objects (the peripheral visual field)
depth and object size
320
because fMRI reflects average activity over seconds of time, we can see this biasing effect in V1, ___ after the feedback has arrived
long after
321
the feedback to V1 is limited to basic features that V1 processes, like ___ and ___
luminance and size
322
explicit, clear awareness of a face is most strongly tied to ___ activity
FFA (fusiform face area)
323
is the FFA only specific to faces?
no ; the FFA shows plenty of activity for non-face stimuli too
324
in some studies, the FG is the ___ selective visual area
least
325
according to gauthier's 'greeble' study, FFA = ___, and is not a genetic module for faces
FFA = experience
326
auditory information, including speech and music, can be quite powerful
true or false: science has come up with a reasonable evolutionary purpose for music
false; despite lots of trying, science hasn’t come up with a reasonable evolutionary purpose for music
327
the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and nucleus accumbens are referred to as the ___
reward circuit
328
the reward circuit runs on ___
dopamine
329
olds and milner (1954) demonstrated (accidentally) that a rat given the ability to self-stimulate the nucleus accumbens (NAcc) would continue to do so until ___ from thirst
death
330
what does NAcc stand for?
nucleus accumbens
331
in human fMRI studies, ___ rewards (ex. chocolate, cocaine) and ___ rewards (money) will drive reward circuit activity, including subcortical nucleus accumbens (NAcc) and ventromedial prefrontal cortex (mPFC)
primary rewards and secondary rewards
332
___ is a powerful driver of NAcc activity
methamphetamine (as well as all drugs of abuse and gambling)
333
___ music activates nucleus accumbens (vs. neutral)
pleasant (your favorite)
334
___ binding = more dopamine release
less binding
335
are pure tones rare or common in the real world?
rare (most natural sounds are combinations of many different frequencies)
336
a recent meta-analysis of 47 fMRI studies of music (n=997) found that pleasant music enhances activity in reward (NAcc) and basic emotion regions (amygdala), along with increases in auditory cortex
is it clear how music became linked to this basic reward system?
no; how music became linked to this basic reward system is unclear
337
instruments produce sounds that contain multiple ___ (or timbre) which we use to help us discriminate between different sound sources, like a piano vs. a flute
harmonics
338
the upper harmonics are a doubling of the ___ (___) frequency
fundamental (lowest) frequency
339
with each harmonic, the energy is ___, until it dies out around the ___th or so
reduced ; 10th
340
fundamental frequency is always the same: ___ Hz
440 Hz
341
does the strength of upper harmonics remain the same or vary?
varies widely
342
our auditory systems keep track of all of these simultaneous frequencies by converting sound pressure variation to neuronal input via the ___
cochlea
343
this device contains ~48 artificial excitation points in cochlea can be enough for people to decipher speech and other complex sounds
cochlear implant
344
the auditory system enables selective filtering of input at the level of the ___, allowing us to focus on frequencies of interest in the moment
cochlea
345
from the cochlea, frequencies are sent to the ___
primary auditory cortex (A1)
346
sounds are ordered by ___ within A1 (like a piano)
frequency
347
our auditory system is hyper-sensitive in the ___-___ range
2-5k range
348
specialization of the auditory system may have evolved recently, adding sensitivity about ~___KHz
~3.5 KHz
349
the auditory system includes two subcortical circuits to ___ low (<3 Hz) and high (>3 Hz) frequency sounds
localize
350
is our ability to localize sound good?
no
351
are humans more dependent on visual or auditory input?
visual
352
how does the somatosensory system work? is it clear or unclear?
unclear ; we know the parts involved, but not how they really work together in real time
353
located along the back edge of the frontal lobe (M1) and the front edge of the parietal lobe (S1), separated by the central sulcus
location of the primary somatosensory and primary motor cortex
354
The ___ of SS cortex involved depends on the need for fine control and sensitivity
volume
355
do your eyelids occupy about the same volume of the SS cortex as do your legs? more or less?
about the same
356
the primary sensory cortex (S1) includes three subtypes of physical sensation from the body:
1. touch
2. temperature/pain
3. joint/muscle position sense
357
different types of sensory information are channeled through three parallel pathways in the ___ and ___, ultimately feeding into the same section of S1 representing that body part
spinal cord and brainstem
358
the first modality of the touch subtype of the primary sensory cortex (S1)
discriminative touch (DT)
359
discriminative touch includes 3 categories:
touch, pressure, and vibration perception
360
free nerve endings =
pain
361
meissner corpuscles =
slow vibration
362
ruffini endings =
compression
363
pacinian corpuscles =
rapid vibration
364
temperature/pain includes the sensation of ___ and ___ across the body
itch and tickle
365
___ nerve stimulation from pepper, ammonia, tear gas also falls under this group
trigeminal
366
___ stimulation in mouth, nose, and eyes = pain
noxious
367
when you put hot sauce in your food, you are not adding taste or improving the flavor, you are adding ___, as you are stimulating the trigeminal nerve
pain
368
___ and ___ are critical for tickle
intensity and duration
369
joint muscle position sense is described by
proprioception
370
joint muscle position sense (proprioception) includes receptors for muscle ___, joint ___, and tendon ___
muscle stretch, joint position, and tendon tension
371
this modality (joint muscle position sense - proprioception) feeds into the ___, which processes real-time feedback regarding the orientation of the body
cerebellum
372
___ is susceptible to alcohol
proprioception
373
somatosensory representation in the cortex is ___ (it expands and contracts with experience)
dynamic
374
throughout childhood, our common actions became ‘packaged’ into functional units in ___
M1 (primary motor cortex)
375
in an animal model, complex multi-joint movements can be evoked by stimulation at a ___ location on primary motor cortex
single location
376
M1 codes ___, not single muscles
actions
377
many of our common motor behaviors are "___"
-we combine motor scheme so we can walk, look at our phone, and eat at the same time
automated
378
example of a motor expectation
walking into the kitchen to put the milk and cereal box away (you know the general direction to walk into the kitchen, but you put the cereal in the fridge, and the milk in the pantry)
379
locomotor behaviors are even more ___
-once begun, major transitions in locomotion pattern can be managed outside of our awareness
packaged
380
does awareness make major transitions in locomotion pattern better or worse?
worse
381
animal research shows that the ___ alone can manage transitions in locomotor behaviors via what has been called ___ (CPG) without any input from the brain
spinal cord ; central pattern generators
382
does controlled motor behavior require little or enormous preparation and on/off timing before M1 becomes involved to execute the action?
enormous
383
this part of the brain manages the preparation for action in response to external cuees
premotor cortex
384
premotor cortex activity ___ primary motor cortex activity
precede
385
premotor cortex activity ___ when overt movement begins (or is aborted)
ceases
386
in superior medial frontal cortex, and feeds into premotor cortex
supplementary motor cortex
387
does the supplementary motor cortex manage well-learned movements, with or without need for explicit sensory cues?
without
388
does an action actually have to happen to evoke supplementary motor area (SMA) activity?
no; simply imagining that you are riding a bike will evoke SMA activity (the action does not have to actually happen)
389
SMA (and cerebellum) is strongly active during ___ actions, even when action is clearly impossible
-___ feedback is unnecessary
imagined ; sensory feedback
390
motor preparation occupies a large chunk of cortex, mostly located on surface ___
gyri
391
___ exploit this large premotor signal to communicate with “locked in” patients
brain-computer interfaces
392
to finely control the exact onset and offset of a movement, the ___ serves as a "gate" between premotor and motor cortex
basal ganglia
393
this part of the brain prepares and plans motor behavior
premotor cortex
394
the start and stop of motor behavior ("gating")
basal ganglia
395
the execution of the motor behavior occurs in which part of the brain?
primary motor cortex
396
which part of the brain ensures that the action goes "according to plan"
cerebellum
397
cerebellum: movement "___" in real time
"tuning"
398
the cerebellum serves to ___ and ___ the balance of sensory-motor integration during a movement
coordinate and refine
399
cerebellum makes up ___% of total brain volume, but makes up almost ___% of neurons in the brain
10% ; 50%
400
this part of the brain is thought to be a huge 'data processor' crunching numbers to adjust motor output based on sensory feedback, thus enabling precise motor control in changing contexts
cerebellum
401
true or false: human brains have an oversized cortex
true; other mammals have nearly equivalent sized cortex and cerebellum
402
a quick neurological test of cerebellar integrity
moving your finger directly between your nose and a fixed point in space
403
the ___ pathways of the cerebellum are well defined, but real-time function is not
structural
404
the cerebellum receives huge amounts of input from the cortex (frontal, parietal), spinal cord, and midbrain, and then some sort of comparison is made between ___ and ___ action
planned and actual
405
after a comparison is made between planned and actual action, ___ signals are sent from the cerebellum to motor thalamus to refine movement in almost real time
error correction signals
405
error correction signals are sent from the ___ to motor ___
cerebellum to motor thalamus
406
the cerebellum is also active during many ___ tasks, which was often ignored as "noise" in early fMRI studies
non-motor
407
true or false: inhibiting the cerebellum (but not other areas of the brain) slows down our ability to make predictable choices
true
407
which 3 behavior domains appear to be associated with the largest clusters of cerebellum activity?
language, music, and working memory
408
one idea about the cerebellum's contribution to no motor tasks is that its huge processing power may have been "repurposed" to ___ what might happen in future behaviors
predict
408
dynamic behaviors (language, music, working memory) involve the most significant ___ and ___ as the behavior takes place
prediction and adjustment
409
the nature of body ownership is ___
constructive
410
which study illustrated the flexible nature of body ownership?
the rubber hand illusion
-when a semi-realistic false hand was placed within the subject's view (with their real hand out of view) and both hands were stimulated, most subjects soon reported feeling ownership of the false hand, reacting defensively if the false hand was threatened
410
notice taken of someone or something; the regarding of someone or something as interesting or important
attention
411
is attention a limited or unlimited resource?
limited
412
___ models of attention highlight our limited capacity to process information
cognitive models
412
true or false: attention increases our processing of some things and decreases our processing of other things
true
412
attention is:
focusing on a subset of features that are somehow "relevant" and ignoring the "irrelevant"
413
what kind of stimuli do we process a bit more readily during this "blink" of attention?
emotional stimuli
413
this form of attention is called endogenous, or "top-down" attention
-the "top" is the goal state coming from inside (endo) the person
-we are searching for a specific target
goal-directed attention
413
how does the filtering process for attention work? where and how do we process some things more fully than others, and how do we choose which things are "relevant" ?
it's not completely clear
414
example of goal-directed attention
where's waldo?
-we search the area slowly and carefully until we find the target
415
true or false: too much or too little attention can be dangerous
true
415
even when we are trying our best, our attention is ___
imperfect
416
this task asks folks to attend to 2 letters presented in a rapid series. processing the first letter (T1) absorbs most of folks' attention, revealing a "blink," or lapse of attention for the second letter (T2), strongest around 200 ms after T1
"attentional blink" task
417
searching for one particular thing through a mixture of multiple target features
conjunction search
417
true or false: multiple target features (conjunction search) does NOT increase search time along with the number of background distractors
false ; does increase search time
418
the ___ of a target extends reaction time significantly
absence
418
does reaction time extend or shorten as the number of distractors increases?
extends
419
this form of attention is called exogenous, or "bottom-up" attention
-the "bottom" is the sensory features that 'pop-out' or grab our attention from outside the body (exo)
automatic capture of attention ("captured" attention)
419
example of "captured" attention
a loud noise or a flash of lightning
-these features interrupt and grab our attention, without any intention on our part
-we can't ignore it, these stimuli are processed even if we don't want to
419
do endogenous and exogenous attention features function together or separately in search tasks?
together
419
if search features "pop-out" strongly, task performance is ___
-in this scenario, does the number of distractors matter?
fast ; does not matter
420
can attention be defined simply by gaze location?
no
421
does attention operate independent or "above" simple visual input?
yes
421
true or false: attending covertly leads to increased response speed and improved accuracy to a stimulus appearing at the attended location
true
422
asking subjects to pay attention to a location on a screen, while keeping fixation somewhere else
attending covertly
423
early visual ___ show evidence of a 'covert' attention advantage
-visual areas seem to be "warmed up" ahead of time by ___ attention
early visual ERPs ; endogenous attention
423
covert attention enhances visual cortical fMRI BOLD signal before or after the target appears?
before
423
first: locate ___ areas that respond to upper left and right patches
-subtracting BOLD signal recorded as subjects wait for left vs. right cue to appear shows a huge ___ increase in cortical activation due to attention
V1 ; preparatory increase
424
true or false: attending to the left 'warms up' left visual hemisphere areas
false ; attending to the left 'warms up' right visual hemisphere areas
425
___ elements in the unattended ear can "force through" the filter and "capture" our attention
salient
425
selective attention effect is mostly consistent with an old hypothesis of Helmholtz (1860s), suggesting that attention operates by filtering (“gating out”) unattended input at the early sensory stage
-this filter of attention is not perfect - ___ (or personally 'salient') stimuli break through the filter
exogenous
426
this also works for auditory input, by asking folks to wear headphones playing two different recordings, and asking them to alternate their attention toward one ear or the other
-in this "dichotomous listening" task, memory is much better for the content played to the ___ ear
attended ear
427
neuroscience studies of attention show that selection can modulate brain reactivity at all stages of the process. what are the two kinds of selection?
early selection and late selection
427
example: if an 'ignored' speaker sneezes, laughs, curses, or says your full name, this ability to register 'relevant' details in the ignored ear argues against a strict early selection model of attention
-why does this sort of feature make evolutionary sense?
we should never be able to completely ignore explicit threats
427
recent data demonstrates that the porous filter works in one or both directions? inhibiting processing of ignored cues, and enhancing processing of attended cues
both directions
428
a revised model, which allows highly relevant information to pass through the ears
porous filter
429
where does late selection occur?
prefrontal cortex
429
where does early selection occur?
sensory cortex
430
searching through a messy desk drawer for a highlighter is an example of which selection?
early selection
431
searching through a crowded bar for your roommate is an example of which selection?
late selection
432
if you are searching through a crowded bar for your roommate, and you happen to know that your roommate is wearing red, this is an example of which kind of selection?
early and late selection
433
how is selection managed in the brain?
folks are still working on it
434
this theory by treisman suggests that we have "feature maps" in our visual systems that allow us to quickly and efficiently recognize basic characteristics (color, shape, etc.) that enables exogenous "pop-out" attention
feature integration theory
435
if we need to locate something we 'bind' these multiple features together, using ___ attention.
-do we know much about the brain mechanisms supporting this process? or is this where research is in progress
endogenous ; where research is in progress
436
almost any sort of visual attention task evokes activity in two bilateral brain regions:
1. the premotor frontal eye fields (FEF)
2. dorsal parietal intraparietal sulcus (IPS)
437
this region of the brain is tied to eye movement and preparation
frontal eye fields (FEF)
438
this region of the brain is involved in 3D spatial awareness of stimuli around you
intraparietal sulcus (IPS)
439
the ___ network appears to swerve the needs of endogenous attention - anything that we need or want to look at engages the network
frontoparietal network
440
true or false: frontoparietal network (FP) network activity is limited to eye movements only
false ; FP network activity is independent of eye movement
441
does covert attention shifts also drive FEF/IPS activity?
yes
441
studies of exogenous shifts of attention find activity in a parallel attention network now called the ___
ventral FP (frontoparietal) network
441
the ventral FP network consists of two components:
1. inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)
2. temporoparietal junction (TPJ)
441
the dorsal network consists of two components:
FEF (frontal eye fields) and IPS (intraparietal sulcus)
442
___ shifts of attention are associated with activity in dorsal network (FEF and IPS)
endogenous
443
this type of attention is characterized by endogenous shifts of attention are associated with activity in dorsal network (FEF and IPS)
voluntary attention
444
ventral network is composed of two components in the brain:
temporoparietal junction (TPJ) and inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)
445
imagine sitting and watching TV; the ___ FP network manages your visual attention to the screen and limits sensitivity to anything else
dorsal
445
a timer goes off in the kitchen, the ___ FP network breaks your attention toward the TV. Then, the ___ FP engages as you make your way to get your dinner
ventral ; dorsal
445
this FP network can be thought of as a "circuit breaker" or "interrupt mechanism" to cease focused attention
ventral FP network
446
which FP network is mostly in charge?
dorsal
446
___ shifts of attention are associated with activity in ventral network (TPJ and IFG)
exogenous
447
in studies where attention is 'captured' by features like salience, or emotion, attention effects take longer, around ___ ms after the target
200 ms
447
The basic idea of selective attention is that some region of PFC (and probably other areas) ___ and ___ the search goal. The current goal appears to inform the FP network to scan the environment, locate the target, and fixate gaze to that point
chooses and maintains
447
___ designs in visual search are simplistic
-when searching for a target with one basic feature (ex. a red bar), we are able to rapidly search a large array, using exogenous attention
"classic"
447
most attention studies use ___ tasks, where the subject is "prepared and waiting" for a specific target
endogenous tasks
447
with endogenous tasks, attention effects are evident soon after the target appears, around ___ ms
100 ms
448
is a naturalistic search performance faster or slower than expected
faster than expected
448
by studying attention ___ stimuli, we reveal how attention works (and evolved) to solve 'real world' problems
naturalistic stimuli
448
find a notre dame fan in the crowd of a UGA football game: complex but familiar, and ecologically valid
example of a naturalistic (real world) search
448
when asked to decide if a scene contains an animal, people can correctly identify animals ___% of the time, even when the scene is presented for only ___ ms
94% ; 20 ms
448
find a horizontal red line in a picture of red and green lines, tilted at different angles: Simple, but also unfamiliar, and ecologically sterile, foreign
example of a naturalistic (real world) search
449
familiar contexts ___ search times
- we locate objects (ex. a coffee maker) ___ when they are placed in a natural setting, relative to a simple array, even though the natural setting is much more visually complex
reduce ; faster
449
naturalistic search: why so fast?
this early ERP effect is just as fast as hillyard's left vs. right visual attention, or left vs. right ear attention. but the task is much more ___ (cars vs. trees, or faces vs. buildings)
complex
449
why is a naturalistic search so fast?
target objects and distractors are familiar ; it is easy for us to search for an animal in a natural environment (we've been training for this sort of task our whole lives)
450
true or false: scene context hinders gaze location
false ; scene context aids gaze location
-fixations demonstrate that people know where to look for an object in a photograph from past experience
450
does attention modulate only early or early and late visual cortex activity up and down?
both early and late
451
if we change the target category every trial, we can see the ___ ventral visual cortex ‘warm up’ and “cool down” the category-sensitive regions ahead of time (just like early visual cortex)
late ventral visual cortex
452
naturalistic search: limitations
-attention can bias visual processing of broad target categories (ex. cars vs. trees) but cannot focus on ___ subtypes (ex. BMWs vs. Fords, cats vs. dogs)
detailed
452
how does attention modulate brain reactivity?
models of selective attention propose that target stimuli are "tagged" or "gated through" in some way for enhanced processing, but the exact mechanism is unknown
452
the enhancement of familiar target categories is enacted in parallel across part of or the entire visual field, much like basic features such as color?
-we can’t limit our categorical attention to one location around us
the entire visual field
452
this type of attention is characterized by exogenous shifts of attention are associated with activity in a ventral network including temporoparietal junction (TPD) and inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)
attention reorienting
453
do the dorsal and ventral networks work in unison or opposition?
opposition
453
true or false: when one FP network is active, the other is inhibited
true
454
recently, a research group were able to identify multiple V1 clusters that responded to different line orientations, but all fed into a single ___ cluster
V4
454
both ___ and ___ of EEG appear to support network connections
frequency and phase
454
cortical neurons are constantly ___ (increasing and decreasing. inactivity)
oscillating
454
comparing the way cortical signals between V1 and V4 neurons changed when the same stimulus was attended or ignored focuses on 2 components:
frequency and phase of EEG signals between V1 and V4
455
activity is greatest at the ___ point of an oscillation. it sends and receives signals best at this point in time
high point
455
if two or more regions are connected, and oscillating at the same frequency, they are often part of a ___ network
functional network
456
for A and B to communicate best, A should send a signal to B so that it ___ when B is at a high point of activity
arrives
456
this process manages region A so that its signal is sent to A's high point, and so it arrives when region B is at its high point
phase shift
456
higher oscillation frequencies represent ___ signals, while slower frequencies represent ___ signals
feedforward ; feedback
456
high frequency EEG = ___ signals
feedforward
456
bottom-up =
gamma
457
rhythms for cognition:
communication through coherence
457
V1 clusters feed into target cluster in ___
V4
457
V1 sends its signal as a perfect ___, so that it is heard much more loudly by V4 target than competing stimuli
phase representation
457
low frequency EEG = ___ signals
feedback
458
top-down =
alpha-beta
459
this phase representation locks itself to ___ somehow, so it only hears this V1 cluster
V4
459
two components of memory:
working memory and long-term memory
459
attended information is transmitted into V4 and its highest ___ point (its peak), while ignored information is transmitted into V4 at its ___ point
excitation ; inhibition
460
what manages phase tuning?
true or false: slow-frequency "top-down" feedback signals from later stages of visual cortex (or PFC) is involved
true
460
two components of long-term memory:
declarative (explicit memory) and nondeclarative (implicit memory
461
two components of declarative (explicit memory)
episodic memory (events) and semantic memory (facts)
461
nondeclarative memory is referred to as ___ memory
implicit memory
461
declarative memory is referred to as ___ memory
explicit
462
is memory formation understood well? or poorly understood?
poorly understood
462
3 components of nondeclarative (implicit) memory
priming, skill learning, and conditioning
463
true or false: minor concussions typically erase memory of recent events
true
463
what must occur over an extended period of time for the memory of an event to last
the brain must be allowed tp "consolidate"
463
can severe concussions eliminate memory of the entire day, week, or more?
yes
464
a rare condition in which a temporary loss of memory function occurs with no apparent cause, lasting 1-24 hours
-all other brain functions are intact, and CT, MRI, PET scans look normal
transient global amnesia
464
are novel memories formed instantly? or does it actually take quite a while for memories to become permanent?
it actually takes quite a while for memories to become permanent
465
with transient global amnesia, immediate recall (~1 min) is normal, along with term memories (longer than ~1 year), but everything in between is temporarily ___
-patients can’t understand what’s happening, and often ask the same series of questions in a “repeating loop”
temporarily lost
465
3 flavors of implicit memory:
priming, skill learning, and conditioning
465
this flavor of implicit memory only works if it happens implicitly (outside our awareness)
priming
465
how are implicit memories formed?
automatically, by mere exposure or by simple association
466
___ involves the implicit presentation of information/cues that have the effect of increasing the probability that a person will respond with a target stimulus (word, object, etc.)
priming
466
how long after a transient global amnesia episode does memory function gradually recover?
can new memories be formed again?
are memories of the TGA event itself permanent, or are they lost?
~24 hours ; yes ; lost
466
are implicit memories easy or difficult to describe?
difficult
467
true or false: V1 attended and V1 unattended both feed into V4
true
468
true or false: priming must remain 'under the radar' to work
true
469
personal practice and experience that leads to 'motor learning' that is highly resistant to decay - a 'permanent memory'
ex. you never forget how to catch a ball, or ride a bike
skill learning
470
___ is highly implicit. it is impossible to explain to someone how to swim or ride a bike. they need to learn for themselves
skill learning
471
motor plasticity is revealed through ___
ex. riding a bike is a complicated motor task. many variables must be balanced to manage it well. once you 'get it,' it generally stays with you forever, BUT, if you change one part of the process, and try to adapt, strange things happen
(ex. backwards bicycle video)
reprogramming
471
learning that a neutral cue produces an aversive (or appetitive) outcome
classical conditioning
472
___ is one of the best understood sorts of memory, from a neuro standpoint
associative conditioning
473
skin conductance responses (sympathetic) reveal reveal the creation of the new memory association. SC will often show learning effects before or after the subject is able to verbally report the association, demonstrating ‘implicit’ learning?
before
474
classical conditioning depends on intact ___
amygdala
475
"fear potentiation” of the startle reflex is dependent on an intact central nucleus of the subcortical ___. without this part of the brain, fear associations are poorly learned
amygdala
476
the what, where, when, and how of an event (active clusters of activity in visual, auditory, and premotor cortex, etc.) are linked through connections with the HC
-after many years of use, can these clusters gain independence from HC index and develop direct links?
yes
476
in healthy folks, what brain structures are needed to recall an event
1. the parts of the cortex that were active during the original event (sight, smell, sound, feelings, etc.)
2. hippocampus to provide the list of all these elements, so that they can be reactivated when you bring the memory back online
477
explicit learning activates this part of the brain, indicating declarative learning
hippocampus
477
3 basic components of declarative memory:
encoding, storage, and retrieval
477
consistent with the index model, fMRI studies have shown visual cortex reactivation during retrieval of word memories that were formed in combination with ___ stimuli
-thus the text cue evokes the ___ associate in memory
picture ; visual
477
repeated recall of a past event strengthens the direct connections between those parts of the cortex, and eventually the hippocampus is not necessary. how long does this process take?
~6-12 months
477
implicit learning activates this part of the brain
amygdala
478
this working hypothesis of declarative memory function considers the HC as an ‘index’ - a map of memory elements
the hippocampal "index model"
478
why does head trauma affect memory more than other brain functions?
it is not clear, but it could be that memory depends on structures located in the middle of the brain, where shearing, twisting forces concentrate (medial temporal lobe structures)
478
HM's declarative deficits were linked primarily to the loss of the ___
hippocampus
479
both retrieval and encoding are somehow connected with the ___, which stores the "index" of an event
hippocampus
480
during retrieval of word memories that were formed in combination with sound stimuli, the ___ cortex is reactivated
auditory cortex
481
true or false: L IFG activity is weaker during memory retrieval
false ; stronger
481
memory encoding: we see greater IFG activity during ___ (deep) compared to ___ (shallow) strategy use
semantic (deep) ; phonological (shallow)
481
encoding has been linked to
left IFG
481
from behavioral memory research, we know that greater ___ improves performance. in other words, the more deeply we think about an item, the more likely we are to remember it later
depth processing
481
deep thinking engages left inferior frontal cortex, or ___, known to be involved in language processing
broca's area
481
more left IFG activity during ___ vs. ___ memory encoding
semantic vs. sound
481
clearly recalled items are associated with more ___ parietal activity
ventral parietal
481
correctly remembered word trials showed much more ___ activity
L IFG
482
low-confidence items are associated with more ___ parietal activity
dorsal parietal
482
retrieval has been linked to
left IFG and posterior parietal cortex
483
both ___ (receptors, dendrites) and ___ processes (large cortical networks) are involved in memory consolidation
subcellular and systemic processes
483
selectively interrupting different stages of sleep reveals that stage 4 "___" sleep is especially critical to memory retention the following day
"slow-wave"
483
how do we determine which things to remember and which to forget?
it's unclear
483
one likely component to consolidation
sleep
484
memory consolidation has been shown to involve ___ and ___ scales that vary widely
spatial and temporal
484
neurocognitive processing during sleep can benefit memory storage when memories are covertly cued via ___ and ___ stimulation
auditory and olfactory
484
learned spatial associations that were ___ during slow wave sleep were remembered better in human trials
re-cued
485
true or false: the information that ultimately remains available for retrieval may tend to be that which is reactivated during sleep
true
486
this view of reconsolidation states that the stored memory is stable; the “original” copy is read out at retrieval
classic view of reconsolidation
486
memories are gradually altered over time through ___
reconsolidation
486
ex. of reconsolidation
memories that are repeatedly recounted tend to put the narrator in a better light
486
this view of reconsolidation states that the stored memory is malleable; the "most recently" accessed copy is read out at retrieval
modern view of reconsolidation
486
reconsolidation has been used in ___ patients to weaken the persistent emotional associations typically evoked by traumatic memories
PTSD
486
over time, the hippocampal index becomes less important in memory recall. how long?
~1 year
486
a set of processes that transfer hippocampus-mediated to direct cortical connections
consolidation
486
is memory consolidation well understood?
no ; poorly understood
