Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Upper Extremities > Final Exam Cumulative > Flashcards

Final Exam Cumulative Flashcards

0
Q

Define Decerebrate Posture

A

Extension of the extremities and retraction of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Define Amenorrhea

A

Absence of menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Stridor

A

Harsh, high pitched sound resembling blowing wind that is experiences during respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Tinnitus

A

Ringing in the ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Epistaxis

A

Nosebleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Diplopia

A

Double Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Hypermetropia

A

Farsightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Nystagmus

A

Uncontrolled side to side movement of the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Myopia

A

Nearsightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Dysuria

A

Painful urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Anisocoria

A

Unequal pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Hyperreflexia

A

Increased action of the reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define Anoxia

A

Absence of oxygen in the blood or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Dyspnea

A

Air hunger marked by labored or difficulty breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Hyphema

A

A collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Ottorrhea

A

Discharge from ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Rhinorrhea

A

Discharge from nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define Pericarditis

A

Inflammation of the lining surrounding the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Brachial Plexus

A

C5-C8and T1 spinal nerve roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A “tear drop”pupil indicates

A

Ruptured globe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Raccoon eyes may result from

A

Nasal fracture

Skull fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Onset of an epidural hematoma is measured in

A

minutes to hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Movement of the fluid in the semicircular canal assists with

A

Maintaining balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A fracture into the enamel of the tooth is characterized by

A

subtle irritation while eating,drinking, and talking

24
Q

The Fluorescein strip is used to detect

A

a detached retina

25
Q

An epidural hematoma forms between the ______and the _______

A

dura mater; skull

26
Q

Hematuria denotes significant injury to the

A

kidneys

27
Q

Most commonly injured organ in the abdomen is the

A

spleen

28
Q

The female athlete triad consists of

A

Amenorrhea
Eating disorder
Osteoporosis

29
Q

Best immediate management of an avulsed tooth includes

A

rinsing the tooth with saline solution, reimplanting it in the socket, and making immediate referral to dentist

30
Q

Diplopia, exophthalmos or enophthalmos, blurred vision, and subcutaneous emphysema are indicative of what condition?

A

Corneal laceration

31
Q

From posterior to anterior, the sequencing of teeth

A

Molar, bicuspid, cuspid,incisor

32
Q

Otitis externa is characterized by

A

complaints or hearing deficits

33
Q

Describe/define Battle’s sign

A

Ecchymosis found behind the ear at mastoid process. Indicative of skull fracture

34
Q

Describe/define Raccoon eyes

A

Ecchymosis around the infraorbital of eyes. Indicative of skull/nasal fracture

35
Q

If an athlete comes off the field with their arm hanging to one side, what injury do you first suspect?

A

Injury involving brachial plexus

36
Q

Atrophy in the deltoid could indicate what?

A

Pathology in C5 and C6 nerve roots

37
Q

Which nerve pathology could lead to winging scapula?

A

Long thoracic nerve

38
Q

These three structures can be pathologically involved in impingement syndrome:

A

Supraspinatus tendon
Biceps tendon
Sub acromial bursa

39
Q

What is the amount of shoulder complex abduction available if you fused the GH joint

A

60 degrees

40
Q

The traction test assesses for____, while the sulcus sign assesses for _____

A

AC joint hypermobility; GH joint hypermobility

41
Q

A positive Yergason’s test indicates what pathology?

A

Subluxing long head of the biceps brachii

42
Q

A Bankart lesion is characterized by a

A

defect in the glenoid labrum

43
Q

The empty can test is used to evaluate the presence of pathology to which of the following muscles

A

Supraspinatus

44
Q

Following signs and symptoms that best describes the findings associated with a moderate acromioclavicular joint sprain

A

Palpable step-off deformity, traction test increases pain and laxity with PA stress to joint.

45
Q

The superior angle of the scapula sits at_____, while the inferior angle sits at ______

A

T2:T7

46
Q

Most common MOI of injury for the AC joint is

A

landing on forward flexed out-stretched arm

47
Q

Laxity in the anterior band of the inferiorGH ligament is typically the cause of what injury?

A

Anterior glenohumeral instability

48
Q

What simple movement is used to test the integrity of the radial nerve?

A

Thumb to fifth finger opposition

49
Q

Lateral epicondlylagia is characterized by

A

increased pain with passive wrist flexion with elbow extended

50
Q

Inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow would be positive for?

A

Golfer’s elbow test

51
Q

Most commonly dislocated carpal in the wrist is

A

the lunate

52
Q

How many degrees of movement for the distal radioulnar joint?

A

One degree of freedom: supinatio/pronation

53
Q

A rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus would cause

A

an inability to flex the DIP joint of the involved finger

54
Q

Which nerve enters the elbow at the arcade of Struthers?

A

Ulnar nerve

55
Q

An infection at the base of the nail is known as

A

paronychia

56
Q

Normal carrying angle for men and women are?

A

5-10 degrees men

10-15 degrees women

57
Q

What tendons form the borders of the anatomical snuff box?

A

Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
Abductor pollicis longus

Upper Extremities (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions