Final Exam--Equine & Food Animal Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Final Exam--Equine & Food Animal Deck (64)
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1

Though all 4 heart sounds are considered normal to hear in the horse, which gallop sound is more common?

S4 (atrial contraction)

2

Contrast pathologic and physiologic(innocent) murmurs

Pathologic--backward flow through a valve that should be CLOSED

Physiologic--vibration of forward flow through a valve that should be open

3

How should physiologic murmurs auscultate?

short and quiet (no greater than grade 3/6)

4

The most common NON-PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia in horses?

second degree AV block--type 1

5

Describe the rhythm of second degree AV block (type 1)

regularly irregular (3 beats, pause, 3 beats, pause)

6

second degree AV block can be induced by?

sedatives (alpha-2 agonists)

7

What lead to we run horse ECGs on and why?

Lead 1--extensive purkinje network

8

Two most common reasons for a systolic murmur with PMI on left side (adult horses). Where does each localize?

Mitral regurgitation (MI)--APEX

Physiologic flow murmur--BASE

9

If you hear a murmur on the left but it's loudest on the RIGHT, what is it most likely due to?

Relative pulmonic stenosis from VSD

10

Two most common reasons for systolic murmurs with PMI on the RIGHT

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

tricuspid regurgitation

11

Two common reasons for DIASTOLIC murmurs on the LEFT side in adult horses. Where do they localize?

Aortic regurgitation (base)

diastolic flow murmur (apex)

12

When it comes to VSD, you want the lesion to be _____ & have ______ _____

small; high velocity (both are GOOD prognostic factors)

13

4 defects associated with tetralogy of fallot

large VSD
over-riding(reaching) aorta
true stenosis of pulmonary valve
RV hypertrophy

14

PMI with tetralogy of fallot is on which side and why?

LEFT side (due to right to left shunting of blood...caused by the stenosed pulmonic valve)

15

The most common etiology of aortic insufficiency?

Degenerative change (horses > 10yr)

16

A waterhammer (bounding) pulse is indicative of?

significant volume overload (due to aortic regurg)

17

Which valvular disease is most common in athletic/trained horses?

Tricuspid regurgitation

18

Most common PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia of horses?

atrial fibrillation

19

Describe the rhythm that you hear with atrial fibrillation

irregularly, irregular (pulses are also irregular)

20

3 factors that can affect refractory periods in the horse?

1) high vagal tone
2) myocardial pathology
3) electrolytes disturbances (low K)

21

Most common complaint of owner's in horses with Afib?

exercise intolerance

22

A class 1a antiarrythmic used for conversion of Afib?

Quinidine sulfate

*vagolytic*

23

When should conversion for afib not be attempted?

When it is due to underlying cardiac disease/heart failure

24

Concerning ventricular tachycardia (VPCs)
1) HR when Tx should be considered
2) HR that indicates an emergency

1) >60bpm

2) >120bpm

25

How does Magnesium function in treatment of VPCs?

works as a Ca antagonist to slow conduction

26

Most common cause of 3rd degree AV block in horses?

scarring/fibrosis of AV node

27

What 3 electrolytes can impact myocyte contractility?

Ca, K, Mg

28

3 main causes of myocardial disease

Inflammation (myocarditis)
Degeneration/necrosis
Electrolyte abnormalities

29

How do ionophores cause myocyte degeneration?

bypass Na/Ca exchanger and bring Na into the cell, causing less Ca to be transported out

Ca stimulates more Ca leads from SER, causing Ca to build up in the cell and become toxic

30

Most common causes of CHF in horses?

Acute & chronic valvular disease

31

Why is alveolar edema uncommon in horses with CHF?

their lungs can handle a large amount of venous pressure before fluid enters the alveoli

32

Right-heart failure in horses is most commonly associated with?

Chronic left-sided disease/failure that lead to pulmonary hypertension

33

3 drugs that can be used for management of CHF in horses?

Digoxin
Pimobendan
Furosemide

34

Location of action for:
1) digoxin
2) Furosemide

1) Blocks Na/K ATPase

2) inhibits Na/K/2Cl symporter in thick ascending LoH

35

the 3 categories of vascular disease in horses

Thrombosis
Rupture
Vasculitis

36

This disease of horses often occurs secondary to infection (most commonly with Step. equi)

Equine Purpura hemorrhagica

37

How does EPH cause vasculitis?

deposition of immune complexes in vessel (venule) walls

*Type III hypersensitivity*

38

Give 3 causes for:
1) increased heart sounds
2) decreased heart sounds

Increased:
1) hypomagnesemia
2) cranioventral bronchopneumonia
3) thin animal

Decreased:
1) displacement of heart by a mass
2) change in pericardial or pleural space
3) hypocalcemia

39

Most common pathologic arrhythmia in cattle?

atrial fibrillation

40

In cattle, Afib commonly occurs secondary to?

an underlying GI disease (i.e. LDA, RDA)

41

Most common cause of pathologic murmurs in adult cattle?

valvular disease--Tricuspid insufficiency

42

Where to puncture for pericardiocentesis?

Left side, 5th ICS

43

When the heart is located outside the pleural cavity, it's called?

Where is it most commonly located instead?

Ectopia cordis

cervical region

44

The most common atrial septal defect?

patent foramen ovale

45

Most common valvular defect in swine?

Dysplasia of tricuspid valve

46

What CBC/Chem findings would support a diagnosis of hardware disease?

neutrophilic leukocytosis or leukopenia with a left shift

high fibrin, high globulins

47

Most common cause of acquired murmurs in cattle?

endocarditis (most common cause of valvular disease)

48

Most common bacteria associated with endocarditis in each spp. and preferred valve site
1) cattle
2) swine

1) T. pyogenes; tricuspid valve (listen on R side)

2) S. suis; mitral valve (listen @ L apex)

49

The most common form of cardiomyopathy in livestock?

dilated cardiomyopathy

50

Which disease is associated with cattle kept at high altitudes?

Brisket disease (high altitude disease, mountain sickness)

51

List species from most to least susceptible to ionophore toxicity (list sheep, horses, and cattle)

horses (most)
sheep
cattle (least)

52

Ionophore muscle preference in:
1) horses
2) cattle
3) sheep & swine

1) prefers cardiac
2) cardiac and skeletal equally affected
3) mainly impacts skeletal muscle

53

Two factors that increase sensitivity to gossypol

1) being monogastric (i.e. swine)

2) stress (lowers tolerance)

54

Which part of Senna spp. are considered most hazardous? And which spp. most often develops clinical signs?

seeds (put all parts are toxic)

Cattle

55

Grayanotoxin is associated with?

Rhododendron spp. (azaleas)

56

primary signs of Grayantoxin ingestion in goats?

Vomiting!!!
bradycardia

57

Primary agent associated with bacterial myocarditis in cattle?

Histophilus somni

*myocarditis develops after a respiratory event (BRDC)*

58

2 pathogens associated with myocarditis in swine?

Strep. suis
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (chronic form)

59

Which type of cattle are predisposed to caudal vena cava thrombosis?

feedlot/adult cattle that are on high grain diets

60

A tickborne, rickettsial foreign animal disease associated with vasculitis in cattle

heartwater

61

Predilection sites for lymphosarcoma

HAULS

Heart (RA), abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, spinal cord

62

4 mechanisms of heat dissipation

radiation
conduction
convection
evaporation**

**only one that does NOT require temperature gradient

63

The gene involved with porcine stress syndrome

halothane gene

64

Describe the pathogenesis of porcine stress syndrome

(aka malignant hyperthermia)

A trigger (stressor) causes a rise in intracellular Ca, leading to muscle contraction