Final Exam - Past Questions Flashcards

(239 cards)

1
Q

how many bones in adult vertebral column?

A

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most post. part of typical vertebra?

A

spinous processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

joints btw articular processes of vertebra

A

zygapophyseal joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Does C1 have a vertebral body?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what must tech make sure to do on spine XRs to improve the vis. of spine?

A

coll. lat borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AP C-Spine CR?

A

CR 15-20º cephalic to C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why is AP C-spine angled 15º cephalic?

A

to open joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During AP “open mouth”, an imaginary line btw what 2 landmarks is made perp to IR?

A

lower margin of incisors/mastoid tip (skull base)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AP “Open Mouth” dens shows what?

A

C1 & C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is the Judd method intended to show the zygapophyseal joints btw C1 & C2?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what pos’s project dens thru shadow of foramen magnum when upper portion of dens is obscured by teeth, when skull base and upper incisors are superimposed?

A

Fuchs/Judd method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

C-vert. contain what in their transverse processes?

A

foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

detail is improved on a lat c-spine by using what?

A

sm focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What XR shows articular pillars & zygapophyseal joints on C-spine?

A

lat C-spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is done on an ant. obl c-spine to prevent the superimposition of the mandible?

A

extend chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an ant obl c-spine shows the IV foramina/pedicles ______ to IR

A

closest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

an LAO c-spine show’s what?

A

L IV foramina/pedicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which obl’s are preferred for C-spine? why?

A

ant. obl.; less thyroid dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CR for post obl c-spine?

A

15º cephalic to C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An RPO of c-spine shows what?

A

L IV foramina/pedicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In a post obl c-spine, the IV foramina/pedicles _______ to IR are shown

A

furthest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CR AP T-spine?

A

perp T7 (3-4” inf. jugular notch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what manual technique is done in the lat T-spine to enhance the visualization of the vertebral bodies?

A

low mA & 3-4s exposure T (w orthostatic breathing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the Lat T-spine shows what?

A

open IV foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
on the lat T-spine, the vertebral column must be _______ to tabletop to open up IV joint spaces
II
26
what can be done on a lat T-spine to improve vis. of post. spine by preventing excessive density along post. aspect of spine?
pb apron behind pt
27
which XR best demonstrates a compression fracture of T-spine?
lat T-spine
28
which XR best demonstrates C7-T1?
Swimmer's lat/Twining method
29
what is performed when the upper aspect of T-spine is obscured by shoulders, when the upper T-spine is the area of interest?
Swimmer's lat/Twining method
30
if pt enters ER bc of MVA & is on backboard w C-collar, and initial XR only shows C1-C6, & no CT is available, what XR should be performed?
horizontal beam Swimmer's lat
31
what kind of contrast/latitude is preferred for L-spine?
short-scale, narrow latitude
32
iliac crest is located at the level of?
L4-5
33
what 2 L-spine XRs would show a possible compression fracture of L3, by best demonstrating body of L3 & IV joint spaces above and below it?
collimated AP & lat L-spine
34
if you must perform an L-spine on a pregnant female, what 3 things should a tech do?
1. use higher kVp & lower mAs, 2. increase SID, 3. coll. as much as possible
35
neck of Scottie dog?
pars interarticularis
36
what is the sm bone found btw the sup. & inf. articular processes?
pars interarticularis
37
ear of scottie dog?
sup. articular process
38
eye of scottie dog?
pedicle
39
foot of scottie dog?
inf. articular process
40
nose of scottie dog?
transverse process
41
scottie dogs are only seen on what projections?
obl L-spine XRs
42
what XRs best show the degree of movement at the fusion site (after a spinal fusion was performed at L3-4)?
lat hyperextension & hyperflexion
43
why should a pt flex knees during an AP L-spine?
to reduce lordotic curve/straighten spine
44
CR for AP L-spine?
perp to iliac crest
45
what should tech do to prevent scatter from reaching IR on a lat L-spine?
pb mat behind pt
46
what is shown on a lat L-spine?
IV foramina, IV joint/disk spaces of L-spine
47
how much is a pt rotated for an obl L-spine?
45º
48
what pos should you place a pt to see the L apophyseal joints of L-spine?
LPO
49
how much rotation should you rotate pt to see the zygapophyseal joints at L1-2?
50º obl
50
how much rotation should you rotate pt to see the zygapophyseal joints at L5-S1?
30º obl
51
what pos demonstrates the R apophyseal joints of L-spine?
RPO
52
how much body rotation is needed to best demonstrate the L3-4 zygapophyseal joints?
45º
53
which ant obl L-spine XR will show the R apophyseal joints?
LAO
54
CR for lat L5-S1 spot when pt has insufficient waist support?
5-8º caudad to 1.5" inf. iliac crest & 2" post. ASIS
55
for a cone down view of L5-S1 in an AP projection, must angle CR?
30-35º cephalic
56
S1-2 is located at the level of?
ASIS
57
another term for sacral horn
cornu of sacrum
58
term for sup. aspect of coccyx?
base
59
an avg of ___ segments make up the adult coccyx
4
60
CR for AP Axial Sacrum?
15º cephalic to midway btw pubic symphysis & ASIS
61
CR for AP Axial Coccyx?
10º caudad to 2" sup. to pubic symphysis
62
CR for lat Sacrum/Coccyx?
perp to 3-4" post. ASIS
63
how many degrees do you int. rotate feet for AP pelvis?
15-20º (IF NO FRACTURE SUSPECTED)
64
how much do you abduct femora from vertical on a bilat frog/modified cleaves for pelvis?
40-45º
65
for the Lauenstein-Hickey method (for unilat hip) the pt is what?
rotated onto affected side until femur touches table and is II to IR
66
Lauenstein-Hickey method for hip shows what?
foreshortened femoral neck, but shows head & acetabulum
67
humeral epicondyles are _________ to IR for AP Int Shoulder
perp
68
humeral epicondyles are __________ to IR for AP Ext Shoulder
II
69
AP Int Shoulder shows what?
lesser tubercle in full profile (med)
70
AP Ext Shoulder shows what?
greater tubercle in profile (lat)
71
CR for AP Int/Ext Shoulder
perp 1" inf. coracoid process (which is 3/4" inf. to lat. portion of clavicle)
72
Post Obl shoulder aka?
Grashey method
73
Grashey method shows
glenoid cavity in profile; open scapulohumeral joint space
74
on Grashey for shoulder, a person w a round/curved back needs ______ rotation to place body of scapula II to IR
more
75
how much body rotation is needed for Grashey method?
35-45º towards affected side
76
breathing technique for clavicle?
full inspiration (to raise clavicles out of lung field)
77
CR for AP Axial clavicle?
15-30º cephalic to midclavicle
78
thin pt's need ___________ angle than thick pt's for AP Axial clavicle
10-15º more
79
what must pt do for positioning of AP scapula?
abduct arm 90º and supinate hand (salute)
80
which landmarks are used for positioning go scapula "Y" lat?
sup. angle of scapula & AC joint (rotate until imaginary line btw is perp to IR)
81
min weights used for AP AC joints w weights?
5-8 lbs
82
what is done to project the AC joint sup. to acromion for optimal vis.?
Alexander method, CR 15º cephalic to midpoint btw AC joints
83
What SID for AC joints?
72"
84
breathing technique for AP scapula?
orthostatic breathing
85
3 potential errors in skull positioning
1. excessive neck flexion/extension 2. head rotation/tilt 3. incorrect CR angle
86
how do you find the sella turcica?
3/4" ant. & 3/4" sup. to EAM
87
sella turcica houses the?
pituitary gland
88
neuro XRs use _____ focal spot
sm
89
which XR puts the petrous ridges below the maxillary sinuses?
Parietoacanthial (Waters) method
90
what must be done before performing SMV XRs?
rule out fractures/subluxation of C-spine
91
pt enters ER w possible fracture of R zygomatic arch, what is the best XR routine?
SMV, bilat obl tangential, & AP Axial
92
what line is II to IR for SMV of zygomatic arches?
IOML
93
if pt cannot hyperextend neck enough for SMV, what should tech do?
make CR perp to IOML
94
what is the pt pos for obl inferosuperior tangential zygomatic arch (Mays view)
(from SMV pos) pt must rotate & tilt 15º toward affected side
95
CR for AP axial Towne zygomatic arch when IOML perp to IR
37º caudad to 1" sup. glabella (exiting level of gonion)
96
what XR will show blowout & tripod fractures?
PA Waters
97
pt enters ER and the doc is concerned about a blowout fracture of the L orbit. what 3 routine XRs will best demonstrate this injury?
modified parietoacanthial, 30º PA facial, & lat facial
98
optic foramina are located w/in
sphenoid bone
99
what XR best demonstrates orbital floors?
PA 30º Orbits or Modified Waters | just PA Caldwell is NOT a good answer
100
what XR puts petrous ridges in lower 1/2 of maxillary sinuses?
parietoacanthial (modified/shallow) waters
101
what XR uses the 3pt landing?
parietoorbital obl optic foramina/Rhese method (chin, cheek, nose)
102
the Rhese method projects the optic foramina in?
the lower outer quadrant
103
TMJ XR's are routinely done w?
mouth open & closed
104
CR for axiolat TMJ (modified schuller)
25-30º caudad to 1/2" ant. & 2" sup. EAM
105
CR for axiolat obl TMJ (modified law)
15º caudad to 1.5" sup. to EAM
106
panorex of mandible requires pt's chin adjusted so the _____ is II to the floor
IOML
107
the _____________ of the mandible extends upward from the post. part of the ramus up to the adjacent joint
condyloid process
108
the _____ is perp to IR during PA Axial Mandible
OML
109
CR for PA Axial mandible
20-25º cephalic, exit acanthion
110
CR for AP Axial (Towne) mandible when OML perp to IR
35º caudad to glabella
111
the AP Axial (Towne) Mandible best demonstrates what portion of the mandible?
condyloid processes (bilat)
112
CR for Axiolat Obl Mandible
25º cephalic from IPL to exit downside mandibular region
113
30º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?
body of mandible
114
45º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?
mentum
115
10-15º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?
general survey of mandible
116
0º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?
ramus
117
the chin is extended in the axiolat obl mandible to?
free C-spine of superimposition of ramus
118
which bones are assoc. w the inner canthus of the eye?
lacrimal
119
what XR of sinuses does a trauma pt in a C-collar need to demonstrate blood/fluid levels?
horizontal beam lat
120
what is the sm flap of cartilage that covers the ear opening?
tragus
121
CR for lat facial?
perp to zygoma (midway btw outer canthus & EAM)
122
OML is at how many degrees from IR on a parietoacanthial (waters) for facial?
37º
123
what touches the upright bucky for a waters facial?
chin
124
____ neck extension is required for a modified/shallow waters
less
125
OML is at how many degrees from IR on a modified waters for facial?
55º
126
which XR gives vest view of orbital floors?
Modified water facial
127
CR for modified waters?
perp, exit acanthion
128
CR for PA Axial (Caldwell) facial
15º caudad, exit nasion
129
what must be done to the PA Caldwell facial to put petrous ridges below the IOM & demonstrate the orbital floors?
increase CR angle to 30º caudad, exit nasion
130
which waters method demonstrates zygomatic arches?
parietoacanthial (waters) method
131
tube that passes from the kidney to the urinary bladder
ureter
132
which of the following is not found in the urinary system? | glomerulus, calyx, adrenal, nephron
adrenal
133
which kidney is usually always more inf.?
R kidney
134
avg adult bladder can hold how much fluid?
350-500 mL
135
when pt signs consent form, legally this means that once the consent has been signed, the pt
may still claim that they were not properly informed of the procedure risks
136
when do you pull on the catheter to create pressure?
never
137
when pt is vomiting, the pt's head is lifted/turned to the side to prevent?
aspiration
138
AP trendelenburg pos (for IVP/VCUG) enhances
pelvicalyceal filling
139
routine IVPs are done w what breathing technique?
expiration
140
what is a good example of a routine IVP?
scout KUB, nephrogram, AP KUB, RPO KUB, LPO KUB, & post void
141
which procedure requires an injection of contrast media into a vein to vis. kidneys?
intravenous pyelography
142
what must be included on the AP scout for an IVP/IVU?
pubic symphysis
143
if a nephrogram taken during an IVU shows that the renal parenchyma is poorly visualized, but the calyces are contrast enhanced, what did the tech do?
exposure was not taken soon enough following contrast injection
144
CR centering for nephrotomogram?
midway btw xiphoid process & iliac crest
145
in tomography, the area of interest is at the same height as the?
fulcrum
146
RPO for IVP puts which kidney in profile?
L
147
an LPO taken during an IVU shows that the R kidney is foreshortened & superimposed on the spine, what should tech do?
decrease rotation
148
during a retrograde cystogram, the contrast media is normally introduced by
gravity flow thru a catheter
149
term for voiding under voluntary control
urination
150
in an AP cysto, contrast fills
slowly by gravity - never by force
151
(Cysto) what is needed to see the posterolateral aspect of the bladder, especially UV junction?
steeper obl (60º rotation)
152
what pos do you place a male pt for a VCUG?
rotate into 30º RPO (superimpose urethra over R thigh)
153
during a VCUG, pt is asked to void during XR to vis. the?
urethra
154
gallbladder is located where?
RUQ
155
what is peristalsis?
normal contractive waves of digestive system
156
what term describes the formation of sacs/pouches in colon?
diverticulosis
157
veriform appendix is attached to the
cecum
158
the opening btw the esophagus & stomach
cardiac orifice
159
what type of pt has a transverse stomach
hypersthenic
160
CR for RAO UGI?
perp to L2/duodenal bulb (1-2" sup. to lower lat rib margin) midway btw spine & L/upside lat border of abdomen
161
pt enters ER w possible perforated ulcer, what should be performed?
UGI w gastroview
162
what is demonstrated on RAO for UGI?
BaSO4 filled duodenal bulb & c-loop in profile
163
what pos is preferred for SBS?
prone KUB
164
the supine KUB for SBS is centered where?
@ iliac crest
165
KUB stands for
kidneys, ureters, & bladder
166
how much BaSO4 is given to the pt for a SBS?
16 oz (2 cups)
167
CR for AP scout for SBS
perp iliac crest
168
PA SBS, after an hour, should be centered at
iliac crest
169
the SBS is completed after?
contrast passes ileocecal valve
170
enema tip for BE should be inserted into rectum on
suspended expiration
171
if tech experiences resistance while inserting enema tip, the tech should
have radiologist insert tip using fluoro guidance
172
what sign is frequently seen w carcinoma of the colon?
napkin ring/apple core sign
173
LPO for BE shows which colic flexure?
R colic/hepatic flexure
174
the lat rectum (BE) demonstrates what filled w contrast?
recto-sigmoid region
175
if the pt is undergoing a double-contrast study, or just cannot be put in a recumbent lat pos, what should tech do instead?
ventral decubitis
176
how much do you rotate a pt for an AP Axial Obl butterfly for BE?
30-40º LPO
177
CR for AP Axial Obl Butterfly for BE?
30-40º cephalic to 2" inf. & 2" med. to R/upside ASIS
178
why perform an AP Axial Obl Butterfly?
to demonstrate elongated rectosigmoid segments, w less superimposition
179
what is the most diagnostic study for detecting possible diverticulosis?
double-contrast BE
180
when performing a double-contrast BE, what must be done to the kVp?
reduce to 90-100 kVp
181
if pt is having a mild adverse reaction to contrast, suffering from nausea, flushing, hyperventilation, & urticaria should be treated w
benadryl
182
2 types of contrast media
ionic & non-ionic
183
which contrast media is more expensive?
non-ionic
184
which contrast has low osmolality, less chance of reaction, & the inability to dissociate into 2 separate ions?
non-ionic contrast
185
which contrast agents may increase the severity of side effects?
ionic
186
what is the correct course of action when a pt experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes, & some metallic taste during an injection?
reassure pt, contin. injection/XR, while carefully observing pt for possibly more severe reactions
187
term for leakage of contrast media from a vein into surrounding tissue
extravasation
188
recommended treatment for extravasation?
warm towel over injection site
189
the rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system
bolus injection
190
moderate itching/sneezing, mild urticaria (hives) are
mild systemic reactions to contrast
191
some metallic taste in mouth & temp. hot flashes occur
in many pt's & is an expected outcome/side effect from the introduction of contrast media
192
how long is it recommended to withhold metformin (glucophage, diabetes medication) following a contrast media procedure?
48 hrs
193
primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast study is?
to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction
194
what is often given before an IVU to reduce risk of a contrast media reaction?
prednisone (and benadryl)
195
if a pt comes in for an IVU and the lab report indicates that a w/in normal range of creatinine and BUN levels, the tech should
proceed w study
196
what should the tech do if the pt experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast?
comfort pt; this is a common side effect
197
routine NT shoulder?
AP Int/Ext
198
which shoulder needs pt rotated 45-60º?
Scapula Y view
199
which XR puts greater tubercle in profile medially?
none
200
acromion located on?
scapula
201
clavicle articulates w?
sternum & scapula
202
humeral head articulates w
glenoid cavity of scapula
203
ant/post shoulder dislocations more common?
ant.
204
which shoulder rotation puts humeral epicondyles perp to IR?
AP Int
205
shoulder XR's are centered to which landmark?
1" inf coracoid process
206
which shoulder rotation provides a lat prox humerus?
AP Int
207
what is in profile on AP Int shoulder?
lesser tubercle (medially)
208
what is in profile on AP Ext shoulder?
greater tubercle (laterally)
209
what shoulder pos is done when pt has suspected shoulder fracture?
AP neutral
210
how much do you rotate pt for Grashey?
35-45º toward affected side
211
CR for post obl shoulder/Grashey?
perp scapulohumeral joint (2" inf & med from superolat border of shoulder)
212
which XR puts glenoid cavity in profile?
Grashey
213
which XR shows open scapulohumeral joint space?
Grashey/post obl shoulder
214
how much do you rotate a pt to get glenoid fossa in profile?
45º to affected side
215
2 pos/XRs for routine clavicle?
AP & AP 15º cephalic
216
arm pit aka
axilla
217
0º AP & AP Axial w 15-30º cephalic angle are ___________ clavicle XRs
routine/common
218
med. end of clavicle
sternal extrem.
219
pt enters ER w possible fracture of mid wing area of scapula. pt can stand. in addition to routine AP scapula w arm abducted, what should be done to show this area?
have pt drop affected arm behind them for lat scapula
220
pt enters ER w multiple injuries. dr. concerned about dislocation of prox humerus. pt cannot stand. what is best routine?
AP shoulder (neutral) & Neer method
221
pt enters ER w dislocated shoulder. tech attempts to pos. pt in transthoracic lat but unable to raise unaffected arm completely over head; tech should?
angle CR 10-15º cephalic
222
XR of ant obl scapular Y shows scapula slightly rotated; vertebral & axillary borders are not superimposed, axillary border is more lat than vertebral border; tech should?
increase rotation
223
pt comes in for treatment of arthritic R shoulder; pt can't abduct arm enough for axiolat of scapulohumeral joint. what other XR will best show scapulohumeral joint?
Scapula Y
224
pt enters ER w possible R AC joint separation; R clavicle and AC joint exams are ordered. clavicle shows sm linear fracture; tech should?
consult w dr. before continuing w AC joint study
225
what other XR can be performed if separation of AC joint is suspected?
AP 15º cephalic (Alexander method)
226
CR AP Axial clavicle?
15-30º cephalic to midclavicle
227
if AP Axial clavicle shows clavicle w/in mid aspect of lung apices, tech should
increase cephalic CR
228
what angle joins the med & lat borders of scapula?
inf angle
229
scapula articulates w?
clavicle & humerus
230
coracoid process is the most ____ part of scapula
ant
231
how should pt pos arm for AP scapula?
abduct 90º & supinate hand
232
what type of obl is a lat scapula Y?
ant obl (pt PA)
233
which landmarks are palpated for lat scapula Y?
sup scapula angle & AC joint
234
how many degrees do you rotate pt for lat scapula Y?
45-60º
235
CR for lat scapula Y?
perp to midvertebral border (or med border) of scapula
236
the scapular spine is _____ to IR in a lat scapula Y
perp
237
which XR provides a true lat of scapula & scapulohumeral joint?
lat scapula Y
238
SID for AC joints?
72"
239
CR for AC joints?
perp to 1" sup to jugular notch