Final exam review Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
What is the function of sebaceous glands?
A
to secrete oil to lubricate the skin
2
Q
Which example illustrates the skin’s heat regulation function?
A
sudoriferous glands excrete perspiration
3
Q
Wanda’s skin has recently been experiencing a significant amount of new wrinkles. What could explain these new wrinkles? Wanda’s skin has recently been experiencing a significant amount of new wrinkles. What could explain these new wrinkles?
A
Wanda has recently been working at an outdoor job that requires frequent exposure to very cold temperatures, which weakens collagen fibers.
4
Q
Water loss through perspiration is an example of which function of the skin?
A
excretion
5
Q
What is the underlying or inner layer of the skin?
A
dermis
6
Q
Which is a reasonable prediction of an outcome for a client who does not use a broad-spectrum sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 or higher?
A) The skin’s hydrolipidic film will break down and allow pathogens to penetrate the dry skin.
B) The client will be susceptible to Sensory Processing Disorder, causing a lack of tolerance to hot and cold sensations on the skin.
C) Collagen and elastin fibers will weaken, and the client’s skin will age prematurely.
D) Sebum on the epidermis will dry up, allowing for bacteria to penetrate the epidermis.
A
C) collagen and elastin fibers will weaken, and the client’s skin will age prematurely
7
Q
All of the following are skin functions EXCEPT ________.
A) heat regulation
B) sensation
C) absorption
D) add necessary body weight to maintain good health
A
D) add necessary body weight to maintain good health
8
Q
The medical branch of science that deals with the study of the skin, its functions, and diseases is ________.
A
dermatology
9
Q
Which sentence best describes the difference in the functions of pheomelanin and eumelanin in the skin?
A) A person with predominantly pheomelanin tends to have rosy skin, whereas a person with predominantly eumelanin tends to have cooler skin tones..
B) A person with predominantly pheomelanin will have skin with good form and strength, whereas a person with predominantly eumelanin will have skin with good elasticity and flexibility.
C) A person with predominantly pheomelanin will detoxify the skin well, whereas a person with predominantly eumelanin will have skin that is well lubricated and soft.
D) A person with predominantly pheomelanin will have good muscle stimulation, whereas a person with predominantly eumelanin will react quickly to sensory stimuli.
A
A) A person with predominantly pheomelanin tends to have rosy skin, whereas a person with predominantly eumelanin tends to have cooler skin tones.
pheomelanain is red toned while eumelanin is brown/ black toned which are cool tones
10
Q
The fibrous protein that gives skin its flexibility and helps skin regain its shape after being expanded is _______.
A
elastin
Think of the word “elastic.” It will stretch and snap back into place if it is elastic
11
Q
Nerve fibers that send messages to the central nervous system and brain to react to heat, cold, touch, pressure, and pain are called.
A
sensory nerve fibers
12
Q
Lately, a client has noticed body sweat much more than typical in the past. Which situation could explain this increased perspiration?
A) The client is using sunscreen with sun protection factor (SPF) of 30 or higher.
B) The client started using a new oil-based nail polish.
C) The client is taking a new prescription drug.
D) The client has allowed the hair to grow longer than the usual hairstyle.
A
C) The client is taking a new prescription drug.
Drugs can interfere with the sudoriferous glands (sweat-producing glands)
13
Q
The layer of skin that is seen and treated by the cosmetologist is the ________.
A
stratum corneum
14
Q
All of the following are reasons cosmetologists should understand skin structure and growth EXCEPT:
A) Providing excellent skin care for clients depends on knowing the skin’s underlying structure and needs.
B) Advising clients on how to improve their skin to be healthy-looking requires knowledge of skin structure and growth.
C) Diagnosing and providing treatment for abnormal skin conditions, illnesses, or diseases requires knowledge of skin structure and growth.
D) Advising clients on protecting, nourishing, and preserving skin health and beauty relies on understanding advances in technology, ingredients, and delivery systems.
A
C) Diagnosing and providing treatment for abnormal skin conditions, illnesses, or diseases requires knowledge of skin structure and growth.
Diagnosing and treatment is out of our scope of practice
15
Q
A broad-spectrum sunscreen is one that ______.
A
has been shown to protect against UVA and UVB radiation from the sun
16
Q
Which response describes a cause of wrinkles or sagging skin?
A) the sebaceous glands secreting too little sebum due to emotional stress
B) the barrier function allowing too much skin moisture to be lost by water evaporation
C) the inability of sudoriferous glands to eliminate waste products from the skin
D) collagen fibers lose their strength due to exposure to UV light
A
D) collagen fibers lose their strength due to exposure to UV light
17
Q
What is a fibrous protein that is the principal component of hair and nails?
A
keratin
18
Q
What is the function of elastin?
A
it gives the skin flexibility and elasticity
19
Q
What gives the body smoothness and contour while providing a protective cushion for the skin?
A
subcutaneous tissue
20
Q
Oil glands that are connected to hair follicles are also called ______.
A
sebaceous glands
Oil glands produce oil and sebum —>sebaceous
21
Q
Which two structures give the skin strength, form, and flexibility?
A
collagen and elastin
22
Q
______ helps protect sensitive cells from UV rays.
A
melanin
23
Q
All of the following describe a defense mechanism the skin uses to protect the body EXCEPT:
A)Hair follicles pull bacteria from the surface of the skin.
B) Sebum secreted by the sebaceous glands protects from external dangers, such as bacteria invasion.
C) The hydrolipidic film prevents the skin from drying out.
D) The pH of the acid mantle protects from pathogens
A
A) Hair follicles pull bacteria from the surface of the skin.
24
Q
Which layer of the epidermis forms unique fingerprints and footprints and is only located on the palms of the hands, the soles of the feet, and the digits?
A
stratum lucidum
25
Which sentence best defines melanin?
A) This fatty or oily substance lubricates the skin and preserves hair's softness.
B) This fibrous protein of cells is also the principal component of skin, hair, and nails.
C) These tiny grains of pigment are produced by melanocytes in the stratum germinativum.
D) This fibrous, connective tissue is made from protein that gives the skin form and strength.
C) These tiny grains of pigment are produced by melanocytes in the stratum germinativum.
26
The melanin produced by the body that is red to yellow in color is _____.
pheomelanin
27
Which nerve fibers in the skin stimulate muscles?
motor nerve fibers
28
Water is the number one nutrient of the body and composes what percentage of the body's skin?
50-70 percent
29
Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles?
motor
30
Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles?
motor nerves
31
If a cosmetologist holds a strand of hair with one hand while sliding the other hand's thumb and forefinger from the end of the strand to the client's scalp, what component of the hair is being analyzed?
porosity
32
Which portion of the hair root structure supplies nutrients so that the hair can grow?
the dermal papilla
33
Which type of hair has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing?
coarse hair
34
Which of the following conclusions can a cosmetologist make if a client expresses concern about not being able to grow the hair beyond shoulder length?
A) The client has primarily lanugo hair, which is shed more frequently than vellus hair or terminal hair.
B) The catagen phase of the client's hair growth occurs more quickly than that phase in other people's hair growth, so the client's hair stops growing.
C) The anagen phase of the client's hair growth is shorter than the anagen phase in other people's hair growth, so the client's hair will not grow any longer.
D) The client has a larger amount of vellus hair than terminal hair, so the client sheds most hair strands before they can grow long.
C) The anagen phase of the client's hair growth is shorter than the anagen phase in other people's hair growth, so the client's hair will not grow any longer.
the anagen phase is when the hair itself actually grows to the longest length it can
35
Why should cosmetologists understand hair and scalp properties?
Identifying hair growth cycles and the differences between common and uncommon hair loss will help when recommending hair loss treatments to the client.
36
In which phase of the hair growth cycle does the follicle canal shrink and detach from the dermal papilla?
catagen phase
37
Which layer of the hair shaft provides strength, elasticity, and color?
the cortex
38
What is the growth phase during which new hair is produced?
anagen
39
Which of the following can be a cause of dry hair and dry scalp?
inactive sebaceous glands
40
The hair, skin, nails, and glands are part of the _____ system.
integumentary
41
Each of the following is a layer of the hair shaft structure EXCEPT ______.
A) the hair fiber
B) the cortex
C) the medulla
D) the hair cuticle
the hair fiber
42
The ability of the hair to absorb moisture is hair _____.
porosity
43
A long chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds is called a _______ chain.
polypeptide
44
Which sentence best describes the medulla?
A) The medulla is the fibrous protein layer of the hair.
B) The medulla is the hair's pith or core.
C) The medulla is the hair's outermost layer.
D) The medulla is a cone-shaped elevation at the base of the hair bulb.
B) The medulla is the hair's pith or core
45
What are the major chemical elements that make up human hair?
carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur
COHNS
46
All of the following are living portions of hair that are below the skin surface EXCEPT __________.
A) the hair bulb
B) the arrector pili muscle
C) the dermal papilla
D) the hair follicle
the arrector pili muscle
47
Which component of hair is defined as the thickness or diameter of an individual hair strand?
texture
48
Each of the following is one of the main types of body hair EXCEPT ______.
A) anagen hair
B) terminal hair
C) lanugo hair
D) vellus hair
anagen hair
49
What is a procedure a cosmetologist could use to determine how quickly hair will process during chemical servicing?
Feel a strand of hair to determine the hair's texture.
50
What are the three growth cycles of human hair?
anagen, catagen, and telogen
51
The three different types of side bonds that link chains of amino acids together are _____.
hydrogen, salt, and disulfide
52
Which part of the living portion of the hair is defined as the structure in the skin or scalp that surrounds the hair root and anchors the hair in the skin?
the hair follicle
53
The measurement that describes the number of individual hair strands on 1 square inch of the scalp is hair _____.
density
54
Hair is approximately _____ percent protein.
90
55
What is the phase of the hair growth cycle in which the hair can shed?
telogen phase
56
How is a disulfide bond formed in human hair?
Sulfur atoms on neighboring cysteine amino acids within polypeptide chains in the hair join.
57
What are the two parts of a strand of human hair?
the root and the shaft
58
Which of the following is true about hair?
A) Scalp massages will increase hair growth.
B) Hair growth rate is determined by genetics.
C) Cutting hair makes it grow back faster and darker.
D) Gray hair is coarser than pigmented hair.
B) hair growth rate is determined by genetics
59
Which of the following is a situation in which a cosmetologist would allow the hair to cool before styling?
A) when hydrogen side bonds have been broken by the heat from a curling iron
B) when peptide bonds between amino acids are broken by a heat lamp during color processing
C) when salt side bonds are being formed by changes in pH during chemical servicing
D) when disulfide bonds are converted to lanthionine bonds during servicing with a flat iron
A) when hydrogen side bonds have been broken by the heat from a curling iron
60
What is the outermost layer of hair?
hair cuticle
61
Which statement best describes what may have happened to cause a client's hair to grow in a whorl pattern?
A) The strands of hair in the whorl are less elastic than the surrounding hair as a result of damage from a thermal styling tool.
B) The hair in the whorl has a raised cuticle, whereas the surrounding hair does not.
C) The strands of hair in the whorl are oily due to overactive sebaceous glands.
D) The strands of hair in the whorl are leaving the follicles at an angle different from the surrounding hairs.
D) The strands of hair in the whorl are leaving the follicles at an angle different from the surrounding hairs.
62
A cosmetologist is able to provide treatment for _________.
A) seborrheic dermatitis
B) scabies
C) folliculitis
D) trichoptilosis
D) trichoptilosis
split ends
63
What hair disorder is caused by loss of the hair's natural pigment?
canities
64
Which sentence best describes a client with the disorder monilethrix?
A) The client's hair is longer or thicker than usual
B) The client's hair is knotted and brittle
C) The client's hair has alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair throughout the length of the hair strand.
D) The client's hair has a beaded appearance due to narrowing of the hair shaft.
D) The client's hair has a beaded appearance due to narrowing of the hair shaft
65
What are indications that a client is infected with scabies?
The client complains of itchiness and a bumpy rash with blisters on the scalp.
66
What is the most appropriate process to distinguish pityriasis and pediculosis capitis?
Examine the scalp closely to determine whether the foreign matter is loose or attached to hair strands.
67
What is the medical term used to describe dandruff?
pityriasis
68
What is a scalp disorder characterized by dry, sulfur-yellow, cup-like crusts on the scalp?
tinea favosa
69
What is the technical term for beaded hair?
monilethrix
70
Which type of alopecia is defined as hair loss in round or irregularly shaped patches caused by the immune system attacking hair follicles?
alopecia areata
71
Trichoptilosis is the technical term for _____.
split ends
72
What term refers to an acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain?
furuncle
73
Which hair disorder causes terminal hair to grow on areas of a woman's body where terminal hair typically does not grow?
hirsuties
74
What is a condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft?
trichorrhexis nodosa
75
If a client's hair is brittle and there are circular-shaped lesions on the scalp with red spots at the opening of the hair follicles, the client is likely infected with ______.
streptococcus
76
What is a severe type of dandruff characterized by an accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum?
pityriasis steatoides
77
An example of a parasitic infection is ________.
pediculosis capitis
78
What is the cause of pityriasis?
fungal infection
79
The following are all causes of hair loss EXCEPT ______.
A) autoimmune disorders
B) pregnancy
C) extreme stress
D) insufficient diet
extreme stress
80
Why should cosmetologists understand hair and scalp disorders and diseases?
Cosmetologists can better recommend client hair loss treatments if they can identify the differences between common and irregular hair loss.
81
Which of the following statements is true about alopecia areata?
Alopecia areata most often begins in childhood.
82
The complete loss of all body hair is known as _____.
alopecia universalis
83
Each of the following hair disorders is characterized by brittle hair EXCEPT ______.
A) hirsuties
B) fragilitis crinium
C) monilethrix
D) trichorrhexis nodosa
A) hirsuties
this is when terminal hair grows in places that are not typical for women
84
Temporary hair loss experienced at the end of a pregnancy is called _____.
postpartum alopecia
85
Which treatment is recommended for a client with trichorrhexis nodosa?
softening the hair with conditioners
86
What is the technical term for brittle hair?
fragilitis crinium
87
The following are all true statements about congenital canities EXCEPT:
A) canities can be caused by narrowing of the hair shaft
B) canities can result from age and genetics
C) canities can be present at birth
D) canities can result from extreme stress
A) canities can be caused by narrowing of the hair shaft
88
What would result if a cosmetologist treated a client with trichoptilosis by conditioning and moisturizing the hair?
The hair would be softened, but the damage would not be repair
89
A client expresses frustration with continued thinning hair following a prolonged medical situation, during which the client did not receive adequate nutrition. On the advice of the healthcare provider, the client followed an improved nutrition diet, but after 2 months there has been no improvement in hair density. What advice should a cosmetologist give the client?
The client should continue the improved nutrition diet and wait for results as there has not yet been enough time for the hair follicles to regenerate.
90
Voluntary muscles (striated) are ________.
muscles that a person can control at will.
91
What happens during mitosis?
A cell reproduces by dividing into two identical cells
92
What is the function of the hyoid?
to support the tongue and its muscles
93
Which muscle causes wrinkles across the forehead?
frontalis
94
What is the recommended direction and location from exerting massage pressure?
insertion to origin
95
The broad muscle that extends from the pectoral and deltoid muscles to the side of the chin and is responsible for lowering the lower jaw and lip is called the _______.
platysma
96
How is anatomy different from physiology?
Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body, whereas physiology is the study of the activities of those structures.
97
The levator palpebrae superioris and the levator anguli oris are muscles of the _______.
face, nose, and mouth
98
Carry messages from sense organs to the brain and spinal cord, also know as afferent nerves.
sensory nerves
99
The division of the nervous system that controls voluntary muscle actions is the _______.
central nervous system
100
A collection of similar cells that perform a function is called a(n) _____.
tissue
101
What muscle action is controlled by the autonomic nervous system and controls body functions such as breathing and digestion?
involuntary muscles
102
A cosmetologist should have an understanding of the skeletal system because ________.
it helps protect the cosmetologist's own body by using proper body mechanics while working
103
A cosmetologist is designing a new eye makeup style for a client. Which bones will affect the appearance of the eye makeup that is applied?
the zygomatic bones and lacrimal bones
104
The small muscle located between the eyebrows below the frontalis that draws the eyebrow down and wrinkles the forehead vertically.
corrugator
105
Which description best defines a motor nerve?
motor nerves carry impulses from the brain to the muscles or glands.
106
One of the primary functions of the skeletal system is to ________.
help in the production of red and white blood cells
107
Which of the following types of tissue in the body controls as well as coordinates all functions of the body?
nerve tissue
108
Contains enzymes that help digest a break down other molecules from food in the cell.
cytoplasm
109
What is the relationship between organs and body systems?
An organ is a group of tissues that performs a specific function, whereas a body system is a group of organs that works together to perform functions.
110
Why should cosmetologsts have an understanding of anatomy and physiology?
Because working with the bones of the face and skull adds to flattering haircuts, hairstyles, and makeup applications.
111
Structures composed of specialized tissues that perform specific functions are called _____.
organs
112
What is the neck muscle that lowers and rotates the head originating at the clavicle and inserts at the temporal bone.
sternocleidomastoideus
113
Identify a true statement about origin, which is one of the three parts of a muscle.
A) It is anchored to the bone.
B) It is the movable part of the muscle anchored to the bone.
C) It is the middle part of the muscle.
D) It is attached farthest from the skeleton.
A) It is anchored to the bone.
114
_________ are two bones that form the sides and top of the skull’s cranium.
parietal bones
115
Which type of tissue binds and supports other body tissue?
connective tissue
116
The muscle at the tip of the chin that elevates the lower lip and raises and wrinkles the skin of the chin.
mentalis
117
Which part of the skeletal system has the function of protecting the brain?
cranium
118
The middle part of the muscle is called the ______.
belly
119
During an initial manicure consultation, a cosmetologist learns that a client is being treated by a healthcare provider for a condition that limits the ability of the nervous system to process sensory information. Which of the following is an example of a way the cosmetologist might change the planned services in response to this information?
The cosmetologist should be careful with hot water to avoid accidentally burning the client.
120
The basic units of all living things are _____.
cells
121
Which part of a cell controls the growth and reproduction of the cell?
nucleus
122
The largest and strongest bone of the face that forms the lower jaw.
mandible
123
Ring muscle of the eye socket that closes the eyelids and assists in pumping tears.
Orbicularis oculi
124
_________ bones, also called cheekbones or malar bones, form the prominence of the
Zygomatic
125
The bone that forms the back of the skull above the nape is the _____.
occipital
126
Understanding how nerves work will most likely help cosmetologists _________.
perform services such as massages, shampoos, and facial and nail services in a more
safe and proficient way.
127
What is the function of the cervical vertebrae?
to give support and structure to the neck
128
Which of the following statements about the muscular system is true?
It is affected by massages performed during cosmetology services.
129
How does epithelial tissue function in the body?
Epithelial tissue provides a covering that protects the body.
130
A(n) __________ charged ion is called an anion.
negatively
131
What is defined as anything that occupies space (volume) and has mass (weight)?
matter
132
Alkalis tend to __________ the hair.
swell
133
________ is the chemical reaction that combines a substance with oxygen to produce an oxide.
oxidation
134
What type of chemical reaction requires the absorption of energy or heat from an external source for the reaction to actually occur?
endothermic
135
H is the symbol for which element?
hydrogen
136
Which of the following is an example of a pure substance?
salt
137
__________ are examples of emulsions used in beauty services.
facial creams
138
Rusting iron and burning wood are examples of a change in what type of properties?
chemical
139
Which of the following allows oil and water to mix or emulsify by reducing surface tension?
surfactant
140
The tail of a surfactant molecule is __________, or oil loving.
lipphilic
141
Volatile organic compounds contain __________ and evaporate very easily.
carbon
142
Among the following choices, acids would MOST likely be used to __________.
A) swell the hair
B) soften calloused skin
C) exfoliate the skin
D) raise the pH of products
C) exfoliate the skin
143
The pH scale is _________.
logarithmic
144
A __________ is a stable, uniform mixture of two of more mixable substances that is made by dissolving a solid, liquid, or gaseous substance in another substance.
solution
145
An example of a water-in-oil emulsion is _________.
cold cream
146
The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) contains _________ categories of information.
16
147
A reducing agent __________.
adds hydrogen to a chemical compound
148
If you were the owner of the local spa, why would it be so important that you insist that for every chemical used there is an SDS available?
Because it is a requirement of OSHA
149
__________, also known as alkalis, are compounds of hydrogen, a metal, and oxygen.
bases
150
As the basic unit of matter, __________ cannot be divided into simpler substances by ordinary chemical means.
atoms
151
An example of an elemental molecule is ___________.
atmospheric oxygen
152
What does a pH below 7 indicate?
an acidic solution
153
The location you use for mixing chemicals must be __________.
well ventilated
154
When oxygen is chemically combined with a substance, the substance is __________.
oxidized
155
What is the average pH for hair and skin?
5
156
Solutions that do not contain water, such as alcohol or oil, do not have ___________.
pH
157
What type of chemical reaction balances pH and results in the production of water and a salt?
acid-alkali neutralization
158
The are 118 different elements known to science today. How many of these are naturally occurring on Earth?
98
159
An unstable physical mixture of undissolved particles in a liquid, such as calamine lotion, is a:`
suspension
160
Water-in-oil emulsions feel __________ than oil-in-water emulsions.
greasier
161
Which of the following are the basic building blocks of all matter?
atoms
162
The letters pH denote __________, which is the relative degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance.
potential hydrogen
163
An example of a physical change is __________.
ice melting to water
164
Beauty and wellness professionals should study and have a thorough understanding of chemistry because _________.
every product used in the beauty and wellness industry contains some type of chemical
165
Oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously and are referred to as a(n) __________ reaction.
redox
166
As part of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) categories, first-aid measures include important symptoms/effects, as well as ___________.
first aid instructions
167
__________ refers to either the loss of oxygen or the addition of hydrogen.
reduction
168
On a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), which category would include risks of exposure, related symptoms, and acute and chronic effects?
toxicological information
169
The pH scale measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in acidic and alkaline __________ solutions.
water-based
170
When performing a hand, nail, and skin analysis before a nail service, you need to observe the following EXCEPT__________.
the cleanliness of the skin
171
Nail services are governed under ________________.
cosmetology
172
Which nail disorder is associated with damaged skin around the nail plate that becomes split or torn?
hangnails
173
What nail disorder is associated with nail surface pitting, roughness, onycholysis, and bed discolorations?
nail psoriasis
174
Which of the following does not cause a nail disorder?
hygiene
175
Which nail disorder is associated with whitish spots of discoloration of the nails and is usually caused by minor injury to the nail matrix?
leukonychia
176
Which of the following nail disorders show signs of depressions running across the width of the nail plate due to a slowing production of matrix cells, which causes the nail plate to grow thinner and is usually the result of serious illness or injury?
Beau's lines
177
Severe nail inflammations in which a lump of red tissue grows up from the nail bed to the nail plate is known as ____________________.
pyogenic granuloma
178
What nail disorder is associated with a dramatically increased nail curvature of the free edge, where it might curl in upon itself?
pincer nail
179
Which nail disorder is associated with significant darkening of the fingernails or toenails caused by increased pigment cells?
melanonychia
180
Which of the following is a nail disease associated with the separation of the nail plate and bed due to injury or allergic reactions?
onycholysis
181
Jessica notices that a few toes on her client's feet seem to have a fungal infection. Jessica suggests that the client start a regimen of regular foot soaks as well as using tea tree oil, and that if she does this, she doesn't need to see a podiatrist. Jessica's manager overhears this conversation and is unhappy with Jessica's response. Why?
cosmetologists should not provide any medical advice
182
Which of the following nail disorders displays as dark purplish spots usually due to a small injury to the nail bed?
bruised nail bed
183
Proper cleaning and disinfecting ____________________ the risk of spreading nail infections between clients.
reduces
184
Which of the following is a nail disease associated with bacterial inflammation of the tissues around the nail plate, causing pus, swelling, and redness?
paronychia
185
Which of the following nail diseases is associated with fungal infections of the feet, or athlete's foot?
tinea pedis
186
Why is it important to understand nail disorders and diseases?
You must be able to identify conditions and determine if they can be treated in the salon
187
Which of the following nail diseases is associated with rapidly growing and contagious bacteria that can cause an infection, and in early stages is seen as a yellow-green spot?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
188
What nail disorder is associated with damage to the capillaries under the nail?
splinter hemorrhage
189
Which of the following nail disorders shows as a noticeably thin, white nail plate that is more flexible than normal and is usually caused by improper diet, heredity, internal disease, medication, or overfiling with an abrasive?
eggshell nail
190
People whose occupations require regularly placing their hands in ___________________ more readily develop nail infections.
harsh cleaning solutions
191
___________ is the irregular stretching of the eponychium or hyponychium around the nail plate.
nail pterygium
192
_________________ is also known as athlete's foot.
tinea pedis
193
The scope of practice for cosmetologists and nail technicians can be found in state cosmetology laws or statues under ________________.
definitions
194
Which nail disorder is associated with visible redness, pain, swelling, broken skin, or pus?
infected finger
195
Which of the following is used to enhance the appearance of an individual?
A) drugs
B) medical devices
C) medical practives
D) beauty services
D) beauty services
196
Which type of glove is recommended for cosmetologists?
nitrile
197
Which of the following nail disorders shows symptoms of the nail turning a variety of colors, which may indicate surface staining, a systemic disorder, or poor blood circulation?
discolored nail
