final exam-Table 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 important diagnostic tests for anemia?

A

Reticulocyte count, Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a high retic count with high bilirubin indicate?

A

Bone marrow is working!

Most likely d/t destruction or loss of RBCs (hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(acute/chronic) anemias are well tolerated in children

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anemic disorder characterized by bone marrow aplasia

A

Diamond Blackfan anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Your patient presents with anemia + Petechiae. You suspect:

A

Leukemia or HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which lab would show you the presence of spherocytes?

A

Peripheral blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does Fe deficiency anemia first appear?

A

After the first 4-5 mo of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you check if a pt presents with neutropenia or thrombocytopenia?

A

Bone marrow fxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the iron studies for Fe Deficient anemia

A
Serum ferritin (low)
Serum iron (low)
Total iron binding capacity (inc)
Transferrin saturation  (low)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

B-12 deficiency is a common finding in this GI disorder

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Smooth beefy red tongue may indicate

A

B-12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fanconi and Diamond-Blackfan anemias are ____ forms of normocytic anemia

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ can cause acquired normocytic anemia

A

Parvo B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is TAR and what condition is it found in?

A

Thrombocytopenia with absent radius. Fanconi anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spherocytosis is inherited this way

A

Autosomal Dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ anemias are characterized by Anemia, Jaundice, Splenomegaly

A

Hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Longstanding spherocytosis and sickle cell disease can cause _____

A

Gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common inherited enzyme defect?

A

G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

G6PD commonly presents with this finding

A

Hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This hemoglobinopathy is found in carriers only

A

Thalassemia trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thalassemia minor is a type of _____ thalassemia

A

Beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hemophilias, vitamin K deficiency, and DIC are all disorders of _____

A

Coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intrinsic clotting pathway is measured by a

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Extrinsic pathway measured with a

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A pt who is bleeding into their joints should be worked up for
Hemophilia
26
More common mechanism of thrombocytopenia
Increased consumption/ breakdown of RBCs
27
____ is a type of thrombocytopenia associated with severe illness or shock
DIC
28
Most common bleeding disorder of CHILDhood
ITP
29
ITP usually shows up after____
A viral infection
30
Treatment for ITP includes
``` Steroids IV Ig (in severe cases) ```
31
Factor ___- and Von Willebrand work together
VIII
32
_____ is the most common INHERITED bleeding disorder among Caucasians (though it can be acquired…)
Von Willebrand disease
33
VW disease can be treated with _________, which releases vWF from endothelial stores
Desmopressin
34
FFP contains____
All coag factors
35
If you have abnormal PT/PTT, you would give
FFP
36
If you have normal PT/PTT values, you would give
Cryoprecipitate
37
Clotting problems are (more/less) common in kids than adults
Less
38
First labs for a CA workup
CBC w/ diff | Peripheral blood smear
39
ALL occurs most commonly in kids aged _____-______
2-10 (peak at 4)
40
Most common CA treatment for kids
Chemo
41
Philadelphia chromosome is associated with ____
CML | Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
42
Pt presents with firm, non-tender lymph node and hx cough. What do you order?
CBC CXR Lymph biopsy
43
Hip dysplasia (is/is not) a disease of dislocation
Is NOT
44
____ is the abnormal relationship between the proximal femur and acetabulum
Hip Dysplasia
45
Hip dysplasia can be diagnosed using these techniques
Barlow’s and Ortolani’s maneuvers
46
______ are indicative (not diagnostic) of hip dysplasia, occurring in up to 40% of cases
Asymmetric Skin folds
47
Radial head subluxation is also known as
Nursemaid’s Elbow
48
Typical posture associated with radial head subluxation
“my arm” posture
49
Torus fractures are also known as
Buckle fracture
50
Torus fractures affect these bones
Radius/ulnar
51
___ is an oblique fracture of the distal tibia without a fibula fracture
Toddler’s Fracture
52
Salter Harris classification describes ______ fractures
Epiphyseal
53
A type _____ S-H fracture through a portion of the physis and epiphysis into the joint that may result in complication because of intra-articular component and because of disruption of the growing or hypertrophic zone of the physis.
Type III
54
A type ____ S-H fracture presents as a crush injury to the physis with a poor functional prognosis
Type V
55
This type of S-H fracture has joint involvement
Type III
56
Most common bone tumor in children (benign)
Osteochondroma
57
Most common malignant bone tumor in children
Osteosarcoma
58
Anterior thigh and knee pain may be presentations of a ___ problem
Hip
59
Joint pain can be an early presentation of ___-
Crohns Disease
60
____ is the inflammation at the insertion of a ligament to a bone
Enthesitis
61
You order an ANA on your patient. It comes back positive. What should be on your differential?
Lupus
62
Most common site of pauciarticular arthritis
Knee
63
___ often presents with a cyclic fever, salmon pink macular rash, and HSM
Systemic Form of JRA
64
The 3 P’s of systemic JRA
Polyserositis Pleuritis Pericarditis
65
First lab to order for suspected SLE
ANA
66
Mainstay treatment for SLE
Steroids - methylprednisolone/ prednisone - hydroxychloroquin - NSAIDs
67
Most common vasculitis in childhood
Henoch Schonelien Purpura
68
Most likely cause of HA in kids
Migraine or tension HA
69
Which of the following is NOT a test for MONO
CBC w/ diff Antibodies IGM Viral swab
70
2yo w/ fever, dyspnea, sniffing dog position. | Swelling stops at midline
GROUP A STREP | retropharyngeal abscess
71
RSV
Synagis is given as prophylaxis
72
9 y/o Suspected URI, x-ray shows hyperinflation
Albuterol trial
73
5 y/o amox w/ rash (erythema multiforme)
Oral antihistamines