Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
How would you work up someone with a primary immunodeficiency?
A
CBC w/ differential
Swab/sputum culture
Respiratory Panel
Blood, urine, CSF cultures
2
Q
Your pt is a 4yo presenting with fever, lethargy, won’t eat, barely drinking for the past 2 days. No cough. Negative PMH. What do you suspect and how do you work it up?
A
Secondary Immune issue
CBC w/ differential
CMP (electrolytes)
3
Q
Primary immunodeficiencies can be characterized by their defect:
(4 types)
A
Cellular immunity (T-cells)
Humoral immunity (B cells)
Phagocytes
Complement
4
Q
Many primary immunodeficiencies are inherited these 2 ways
A
X linked
Autosomal recessive
5
Q
Consider Primary immunodeficiency in children with SPUR:
A
Severe, Prolonged, Unusual, Recurrent infections
6
Q
SCID(Severe combined immunodeficiency) and Wiskott-Aldrich(Aldrich syndrome) and DiGeorge are all caused by___ defects
A
T-cell
7
Q
_____ is characterized by eczema and thrombocytopenia
A
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
8
Q
_____ defects usually aren’t seen until after 6 mo due to remaining maternal immunoglobulins.
A
B-cell
9
Q
Aggamaglobulinemia, CVID, Hyper IgM syndrome are all caused by:
A
B cell deficiency
10
Q
T/F: immunizations are essential for kids with B cell deficiencies
A
False. Can’t make memory cells anyways
11
Q
Most common cause of stridor in infants
A
Laryngomalacia
12
Q
Most common cause of drug-induced cutaneous reactions (as in SJS or TEN)
A
Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, and Bactrim
13
Q
____ is when neutrophils fail to adhere to vascular endothelium
A
Leukocyte adhesion defect
14
Q
____ is when there is a defect in intracellular killing. Lack of superoxidase after phagocytosis.
A
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
15
Q
Chronic granulomatous disease is inherited this way
A
x-linked recessive
16
Q
How do you test the complement pathway function?
A
CH50
17
Q
What type of immune mediated pathway is involved in hemolytic anemia
A
Type II
18
Q
Serum sickness, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, and post-strep. Glomerulonephritis are all cause by type ____ reactions
A
Type III
19
Q
Infants with eczema have lesions on _______ surfaces
A
Facial
20
Q
Older children and with eczema have lichenification on ____ surfaces
A
Flexural
21
Q
Asthma tests include
A
Lung fxn, peak flow, CXR, ABGs, eosinophil count
22
Q
Causes of cough in the first months of life = CRADLE
A
CF RTI Aspiration Dyskinetic cilia Lung malformation Edema
23
Q
In the Asthma Action Plan:
Green = ______% of the peak expiratory flow rate
Yellow = ______
Red = ____
A
Green = 80-100% Yellow = 50-80% Red = below 50%
24
Q
This classification of asthma requires no daily medications
A
Mild intermittent
25
This classification of asthma has sx > 2days/week or >2 nights/mo
Mild persistent
26
This classification of asthma requires daily low-dose inhaled ICS and a LABA
Moderate persistent
27
This classification of asthma is characterized by continual daytime sx and frequent sx at night
Severe persistent
28
This lab is most important for determining status asthmaticus
ABGs (hypoxia)
29
The most common organism to cause Otits media
S. pneumoniae
30
The most common organism to cause Sinusitis
S. pneumoniae
31
The most common organism to cause Croup
Parainfluenza virus
32
The most common organism to cause whooping cough
Bordetella pertussis
33
The most common organism to cause bronchitis
Parainfluenza virus
34
The most common organism to cause bronchiolitis
RSV
35
The most common organism to cause Pharyngitis
Adenovirus
36
______ include apnea, color change, decreased muscle tone, emesis, choking, and gagging
ALTE (Apparent life threatening Events in Infancy)
37
The _____ sign on x-ray is characteristic of croup
Steeple sign
38
____ is the most common cause of bacterial tracheitis (croup)
Staph aureus
39
This respiratory condition is considered an emergency d/t sudden onset of inspiratory stridor. Lateral neck x-rays show a “thumb sign”
Epiglottitis
40
H influenza type B is the most common bacterial cause of
Epiglottitis
41
___ is the leading cause of hospitalization in infants
Bronchiolitis
42
Bronchiolitis is characterized by cough, coryza, rhinorrhea. And is caused by ____
RSV
43
Bronchiolitis is diagnosed via
Viral swab
44
___ is the most common type of pneumonia in children
Viral
45
In bacterial pneumonia, ____ is the most common organism
Strep pneumoniae
46
___ is the drug of choice for treating bacterial pneumonia
Amox
47
Drug of choice for pertussis:
Erythromycin
48
____ is the term for elevation of part or all of the diaphragm and can be either congenital or acquired
Eventration
49
Horner syndrome is associated with this pupil characteristic
Anisocoria
50
____ is inflammation of the lid margins associated with conjunctivitis
Blepharitis
51
Treatment for blepharitis includes__ and ___ which are applied____
Local steroid & abx ointment
| Applied at night
52
What organism is typically responsible for Hordeolum or chalazion?
Staph aureus
53
Adenovirus is the most common cause of viral ________
Conjunctivitis
54
A tender pre-auricular lymph node can be a sign of _____
Viral conjunctivitis
55
This ophthalmic condition could lead to permanent eye damage unless treated immediately with erythromycin
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
56
____ is inflammation of the cornea, and can be caused by HSV
Keratitis
57
____ is characterized by cobblestone papillae on tarsal conjunctiva
Allergic conjunctivitis
58
____ is a decrease in the child’s vision that can happen even when there is no problem with the structure of the eye
Amblyopia
59
Strabismus may be associated with cranial nerve # ____ involvement
CN 3 palsy
60
Patients with ____ will have pain upon traction of the pinna or tragus
Otitis Externa
61
____ is the most common organism causing swimmer’s ear
Pseudomonas
62
Topical _____ is used to treat otitis externa
Cipro HC
63
Your 14 mo old pt presents with a beefy red bulging TM. You suspect
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
64
The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in children
Otitis media
65
Most common pathogen in AOM
Strep pneumoniae
66
____ is considered 1st line therapy for AOM
Amoxicillin
67
____ is a complication of AOM that causes white plaques on TM
Tympanosclerosis
68
Mastoiditis is a rare complication of ____
AOM
69
___ is the most common cause of viral rhinitis
Rhinovirus
70
Viral rhinitis may progress to ___ after 10-14 days
Sinusitis
71
Sinusitis in peds is usually bacterial, and is usually caused by
Strep pneumoniae
72
_____ is the most common complication of sinusitis
Orbital Cellulitis
73
The 2 bacterial pathogens that play the largest role in acute otitis media are:
H. influenza
| Strep pneumoniae
74
Pt presents with mouth ulcers, fever, and cervical adenopathy. You suspect:
HSV
75
Treatment for thrush includes
Nystatin Oral
76
Up to 70% of pharyngitis cases are (viral/bacterial/fungal)
Viral
77
You are treating your patient with pharyngitis with Penicillin + Amoxicillin and they develop a rash. You order a CBC to see what’s going on. You get the labs back on your patient and it shows an increase of atypical lymphocytosis. What do you suspect?
Mono
Epstein Barr Virus
78
Herpangina, which is caused by ____, presents with ulcers w/ halo on anterior pillars, soft palate, and uvula.
Coxsackie virus
79
Your patient presents with an acute onset of beefy red throat, tonsillar exudates, and tender cervical lymph nodes. You suspect
Bacterial pharyngitis
| Strep throat
80
____ presents with a sandpaper rash over the groin and torso
Scarlet fever
81
____ is the gold standard for diagnosing bacterial pharyngitis
Throat culture
| Or rapid antigen test
82
Peritonsillar abscesses are also known as
Quinsy
83
_____ is considered a surgical emergency. Hospitalization with IV PCN or clindamycin is indicated in these patients who present with dysphoria, drooling, dyspnea, and neck hyperextension.
Retropharyngeal abscess
84
____ occurs in preschool children, is caused by beta-hemolytic strep, and presents with red, tender swollen lymph nodes and a high fever
Acute Cervical Adenitis
85
___ and ___ are severe complications of strep and staph infections
Rheumatic Fever
| Acute Glomerulonephritis
86
Acute glomerulonephritis presents with ____ colored urine d/t gross hematuria
Tea or cola colored
87
What is the key to diagnosis for endocarditis?
Blood cultures
88
You must have 2 major and 1 minor of the ____ criteria to diagnose Endocarditis
Duke
89
The most commonly identified bacterial infection in kids under 3 is:
UTI
90
___ is a fever lasting > 14 days without an identified etiology
FUO (Fever of unknown origin)
91
Your 2 ½ mo old patient presents with a fever, but otherwise looks generally well. How do you manage this patient’s treatment?
Outpatient
| only admit if looks ill
92
The maculopapular rash that accompanies Rubella is (confluent/non-conlfuent)
NOT confluent
93
A child with roseola infantum needs to be monitored for ________
Febrile seizures (30%)
94
Koplicks Spots are found in this childhood illness
Measles
95
Erythema Infectiosum, caused by the Parvo B19 virus, begins with this derm finding:
Red “slapped” cheeks
96
5th disease can cause ___ in pregnant women
Hydrops fetalis
97
_____ is the most common cause of diarrhea in the winter months
Rotavirus
98
Your patient presents with diarrhea along with systemic symptoms. You suspect: _____ and treat with:_____
Bacteremia
| Abx + rehydration
99
Your patient experiences focal pain, warmth, and swelling of their femur. This condition, called ______, is usually caused by staph a.
Osteomyelitis
100
Septic arthritis is most commonly caused by____
Staph aureus
101
The most common virus causing meningitis is ____
Enterovirus
102
Your 6mo old patient presents w/ a blackened dry umbilical stump. This is weird. What do you suspect?
Leukocyte Adhesion Defect
| LAD
103
Rapid onset of bacterial meningitis is usually due to:_____
Strep pneumo and
| N. meningitits
104
Infection with Neisseria meningitidis results in these lesions ______
Non-blanching Petechiae
| Or purpuric rash
105
___ are the principal cause of infectious encephalitis. It can be diagnosed using ___ on the CSF.
Viruses (arboviruses)
| PCR
106
A ____ is
Macule
107
A ____ is >0.5 cm and contains clear fluid
Bulla
108
___and ____ are >0.5 cm and palpable
Nodules and plaques
109
A patch is __ 0.5 cm and flat
> (greater than)
110
A vesicle is
Filled with clear fluid
111
A ____ is filled with purulent fluid and can vary in size
Pustule
112
A wheal is an ________ primary lesion
Edematous
113
____ are secondary lesions composed of compact keratin flakes
Scales
114
____consist of dried serum, blood, or pus
Crusts
115
Potassium hydroxide examination is used for _____ diagnosis
Fungi and dermatophytes
116
Tzanck tests are used to test for ______
Herpes virus/ zoster
117
Use wood light examination to test for ____
Tinea versicolor
118
___ is a disorder of the stratum corneum resulting in fish-like scales
Ichthyosis
119
A collodion baby has a severe form of this skin condition:
Ichthyosis
120
___presents with skin fragility, blistering, frequent skin infections, & mouth erosions.
Epidermolysis Bullosa
121
___ is a pruritic vesicular rash of the hands and feet that you should NOT treat with emollients.
Dyshidrotic eczema
122
Excessive moisture and skin maceration leads to inflammation and __
Intertrigo
123
Cradle cap and dandruff are both greasy yellow scales caused by
Seborrheic Dermatitis
124
Giant birthmarks that can have hairs and need to be monitored for color changes. May require removal.
Congenital Melanocytic Nevi
125
You should worry about _____ when your patient has more than 6 café au lait spots greater than 0.5 cm.
Neurofibromatosis
126
Port wine stains, nevus simplex, and sturge weber syndrome are all _______ birthmarks
Vascular
127
_____ may be palpable with a bluish hue at the skin surface. Cherry or strawberry-like
Hemangioma
128
Guttate psoriasis can follow a ______ infection
Strep
129
This lesion follows a Christmas tree pattern
Pityriasis Rosea
130
____ has a “honey colored crust” with a red base
Impetigo
131
Bullous impetigo is treated with _______
Systemic ABX
132
Penicillin G is used to treat _____, which is a rapidly spreading warm macular erythema
Erysipelas
133
If your patient presents with streaking cellulitis, it is probably caused by ____
Strep
134
Erythema chronicum migrans is a lesion found in ______ disease
Lyme disease
135
DO NOT use –azole meds in the treatment of ______
Candida
136
____ present as pearly papules up to 1 cm in size
Molluscum Contagiosum
137
Permethrin and Lindane are used to treat this diffuse popular rash that presents with intense pruritus
Scabies
138
Erythema Nodosum is characterized by tender nodules over_____
Shins & legs
139
HSV is the most common cause of this rash in peds
Erythema multiforme
140
Erythema multiforme covers ______ % of the body
141
SJS rash covers _____ % of the body
10-30%
142
___ covers >30% of the body and is more often caused by a drug rxn
TEN (toxic epidermal necrolysis)
143
(EM/ SJS/ TEN) usually does not involve mouth ulcerations
EM
144
How do you differentiate TEN from staph scalded skin?
Skin biopsy
145
Term for head lice
Pediculosis capitis
146
____ are painless, raised lesions which may have unknown duration
Warts
147
Tinea pedis is very uncommon in children. You should probably suspect ___ instead.
eczema
148
Griseofulvin is used to treat this fungal infection
Tinea capitis
149
Ichthyosis and epidermolysis bullosa are _____ disorders
Inherited
150
Acne is a ____ disorder
Sebum
151
Skin scrapings help test for ___
Scabies
152
Culture from an NP swab is essential for the diagnosis of this chronic cough
Pertussis
153
Septic arthritis is treated using____
Arthrocentesis
154
Treatment of status asthmaticus includes
Humidified O2 and a B2 ag.
155
Mono is diagnosed using this lab test
CBC
156
Viral encephalopathy is diagnosed using:
PCR on CSF
157
The most essential lab value for evaluating status asthmaticus is____
ABGs
158
Dacrocystitis, sinusitis, and AOM are all treated using
Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg
159
Strep throat is treated with
Pen G
160
Keratits and erythema multiforme are both caused by:
HSV
161
Your pt is a 4yo presenting with fever, lethargy, won’t eat, barely drinking for the past 2 days. No cough. Negative PMH. What do you suspect and how do you work it up?
Secondary Immune issue
CBC w/ differential
CMP (electrolytes)
162
Primary immunodeficiencies can be characterized by their defect:
(4 types)
Cellular immunity (T-cells)
Humoral immunity (B cells)
Phagocytes
Complement
163
Many primary immunodeficiencies are inherited these 2 ways
X linked
| Autosomal recessive
164
Consider Primary immunodeficiency in children with SPUR:
Severe, Prolonged, Unusual, Recurrent infections
165
SCID and Wiskott-Aldrich and DiGeorge are all caused by___ defects
T-cell
166
_____ is characterized by eczema and thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
167
_____ defects usually aren’t seen until after 6 mo due to remaining maternal immunoglobulins.
B-cell
168
Aggamaglobulinemia, CVID, Hyper IgM syndrome are all caused by:
B cell deficiency
169
T/F: immunizations are essential for kids with B cell deficiencies
False. Can’t make memory cells anyways
170
Most common cause of stridor in infants
Laryngomalacia
171
Most common cause of drug-induced cutaneous reactions (as in SJS or TEN)
Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, and Bactrim
172
____ is when neutrophils fail to adhere to vascular endothelium
Leukocyte adhesion defect
173
____ is when there is a defect in intracellular killing. Lack of superoxidase after phagocytosis.
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
174
Chronic granulomatous disease is inherited this way
x-linked recessive
175
How do you test the complement pathway function?
CH50
176
What type of immune mediated pathway is involved in hemolytic anemia
Type II
177
Serum sickness, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, and post-strep. Glomerulonephritis are all cause by type ____ reactions
Type III
178
Infants with eczema have lesions on _______ surfaces
Facial
179
Older children and with eczema have lichenification on ____ surfaces
Flexural
180
Asthma tests include
Lung fxn, peak flow, CXR, ABGs, eosinophil count
181
Causes of cough in the first months of life = CRADLE
```
CF
RTI
Aspiration
Dyskinetic cilia
Lung malformation
Edema
```
182
In the Asthma Action Plan:
Green = ______% of the peak expiratory flow rate
Yellow = ______
Red = ____
```
Green = 80-100%
Yellow = 50-80%
Red = below 50%
```
183
This classification of asthma requires no daily medications
Mild intermittent
184
This classification of asthma has sx > 2days/week or >2 nights/mo
Mild persistent
185
This classification of asthma requires daily low-dose inhaled ICS and a LABA
Moderate persistent
186
This classification of asthma is characterized by continual daytime sx and frequent sx at night
Severe persistent
187
This lab is most important for determining status asthmaticus
ABGs (hypoxia)
188
The most common organism to cause Otits media
S. pneumoniae
189
The most common organism to cause Sinusitis
S. pneumoniae
190
The most common organism to cause Croup
Parainfluenza virus
191
The most common organism to cause whooping cough
Bordetella pertussis
192
The most common organism to cause bronchitis
Parainfluenza virus
193
The most common organism to cause bronchiolitis
RSV
194
The most common organism to cause Pharyngitis
Adenovirus
195
______ include apnea, color change, decreased muscle tone, emesis, choking, and gagging
ALTE (Apparent life threatening Events in Infancy)
196
The _____ sign on x-ray is characteristic of croup
Steeple sign
197
____ is the most common cause of bacterial tracheitis (croup)
Staph aureus
198
This respiratory condition is considered an emergency d/t sudden onset of inspiratory stridor. Lateral neck x-rays show a “thumb sign”
Epiglottitis
199
H influenza type B is the most common bacterial cause of
Epiglottitis
200
___ is the leading cause of hospitalization in infants
Bronchiolitis
201
Bronchiolitis is characterized by cough, coryza, rhinorrhea. And is caused by ____
RSV
202
Bronchiolitis is diagnosed via
Viral swab
203
___ is the most common type of pneumonia in children
Viral
204
In bacterial pneumonia, ____ is the most common organism
Strep pneumoniae
205
___ is the drug of choice for treating bacterial pneumonia
Amox
206
Drug of choice for pertussis:
Erythromycin
207
____ is the term for elevation of part or all of the diaphragm and can be either congenital or acquired
Eventration
208
Horner syndrome is associated with this pupil characteristic
Anisocoria
209
____ is inflammation of the lid margins associated with conjunctivitis
Blepharitis
210
Treatment for blepharitis includes__ and ___ which are applied____
Local steroid & abx ointment
| Applied at night
211
What organism is typically responsible for Hordeolum or chalazion?
Staph aureus
212
Adenovirus is the most common cause of viral ________
Conjunctivitis
213
A tender pre-auricular lymph node can be a sign of _____
Viral conjunctivitis
214
This ophthalmic condition could lead to permanent eye damage unless treated immediately with erythromycin
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
215
____ is inflammation of the cornea, and can be caused by HSV
Keratitis
216
____ is characterized by cobblestone papillae on tarsal conjunctiva
Allergic conjunctivitis
217
____ is a decrease in the child’s vision that can happen even when there is no problem with the structure of the eye
Amblyopia
218
Strabismus may be associated with cranial nerve # ____ involvement
CN 3 palsy
219
Patients with ____ will have pain upon traction of the pinna or tragus
Otitis Externa
220
____ is the most common organism causing swimmer’s ear
Pseudomonas
221
Topical _____ is used to treat otitis externa
Cipro HC
222
Your 14 mo old pt presents with a beefy red bulging TM. You suspect
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
223
HBIG provides _____ immunity
Passive
224
The ABR (or BAER) test screens for ______ problems
Hearing
225
____ reduces the negative impact of an already established disease
Tertiary prevention
226
____focuses on early detection and screening
Secondary prevention
227
_____ avoids the development of disease
Primary prevention
228
Asthma, otitis media w/effusion, & allergies are common ____ diseases
Chronic
229
What measurements are low in a Type II growth deficiency?
Height and weight
230
What are the characteristics of a Type I growth deficiency?
FOC & ht OK, wt low
231
Development occurs in a ____-_____ direction physically
Cephalo-caudal
232
The most common nutritional deficiency in kiddos:
Iron
233
____ vaccines include flu, cholera, plague, polio, Hep A
Killed
234
____ vaccines include yellow fever, measles, rubella, mumps
Attenuated
235
____ vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria
Toxoid
236
____ vaccines include Hep B, HPV
Protein-Subunit
237
____ vaccines include H. influenza
Conjugate
238
Contraindications to Immz?
Immunodeficiency
Allergy
Hypersensitivity
239
Leading cause of injury related deaths in the home:
Burns
240
2nd leading cause of injury related deaths in children:
Drowning
241
What is the rule of 3’s?
3hrs/3days/3weeks
242
This sleeping problem happens during non-REM sleep
Night terrors
243
This sleep problem occurs during REM sleep
Nightmares
244
____ is characterized by “incontinence beyond maturity”
Enuresis
245
This is the most common urologic disorder in pediatrics
Enuresis
246
____ is the regular voluntary passage of feces other than in the toilet after 4 years of age.
Encoperesis
247
It could take 6-24 months of behavioral therapy and laxative use to control _____
Constipation in kids
248
A child with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura makes antibodies against:
Blood vessels
249
Abusive head trauma is often correlated to this finding:
Subdural Hemorrhage
250
High velocity head injuries often result in:
Retinal hemorrhages
251
The most common feature of emotional neglect is
Absent normal parent-child attachment
252
_____ is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity from physical abuse
Abusive head trauma
253
Corner or bucket handle fractures are across the ______
Metaphysis
254
This many fractures ____ in an infant suggests abuse.
ANY fracture!!!
255
Birth trauma, prematurity, NM disease, OI and congenital osteomyelitis are all ________ causes of fractures
Non-abusive
256
Rape is typically: violent/nonviolent
Non-violent
257
Baby has a vertex delivery with dystocia. What should we be looking for on physical exam?
Broken clavicle
258
What test is used to evaluate/estimate gestational age
Ballard Test
259
Graves disease in mom can cause what types of problems for the baby?
Thyroid storm
260
Baby can develop 3rd degree heart block due to what maternal illnesss?
Lupus
261
_____________ is when the placenta attaches to and becomes part of the uterus
Placenta accreta
262
_____ may cause problems with the lungs and kidneys the baby doesn’t make much urine and doesn’t have enough fluid to practice breathing
Oligohydramnios
263
_____ can cause esophageal atresia and neurologic problems in baby
Polyhydramnios
264
What does PROM stand for?
Premature rupture of membranes
265
What is the use of the APGAR score?
Evaluates baby’s need for resuscitation
266
The _____ exam looks at neuromuscular and physical maturity to verify or estimate gestational age
Ballard Exam
267
____ infants are at higher risk for meconium aspiration
Post-term
268
____infants are at higher risk for necrotizing enterocolitis
Pre-term
269
A _____ deficiency puts pre-term infants at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
Surfactant
270
True/False: early ultrasound is more accurate than ballard scores
TRUE
271
When SGA = FOC, it is called _______. When SGA = FOC >10% it is called _____.
Symmetric
| Asymmetric
272
Is “brain-sparing SGA” symmetric or asymmetric?
Asymmetric
273
Birth trauma, jaundice, and hypoglycemia are common problems for ______ newborns
Term
274
______ occurs in bili encephalopathy, where irreversible damage to the basal ganglia occurs
Kernicteris
275
A PDA can lead to _________ due to a right-to-left shung
Pulmonary HTN
276
______ infants commonly have trouble thermoregulating and may have Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Premature
277
“ground glass” and air bronchograms are signs of ______
RDS (resp. distress. Syn)
278
______is common in premies d/t immaturity of the gut.
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
279
The most common congenital infection is
CMV
280
Thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, IUGR, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and MR are all findings of ______ infections
TORCH
281
Aplastic anemia may be a result of _____ infection
Parvo (human parvovirus B19)
282
_____ appear just after birth and can be mistaken for bruises
Mongolian spots
283
The ____ reflex is when you stroke a fingernail along the baby’s spine and they curve laterally to that side
Gallant
284
Genetic disorder found almost exclusively in NM/Spain
Recombinant 8
285
HBIG provides _____ immunity
Passive
286
The ABR (or BAER) test screens for ______ problems
Hearing
287
____ reduces the negative impact of an already established disease
Tertiary prevention
288
____focuses on early detection and screening
Secondary prevention
289
_____ avoids the development of disease
Primary prevention
290
Asthma, otitis media w/effusion, & allergies are common ____ diseases
Chronic
291
What measurements are low in a Type II growth deficiency?
Height and weight
292
What are the characteristics of a Type I growth deficiency?
FOC & ht OK, wt low
293
Development occurs in a ____-_____ direction physically
Cephalo-caudal
294
The most common nutritional deficiency in kiddos:
Iron
295
____ vaccines include flu, cholera, plague, polio, Hep A
Killed
296
____ vaccines include yellow fever, measles, rubella, mumps
Attenuated
297
____ vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria
Toxoid
298
____ vaccines include Hep B, HPV
Protein-Subunit
299
____ vaccines include H. influenza
Conjugate
300
Contraindications to Immz?
Immunodeficiency
Allergy
Hypersensitivity
301
Leading cause of injury related deaths in the home:
Burns
302
2nd leading cause of injury related deaths in children:
Drowning
303
What is the rule of 3’s?
3hrs/3days/3weeks
304
This sleeping problem happens during non-REM sleep
Night terrors
305
This sleep problem occurs during REM sleep
Nightmares
306
____ is characterized by “incontinence beyond maturity”
Enuresis
307
This is the most common urologic disorder in pediatrics
Enuresis
308
____ is the regular voluntary passage of feces other than in the toilet after 4 years of age.
Encoperesis
309
It could take 6-24 months of behavioral therapy and laxative use to control _____
Constipation in kids
310
A child with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura makes antibodies against:
Blood vessels
311
Abusive head trauma is often correlated to this finding:
Subdural Hemorrhage
312
High velocity head injuries often result in:
Retinal hemorrhages
313
The most common feature of emotional neglect is
Absent normal parent-child attachment
314
_____ is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity from physical abuse
Abusive head trauma
315
Corner or bucket handle fractures are across the ______
Metaphysis
316
This many fractures ____ in an infant suggests abuse.
ANY fracture!!!
317
Birth trauma, prematurity, NM disease, OI and congenital osteomyelitis are all ________ causes of fractures
Non-abusive
318
Rape is typically: violent/nonviolent
Non-violent
319
Baby has a vertex delivery with dystocia. What should we be looking for on physical exam?
Broken clavicle
320
What test is used to evaluate/estimate gestational age
Ballard Test
321
Graves disease in mom can cause what types of problems for the baby?
Thyroid storm
322
Baby can develop 3rd degree heart block due to what maternal illnesss?
Lupus
323
_____________ is when the placenta attaches to and becomes part of the uterus
Placenta accreta
324
_____ may cause problems with the lungs and kidneys the baby doesn’t make much urine and doesn’t have enough fluid to practice breathing
Oligohydramnios
325
_____ can cause esophageal atresia and neurologic problems in baby
Polyhydramnios
326
What does PROM stand for?
Premature rupture of membranes
327
What is the use of the APGAR score?
Evaluates baby’s need for resuscitation
328
The _____ exam looks at neuromuscular and physical maturity to verify or estimate gestational age
Ballard Exam
329
____ infants are at higher risk for meconium aspiration
Post-term
330
____infants are at higher risk for necrotizing enterocolitis
Pre-term
331
A _____ deficiency puts pre-term infants at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
Surfactant
332
True/False: early ultrasound is more accurate than ballard scores
TRUE
333
When SGA = FOC, it is called _______. When SGA = FOC >10% it is called _____.
Symmetric
| Asymmetric
334
Is “brain-sparing SGA” symmetric or asymmetric?
Asymmetric
335
Birth trauma, jaundice, and hypoglycemia are common problems for ______ newborns
Term
336
______ occurs in bili encephalopathy, where irreversible damage to the basal ganglia occurs
Kernicteris
337
A PDA can lead to _________ due to a right-to-left shung
Pulmonary HTN
338
______ infants commonly have trouble thermoregulating and may have Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Premature
339
“ground glass” and air bronchograms are signs of ______
RDS (resp. distress. Syn)
340
______is common in premies d/t immaturity of the gut.
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
341
The most common congenital infection is
CMV
342
Thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, IUGR, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and MR are all findings of ______ infections
TORCH
343
Aplastic anemia may be a result of _____ infection
Parvo (human parvovirus B19)
344
_____ appear just after birth and can be mistaken for bruises
Mongolian spots
345
The ____ reflex is when you stroke a fingernail along the baby’s spine and they curve laterally to that side
Gallant
346
Genetic disorder found almost exclusively in NM/Spain
Recombinant 8
347
Disorder associated with hypogonadism and gynecomastia
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
348
Disorder associated with hypergonadism, poor social skills
Fragile X Syndrome
349
Inborn Errors of Metabolism are inherited through this mode of inheritance
Recessive
350
What kind of disorder would lead to low-ketone low-blood-sugar?
Fatty Acid Oxidation Disorders
351
Kid shows up in ER looking septic or shock-ish. What do you suspect?
Sepsis Heart disease
| Inborn error of metabolism
352
What condition might masquerade like an IEM?
| specifically, vomiting
Pyloric stenosis
353
Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations
Kussmaul’s
354
Blood tests for IEM work up
ABGs, Electrolytes, Glucose, Ammonia, LFT, CBC/diff
355
Urine tests for IEM work up
Glucose, Ketones
356
A single malformation leads to other structural changes. Found in otherwise normal child. Not a genetic factor.
Sequence
357
Recognizable pattern of abnormalities that result from a single identifiable cause. Includes malformations and deformations.
Syndrome
358
Recognizable pattern of malformations with no common unifying cause
Association
359
The mnemonic “VACTERL” is useful in identifying
Associations
360
Chemical, physical, biologic, drug, or disease finding that disrupts fetal development is a/an ____
Teratogen
361
A 12 hr old infant for a “large abdomen and spots”.
Baby was IUGR, but the delivery was uncomplicated. Mom’s health otherwise normal. On exam you note an SGA infant with a palpably large liver, microcephaly, and petechiae over trunk and extremities
Based on these findings you suspect:
Congenital TORCH infection
362
What is the most common congenital infection?
CMV
363
What TORCH disease causes brain calcifications?
CMV
364
Aplastic anemia is characteristic of which TORCH infection?
Human Parvovirus
365
What genetic lab work would you order if you suspected a child had Di George Syndrome?
FISH
366
Marfan’s, Huntington’s, Achondroplasia, and Neurofibromatosis are all ________ disorders
Autosomal Dominant
367
Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to ______ disorders
Autosomal Recessive
368
Sickle cell anemia, CF, and PKU are all _______ disorders
Autosomal Recessive
369
This syndrome is X-linked and affects mostly girls, causing MR.
Rett Syndrome
370
_____ refers to a combination of chromosomes that deviates from multiples of haploid.
Aneuploidy
371
This type of chromosomal anomaly is characterized by a normal karyotype, but with 2 copies of 1 chromosome from only 1 parent
Uniparental Disomy
372
_____ and _____ are examples of Uniparental Disomy
Angelmann & Prader Willi
373
____ is also known as “Happy Puppet”
Angelmann
374
This chromosomal disorder is characterized by an insatiable appetite:
Prader Willi
375
XXY is known as:
Klinefelter Syndrome
376
XO is known as:
Turner Syndrome
377
You may have to rule out this chromosomal disorder and metabolic disorders when evaluating for Autistic Disorder
Fragile X
378
The “mongoloid slant” is characteristic of which chromosomal abnormality?
Down Syndrome
379
Atrio-ventricular Canal, Duodenal Atresia, Hypothyroidism, Leukemia, and developmental delay/MR are common in _____
Down Syndrome
380
True/False: Most trisomy disorders are compatible with life.
False. 13/18 most die in utero
381
This syndrome is characterized by rocker-bottom feet
Patau Syndrome (tri 13)
382
A cleft palate may inhibit the growth of this important gland
Pituitary
383
This critical period defect results from the failure of the brain to grow beyond the rhombencephalon.
Anencephaly
384
Defects like NTDs, Cleft lip, pyloric stenosis, and obstructive uropathies are usually due to a ______ deficiency
Folic acid
385
This congenital syndrome includes a “blueberry muffin” rash
Congenital Rubella Syndrome
386
What immunologic lab would you order for Rubella?
IgM
387
This virus can cause aplastic anemia in children
Human Parvovirus (Parvo)
388
Thelarchy occurs approximately ____ years before menarche
2
389
What is the HEADDS acronym all about?
```
Home
Education
Alcohol
Drugs
Diet
Sex
Suicide/Depression
```
390
Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations
Kussmaul’s
391
Blood tests for IEM work up
ABGs, Electrolytes, Glucose, Ammonia, LFT, CBC/diff
392
Urine tests for IEM work up
Glucose, Ketones
393
A single malformation leads to other structural changes. Found in otherwise normal child. Not a genetic factor.
Sequence
394
Recognizable pattern of abnormalities that result from a single identifiable cause. Includes malformations and deformations.
Syndrome
395
Recognizable pattern of malformations with no common unifying cause
Association
396
The mnemonic “VACTERL” is useful in identifying
Associations
397
Chemical, physical, biologic, drug, or disease finding that disrupts fetal development is a/an ____
Teratogen
398
A 12 hr old infant for a “large abdomen and spots”.
Baby was IUGR, but the delivery was uncomplicated. Mom’s health otherwise normal. On exam you note an SGA infant with a palpably large liver, microcephaly, and petechiae over trunk and extremities
Based on these findings you suspect:
Congenital TORCH infection
399
What is the most common congenital infection?
CMV
400
What TORCH disease causes brain calcifications?
CMV
401
Aplastic anemia is characteristic of which TORCH infection?
Human Parvovirus
402
What genetic lab work would you order if you suspected a child had Di George Syndrome?
FISH
403
Marfan’s, Huntington’s, Achondroplasia, and Neurofibromatosis are all ________ disorders
Autosomal Dominant
404
Inborn errors of metabolism are usually due to ______ disorders
Autosomal Recessive
405
Sickle cell anemia, CF, and PKU are all _______ disorders
Autosomal Recessive
406
This syndrome is X-linked and affects mostly girls, causing MR.
Rett Syndrome
407
_____ refers to a combination of chromosomes that deviates from multiples of haploid.
Aneuploidy
408
This type of chromosomal anomaly is characterized by a normal karyotype, but with 2 copies of 1 chromosome from only 1 parent
Uniparental Disomy
409
_____ and _____ are examples of Uniparental Disomy
Angelmann & Prader Willi
410
____ is also known as “Happy Puppet”
Angelmann
411
This chromosomal disorder is characterized by an insatiable appetite:
Prader Willi
412
XXY is known as:
Klinefelter Syndrome
413
XO is known as:
Turner Syndrome
414
You may have to rule out this chromosomal disorder and metabolic disorders when evaluating for Autistic Disorder
Fragile X
415
The “mongoloid slant” is characteristic of which chromosomal abnormality?
Down Syndrome
416
Atrio-ventricular Canal, Duodenal Atresia, Hypothyroidism, Leukemia, and developmental delay/MR are common in _____
Down Syndrome
417
True/False: Most trisomy disorders are compatible with life.
False. 13/18 most die in utero
418
This syndrome is characterized by rocker-bottom feet
Patau Syndrome (tri 13)
419
A cleft palate may inhibit the growth of this important gland
Pituitary
420
This critical period defect results from the failure of the brain to grow beyond the rhombencephalon.
Anencephaly
421
Defects like NTDs, Cleft lip, pyloric stenosis, and obstructive uropathies are usually due to a ______ deficiency
Folic acid
422
This congenital syndrome includes a “blueberry muffin” rash
Congenital Rubella Syndrome
423
What immunologic lab would you order for Rubella?
IgM
424
This virus can cause aplastic anemia in children
Human Parvovirus (Parvo)
425
Thelarchy occurs approximately ____ years before menarche
2
426
What is the HEADDS acronym all about?
```
Home
Education
Alcohol
Drugs
Diet
Sex
Suicide/Depression
```
427
Acidosis is characterized by _________ respirations
Kussmaul’s
428
First sign of puberty in girls
Height spurt
429
First sign of puberty in boys
Scrotal and testicular growth
430
_____ are the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhea in both girls and boys
Prolactinoma
431
What is the #1 cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
432
This symptom is the hallmark of Anorexia
Amenorrhea
433
______ may be used to prevent relapse in adolescents with eating disorders
SSRIs
434
Initiation continuation Maintenance Progression
| These describe the 4 stages of _____
Substance abuse
435
Is a 11 y/o female with a tanner stage of 2 normal or abnormal?
Normal
436
_____ is a form of treatment that focuses on examining the relationships between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
CBT
437
_____ is a type of somatoform disorder where the patient manifests neurologic symptoms
Conversion Reaction
438
____is a somatoform disordere where the patient consciously or unconsciously presents with symptoms to gain reward
Malingering
439
Treatment of Somatoform disorders includes ______ + _______
CBC + SSRI
440
This medication is the only SSRI approved by the FDA for use in children for treatment of anxiety
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
441
_____ is a form of treatment that focuses on examining the relationships between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
CBT
442
True/False: Anxiety is characterized as a mood disorder
FALSE. Anxiety disorder
443
__________ is a diagnosis that requires a minimum of 2 weeks of symptoms, including depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities.
Major Depression
444
The Beck Inventory screens for ______
Depression
445
______ is a chronic, milder form of depression where symptoms present for at least 1 year. Is usually liked to an event.
Dysthymic Disorder
446
This is the most common depressive mood disorder in children and adolescents
Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
447
Treatment for bipolar disease includes
Mood stabilizers (Lithium)
448
Are boys or girls more likely to be successful in attempting suicide?
Boys
449
Ideas are the subject of ______________, while _________ are manifested in behaviors.
Obsessions
| Compulsions
450
Are children more likely to engage in obsessions or compulsions?
Compulsions
451
This term is used to describe a subset of children who have OCD and/or tic disorders and in whom symptoms worsen following strep infection.
PANDAS
| pediatric autoimmune neuro-psychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections
452
If a child has impaired communication AND impaired social interactions AND impaired behavior, they may have ______
Autism
453
If a child has impaired behavior and social skills, they may have _______
Asperger Syndrome
454
A child with ________ may present with Echolalia and nonsensical speech
Autistic Disorder
455
____ is characterized by typical development followed by regression
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder
456
_____ is a genetic disease due to a mutation on the X chromosome, where the child has regression of skills in the 1st year of life w/ characteristic hand-wringing
Rett Syndrome
457
_____ is defined by an IQ score
Mental Retardation
458
If a child has structural and myelination abnormalities, what type of imaging is best for visualization?
MRI
459
Why is it important to diagnose children with developmental disabilities before the age of 3?
Qualify for at-home therapies
460
True/False: psychotic symptoms are a common symptom of childhood and do not usually warrant further investigation.
FALSE. Not normal! Evaluate for neurologic disease, metabolic disease, wilsons disease (copper storage)
461
_______ is the most common neurodevelopmental disorder in children
ADHD
462
What are the 3 subtypes of ADHD?
Hyperactive Impulsive
Inattentive
Combined
463
Side effects of this type of medication include wt loss and sleep disturbances
Stimulants
464
Medications that treat ADHD act on this part of the brain:
Frontal lobe
465
Comorbidity in ADHD increases _______ at least 5-13 fold.
Substance abuse
466
__________ is a diagnosis that requires a minimum of 2 weeks of symptoms, including depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities.
Major Depression
467
The Beck Inventory screens for ______
Depression
468
______ is a chronic, milder form of depression where symptoms present for at least 1 year. Is usually liked to an event.
Dysthymic Disorder
469
This is the most common depressive mood disorder in children and adolescents
Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
470
Treatment for bipolar disease includes
Mood stabilizers (Lithium)
471
Are boys or girls more likely to be successful in attempting suicide?
Boys
472
Ideas are the subject of ______________, while _________ are manifested in behaviors.
Obsessions
| Compulsions
473
Are children more likely to engage in obsessions or compulsions?
Compulsions
474
This term is used to describe a subset of children who have OCD and/or tic disorders and in whom symptoms worsen following strep infection.
PANDAS
| pediatric autoimmune neuro-psychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections
475
If a child has impaired communication AND impaired social interactions AND impaired behavior, they may have ______
Autism
476
If a child has impaired behavior and social skills, they may have _______
Asperger Syndrome
477
A child with ________ may present with Echolalia and nonsensical speech
Autistic Disorder
478
____ is characterized by typical development followed by regression
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder
479
_____ is a genetic disease due to a mutation on the X chromosome, where the child has regression of skills in the 1st year of life w/ characteristic hand-wringing
Rett Syndrome
480
_____ is defined by an IQ score
Mental Retardation
481
If a child has structural and myelination abnormalities, what type of imaging is best for visualization?
MRI
482
Why is it important to diagnose children with developmental disabilities before the age of 3?
Qualify for at-home therapies
483
True/False: psychotic symptoms are a common symptom of childhood and do not usually warrant further investigation.
FALSE. Not normal! Evaluate for neurologic disease, metabolic disease, wilsons disease (copper storage)
484
_______ is the most common neurodevelopmental disorder in children
ADHD
485
What are the 3 subtypes of ADHD?
Hyperactive Impulsive
Inattentive
Combined
486
Side effects of this type of medication include wt loss and sleep disturbances
Stimulants
487
Medications that treat ADHD act on this part of the brain:
Frontal lobe
488
Comorbidity in ADHD increases _______ at least 5-13 fold.
Substance abuse
