Final Review Flashcards
(284 cards)
1
Q
The name listed on drug labels as active ingredient is the trade name of the drug.
A
False
2
Q
It is appropriate to cut enteric-coated or SR tablets in half to provide a more accurate dosing of the medication.
A
False
3
Q
An owner reports an unusual side effect for a drug that the veterinarian prescribed. You should:
A
Contact the FDA and/or drug manufacturer to report the adverse event.
4
Q
Veterinary Feed Directives (VFDs) are only required for medically important antibiotics added to food and/or water of food animal species that are definitely entering the human food chain.
A
False
5
Q
The difference between whether a drug is harmful or helpful to the patient relies upon
A
how the drug is used
6
Q
____________ constitute adverse drug effects that could potentially do significant harm to the patient.
A
warnings
7
Q
___________ is an artificial sweetener used in some human sugar-free syrups that causes massive insulin release in dogs.
A
xylitol
8
Q
If a standard injectable form of a drug is given every 12 hours, would the repository form of the same drug be more likely to be given every:
A
2 days
9
Q
Which liquid formulation of a drug can be safely given intravenously without being shaken before administration?
A
solution
10
Q
The dose calculated for any particular patient
A
is actually a scientific guess
11
Q
_____________ consist of active ingredient drug in powdered form mixed with sweetener and flavoring agent.
A
molded tablets
12
Q
____________ are alcohol-based solutions used for oral or topical application.
A
tintures
13
Q
____________ are therapeutic agents composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than chemicals synthesized in a laboratory.
A
extracts
14
Q
_______________ is the period of time between the last dose of a drug and when the animal can be slaughtered for human food or its food products can be sold.
A
withdrawl time
15
Q
A controlled substance with a schedule III would have less potential for abuse than a schedule II drugs.
A
True
16
Q
The ________________ legislation gives veterinarians the right to prescribe drugs for extra-label use in veterinary patients.
A
AMDUCA
17
Q
This type of drug can be legally obtained without a prescription.
A
OTC
18
Q
Extra-label drug usage in veterinary medicine
A
- is legally allowed under certain circumstances
- is using a drug in any manner other than that for which –it received FDA approval
- will not appear on the drug insert
19
Q
The ______________ is designed to not allow a tablet to dissolve until it reaches the small intestine.
A
enteric coating
20
Q
The ___________ system is the most commonly used measuring system today.
A
metric
21
Q
Cytotoxic drugs can be stored alongside all other drugs in the practice’s pharmacy area.
A
false
22
Q
Mrs. Smith is on vacation with Fluffy, her dog, in another state. Fluffy runs out of his medication, so Mrs. Smith goes to a local veterinary clinic with the written prescription she picked up from Fluffy’s regular veterinarian on her way out of town. The technician at the local clinic greets Mrs. Smith and immediately fills Fluffy’s prescription without having the veterinarian exam Fluffy, so Mrs. Smith and Fluffy can continue with their vacation.
A
false
23
Q
Weight by volume percentage solutions
A
are expressed as the number of grams of drug per 100ml liquid
24
Q
The following drug order means what when written in words – 1gtt OU q4h:
A
1 drop into both eyes every 4 hours
25
The following drug order means what when written in words – 75mg PO q24h 3d:
75 milligrams by mouth every 24 hours for 3 days
26
All of the following must be included on a written drug prescription except?
patient weight
27
Controlled substances
none of these
28
An emulsion
Should be stirred or shaken prior to administering
29
The dosage of a drug is
the mass of drug needed per unit of weight for usage in any animal
30
Compounded drugs include, but are not limited to
- Combining two or more drugs into the same syringe for injection
- Emptying capsules into liquid to create a suspension
- Adding flavoring to a drug solution
31
A drug order is the same as a prescription.
false
32
The acronym ADR, when used in relation to pharmacology, stands for:
adverse drug reaction
33
A _________________ is any effect other than the intended effect of a drug that occurs within the normal therapeutic range.
side effect
34
____________ is the study of how drugs work.
pharmacology
35
The dose of a drug should be expressed as ________ of drug.
mass
36
Filling prescriptions for patients as indicated by the veterinarian's prescription is referred to as
pharmacy
37
The agency in the US responsible for regulation of drugs that have the potential for abuse is:
DEA
38
The DEA requires all controlled substance inventory records be maintained and readily available for a minimum of ________.
2 years
39
Drugs in this category are considered "poisonous" to mammalian cells:
cytotoxins/cytotoxic
40
US federal law prohibits prescriptions for _______ controlled substances to have written refills.
C-II
41
All of the following are true regarding proper drug storage except:
All drugs can safely be kept at or below 8C (46F)
42
The abbreviation QID (also q.i.d.) means
Four times daily
43
A drug’s ____________ is the measure of how fast a volume of blood is cleared of the drug.
clearance
44
Drugs given via the _________ route reach peak plasma concentration fastest.
intravenous
45
Capillaries located in the ___________ have fenestrations allowing water and small drug molecules to enter and exit.
body and placenta
46
A drug with good affinity and intrinsic activity is called an agonist.
true
47
The process of breaking down dosage forms to the individual molecules is called dissolution.
true
48
Testing cattle for tuberculosis is an example of _______ drug administration.
ID
49
Your veterinarian instructs you to give an IP injection. Where do you inject the drug?
into the abdominal cavity
50
______________ is the study of how drugs work on the body.
pharmacodynamics
51
The environmental pH at which there are equal numbers of ionized and nonionized drug molecules is called the drug’s ___________.
PKA
52
______________ drug molecules are nonionized.
lipophilic
53
P-glycoprotein (P-gp) is
an active transport pump found in some cells
54
All injectable drugs can be given via all routes; SQ, IM, and IV.
false
55
Many drugs are metabolized by _________ located in the ___________.
CYP, liver
56
Bioavailability is the percentage of drug administered that makes it into systemic circulation. All drugs administered ______ have a bioavailability of 100%.
IV
57
Absorption and distribution must occur for a drug to be effective.
true
58
All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration except:
PO
59
An _____________ drug has affinity for a receptor but no intrinsic activity when combined with the receptor.
antagonist
60
Fat is a well perfused tissue.
false
61
Ionized drug molecules pass easily through cellular membranes.
false
62
Drug molecules must combine with _____________ located on a cell’s surface or within a cell for the cell to respond.
receptors
63
For aspirin, an acid drug, a shift in the environmental pH in the acidic direction by 1 pH unit results in:
100-times increase in ionized side of drug molecule ratio
64
________________ is the amplification or suppression of pain impulses by neurons in the spinal cord.
modulation
65
_____________________ involves the use of a combination of an opioid drug with a tranquilizer or sedative.
neuroleptanalgesia
66
_______________ is a CNS stimulant that works at the medulla of the brainstem to increase respiration.
doxepram
67
Ketamine is classified as a ____________ controlled substance.
C-III
68
μ-mediated opioid analgesia primarily works by:
decreasing release of excitatory neurotransmitters and dampening excitation of post-synaptic sites
69
Gas anesthetic agents:
- do not produce metabolites potentially toxic to the kidney
- produce anesthesia in a manner that is poorly understood
- are administered via the lungs
70
_______________ was the first alpha 2-agonist drug used in veterinary medicine, and remains widely used in both small and large animals.
xylazine
71
Opioids and opiates are exactly the same substances.
false
72
The use of which NMDA receptor antagonist(s) is thought to prevent spinal cord wind-up?
tiletamine
73
Drugs that reduce the perception of pain without significant loss of other sensations are called ________________.
analgesics
74
The tranquilizer drug __________ produces its effect by enhancing GABA activity.
diazepam
75
Historically, _____________ are drugs that were used to induce anesthesia or provide primary anesthesia in limited situation
barbiturates
76
The reversal drugs for ___________ are yohimbine and tolazoline
xylazine
77
Propofol:
- inhibits the NMDA receptor
- is an injectable anesthetic agent
- directly stimulates the GABA-A receptor
78
__________________ is a mixed agonist/antagonist opioid that is labeled for use as an antitussive in small animals.
butorphanol
79
__________ is an example of a dissociative anesthetic drug.
ketamine
80
One effect of medetomidine administration is bradycardia.
true
81
Tranquilizers and sedative produce a relaxed state via the same mechanism of action.
false
82
Gas anesthetics do not provide analgesia
true
83
The Alpha 2 agonist drugs
Are sedatives with some analgesic effects
84
________is the prototypical opioid drug against which all other opioids tend to be measured
morphine
85
The 4 steps of the pain pathway (in order) are
Transduction, transmission, modulation,perception
86
First-degree AV block
- is a result of slowed rate of depolarization wave conduction through AV node
- appears as a prolonged PR interval on ECG
- occurs with the use of Class II antiarrhythmic drugs (propranolol, atenolol, esmolol, metoprolol, carvedilol)
87
The 4 types of adrenergic receptors with the greatest adrenergic drug roles are:
α1, β1, α2, β2
88
The ____________ nervous system is referred to as the "fight or flight" system.
sympathetic
89
ACE inhibitors
prevent angiotensin II and aldosterone formation
90
The heart consists of a __________-pump system
2
91
PVCs are a type of ventricular arrhythmia.
true
92
Heart valves allow blood flow in a single direction.
true
93
Catecholamines are positive inotropes.
true
94
____________ is a loop diuretic used to promote water loss in patients with CHF.
furosemide
95
___________ is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
spironolactone
96
Cats with cardiac disease are at decreased risk for thrombotic events, such as saddle thrombus.
false
97
Long term use of β blockers results in down regulation of the β1 receptors on cell surface.
false
98
The _______recieves oxygen rich blood from the lungs.
pulmonary veins
99
The ventricular contraction is recorded as the T wave on the ECG
false
100
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker is used to treat atrial fibrillation
true
101
Arterial vasodilators
cause arteriolar smooth muscle relaxation
102
The pacemaker of the heart
Is located in the right atrium
103
________reduces pulmonary edema formation and is available as a topical cream.
Nitroglycerin
104
Any abnormal electrical activity in the heart is called an________.
Arrhythmia
105
Cardiac cell depolarization
Occurs when fast sodium channels open
106
The time during which a cell cannot depolarize again is called the _____________.
absolute refractory period
107
Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart beats too slowly.
false
108
Which of the following cardiac drugs is also a poison found in nature?
digoxin
109
_____________ therapy is indicated in animals that are transiently hypoxic
Oxygen
110
Mucolytic agents
decrease mucus viscosity
111
Horses with recurrent airway obstruction may be treated with aerosolized ____________ as part of their treatment. Does have immunosuppressing effect
corticosteroids
112
Nonproductive coughing
none of these
113
Antimicrobial use in food animals
none of these
114
Bronchoconstriction mechanisms include all of the following except
stimulation of bronchiolar β2 receptors
115
This class of bronchodilators includes theophylline and aminophylline
Methylxanthines
116
Corticosteroids are contraindicated for use in the treatment of feline asthma syndrome.
false
117
The cough center is a cluster of neurons located in the cerebellum of the brain.
false
118
Centrally acting antitussives
suppress cough center neurons
119
Albuterol is a bronchodilator administered via inhalation using_______
Metered dose inhalers
120
Chronic use of rescue inhalers leads to Beta receptor upregulation
false
121
Locally acting antitussives are commonly utilized in veterinary medicine
false
122
Decongestants
are not typically used in veterinary medicine
123
Normal protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract
- include sneezing and coughing
- can contribute to clinical disease
- prevent foreign material from entering
124
These cells with cilia line the larger bronchioles in the respiratory tree
columnar epithelial
125
Most ________________ episodes are the result of benign allergic reactions to environmental stimuli, though clients often mistake them for life threatening
reverse sneezing
126
This narcotic is the only FDA-approved veterinary antitussive.
butorphanol
127
Beta-receptor agonists have what effect on the respiratory tree?
cause bronchodilation
128
Cats may go into spontaneous diabetic remission during the course of treatment.
true
129
Endocrine systems are regulated by a _________________ mechanism.
negative feedback
130
___________ serves as a storage pool for the more active triiodothyronine.
T4
131
This recombinant human insulin has been used for many years to treat diabetes mellitus in cats.
insulin glargine
132
The usage of reproductive drugs in a specific, timed order is referred to as a __________________________protocol.
timed artificial insemination
133
________________ is the oral drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism.
methimazole
134
Which species is more likely to exhibit type 1 diabetes mellitus?
canine
135
All of the following statements regarding levothyroxine are true except
none of these
136
Progesterone is produced by the ovary.
false
137
Which of the following statements about insulin is incorrect?
none of these
138
Administration of corticosteroids to a pregnant mare or cow may result in _____
Abortion
139
Thyroid extracts are commonly used to treat hypothyroid veterinary patients
false
140
Dogs are more prone to develop hypothyroidism
true
141
All of the following are clinical signs of hypothyroidism except
Tachycardia
142
During the luteal phase of the estrous cycle
None of these
143
Prostaglandins can only function in the follicular phase
false
144
_____________ produces forceful uterine contractions and causes milk letdown.
oxytocin
145
Short acting insulin
- can be given as a continuous IV infusion
- is used in the treatment of DKA
- is regular (crystalline) insulin
146
All of the following statements regarding insulin for injection are true except
it is measured in mg/mL
147
The pancreatic endocrine hormone used for therapeutic purposes is
insulin
148
The opioid antidiarrheal drugs.
- Increase segmental contractions in the small intestines
- Include Loperamide and Diphenoxylate
- Decrease perigastric contractions
149
The antiulcer drug_______acts as a “gastric Band-aid”.
Sucralfate
150
The syndrome occurs when the pancreas fails to produce sufficient amounts of several digestive enzymes
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
151
This type of contraction propels food along the GI tract.
Peristaltic
152
Digestion is a conscious process controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
false
153
Maripotant is an NK-1 agonist that has always been labeled for injection in dogs and cats in the US
false
154
Apomorphine is an emetic drug used to induce vomiting in dogs, cats, and rabbits
false
155
________are drug molecules that cause other molecules to adhere to their outer surfaces and decrease the likelihood of those compounds being absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract.
Adsorbents
156
Secretory diarrhea is caused by _________ produced by intestinal bacteria.
Enterotoxins
157
Metoclopramide is considered a ____________ drug.
Prokinetic
158
A dog presents on emergency after ingesting an entire pan of double chocolate brownies approximately 30-45 minutes ago. You should inform the client of the cost of treatment, obtain consent, and induce vomiting.
true
159
H+ is actively secreted into the gastric lumen by the
parietal cell
160
Sulfasalazine is an antibiotic chemically linked to a salicylate molecule, which is the component that acts as an antidiarrheal drug.
True
161
H2 blockers
- include famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine
- attach to and block histamine receptors on parietal cells
- must circulate in the blood
162
Induction of emesis via 3% hydrogen peroxide
should be limited to 1.1-2.2 mL/kg (limit 45mL)
163
_____________ can have neurologic side effects and is prohibited from use in food animals.
metronidazole
164
This drug binds to the luminal surface of parietal cells and inhibits the pump that normally transports H+ into the stomach lumen.
omeprazole
165
____________ are particularly susceptible to colic or impaction problems due to their expanded colon and cecum.
Horses
166
Phenobarbital controls seizures by
decreasing the likelihood of spontaneous depolarization in brain cells
167
Therapeutic monitoring is the only way to be sure a phenobarbital dosage regimen is adequate
true
168
This anticonvulsant must be given every 8 hours, and is available in oral and injectable forms.
levetiracetum
169
Prolonged seizure activity can result in ___________ from the inability to expand the chest because of prolonged thoracic muscle contraction.
hypoxia
170
The antipsychotic drugs used in veterinary medicine
are not recommended for use in suppressing aggressive behavior problems
171
Which statement is most accurate regarding phenobarbital?
phenobarbital is biotransformed by MFOs found in the liver
172
This drug class controls seizures by penetrating the blood-brain barrier and enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA.
benzodiazepines
173
Seizures can be ___________ or _____________ depending whether one area of the brain or the entire brain is affected.
focal; generalized
174
Pathologic states that secondarily affect the brain, causing seizures, include:
- canine distemper
- eclampsia
- hypoxia
- hypoglycemia
175
MAOIs and SSRIs should never be used in combination due to the increased risk of _____________.
serotonin syndrome
176
During __________ seizures the patient generally does not lose consciousness.
focal
177
______________, a sulfonamide, has an unknown mechanism of action as an anticonvulsant.
zonisamide
178
The _____________ is the part of the brain involved with emotion.
limbic system
179
_____________ is an antipsychotic drug used in veterinary medicine.
acepromazine
180
This drug's FDA-approved indication is for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders in dogs.
clomipramine
181
This antidepressant medication is also marketed for use in treating canine cognitive dysfunction.
Anipryl
182
Behavior-modifying drugs general mechanisms of action include all except:
none of these
183
Seizure activity in horses is always treated with oral anticonvulsant drugs.
false
184
Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, is primarily used to control neuropathic pain, not seizures.
true
185
Possible side effects of phenobarbital include all of the following except
anorexia
186
______ is the seizure activity itself.
ictus
187
Diazepam
all of these
188
Which of the following statements about metronidazole are true?
- the exact mechanism of action is not known
- is only effective against anaerobic bacteria
- may produce transient neurologic side effects
189
This macrolide may cause death if inadvertantly injected into some species and has no antidote.
Tilmicosin
190
_________As a family have the ability to accumulate within mammalian cells and reach organisms that hide within mammalian cells.
Tetracycline
191
The mechanism of action of this class of antibiotics is by interfering with the production of bacterial and nucleic acids.
Fluroquinolones
192
________is confined to topical antibiotic preparations or ocular preparations due to its potential to produce nephrotoxicity.
Bacitracin
193
Of the azole antifungal agents, _________ is the prototype imidazole
Ketoconazole
194
Orally administered quinolines are absorbed almsot_________from the intestinal tract of dogs and cats.
100%
195
Empiric therapy
none of these
196
Bacteriostatic drugs
- inhibit bacterial growth/replication
- are considered time dependent to be most effective in eliminating bacterial infections
- include oxytetracycline and tylosin
197
______________ were the first antimicrobials used on a widespread basis in veterinary and human medicine.
sulfonamides
198
Oral doxycycline administration has been associated with esophageal injury.
true
199
In general, penicillins
are excreted mostly unchanged by the kidney
200
_______________ is the only FDA-approved drug for systemic administration to treat superficial fungal diseases in veterinary patients.
griseofulvin
201
The continued killing effect in the absence of drug concentrations above the MIC is called the _______________.
postantibiotic effect
202
All of the following are true regarding aminoglycosides except:
penetrate the globe of the eye well
203
Rifampin imparts a brownish color to urine, tears, sweat, and saliva.
false
204
________ is the lowest concentration of drug needed to inhibit bacterial growth.
MIC
205
The two most commonly used aminoglycosides in veterinary medicine are
Amikacin and gentamicin
206
This antimicrobial may produce aplastic anemia in humans and is completely banned from use in any food animal.
chloramphenicol
207
Alcohol should not be applied to open wounds for all of the following reasons except:
it dehydrates blood
208
All of the following statements about nonenveloped viruses are false except:
includes parvovirus
209
This high level disinfecting chemical steralizer kills bacteria normally protected by a biofilm
Glutaraldehyde
210
Prepared dilutions of sodium hypochlorite for disinfecting can be mixed and stored for use at a later date.
false
211
This microscopic glycocaylix material protects bacteria from disinfecting agents and is of great concern when it occurs on metal bone implants.
biofilm
212
Sodium hypochlorite can be diluted with which of the following?
water
213
This type of disinfectant is very effective against nonenveloped viruses. Often has a pungent odor and can be irritating to skin.
chlorine
214
The key ingredient in Roccal-D belongs to this compound group
quaternary ammonium compounds
215
Cidex, a product used for cold-sterilization of endoscopic equipment, belongs to which group of disinfecting agents?
aldehydes
216
Color-safe bleach is just regular bleach with a lower concentration of sodium hypochlorite
false
217
This biguanide antiseptic is one of the most commonly used disinfectants and antiseptic compounds in veterinary medicine.
chlorhexidine
218
Roccal-D is ineffective against parvovirus.
true
219
Rabies is classified as a nonenveloped virus and is difficult to kill.
false
220
Common soaps
are anionic cleansers
221
Low-level disinfectants are
none of these
222
Bacteria and fungi in this state are designed to survive in a dormant state for years to decades.
spore
223
Praziquantel and espirantel work by decreasing cell membrane permeability and calcium.
false
224
Aniprotozoal drugs in veterinary medicine are most commonly used against which of the following organisms?
toxoplasma
225
Which of the following statements about macrolides is incorrect?
target mammalian GABA receptors located within the CNS
226
The head of the tapeworm is called the
scolex
227
________is an IDI available in oral form
Lufernon
228
All modern insecticides or ectoparasiticides are neurotoxins.
true
229
This antiprotozoal agent is approved for use to eliminate Sarcocystis neurona in horses.
ponazuril
230
Organophosphates and carbamates are considered current insecticides and are often found in veterinary medicine as therapeutic agents.
false
231
This macrolide was originally used as an agricultural insecticide.
milbemycin oxime
232
_____________ is a legend drug used as a dip or sponge-on bath for treatment of demodectic mange in dogs.
amitraz
233
All of the following regarding praziquantel are true except
is ovicidal
234
This benzimidazole should not be used during the first 30-45 days of pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.
albendazole
235
The drug of choice for treatment of disseminated toxoplasmosis in dogs and cats is
clindamycin
236
Compounds that kill various types of internal parasitic worms are called
anthelmintics
237
____________and isoxaline insecticide is a prescription only soft chewable tablet approved for dogs to treat fleas for up to 12 weeks
Fluralaner
238
___________ means that the antiparasitic compound should be highly toxic to the parasite, but have little adverse effect on the host's tissue and person
selective toxicity
239
This drug is used to kill Wolbachia as part of the American Heartworm Society treatment protocol for canine heartworm disease.
Doxycycline
240
Piperazine, a vermifuge
- works by stimulating GABA receptors
- paralyzes adult worms
- does not kill migrating larave
241
All of the following statements about generic drugs are true except:
They are manufactured by the same company as the branded drug
242
Circumstances or conditions in which a patient should not use a specific drug are called ___________________.
Contraindications
243
An emulsion:
Should be stirred or shaken prior to administering
244
When calculating the number of tablets to dispense, the individual number of tablets per dose must always be determined and rounded to the nearest __________ or___________ tablet first.
half; whole
245
The abbreviation meaning left eye is:
OS
246
The movement of a drug from the systemic circulation into the tissues is called ____________.
Distribution
247
Acid drugs:
- Release hydrogen ion into the environment when placed in alkaline liquids
- Become more hydrophilic in alkaline liquids
- Acquire a charge in alkaline environments
248
This tranquilizer should be avoided in breeding stallions
acepromazine
249
Rapid IV injection of this injectable anesthetic has high risk for patient apnea.
Propofol
250
Potassium channel blocker antiarrhythmic drugs:
Prolong repolarization period
251
β blockers:
none of these
252
Name one of the ACE inhibitors mentioned in this class.
Enalapril
253
The acronym CHF stands for:
Congestive heart failure
254
This Class I antiarrhythmic drug of choice is used as an IV administered drug.
Lidocaine
255
Volatile oil expectorants are the preferred expectorant agent for use in veterinary patients.
False
256
Drugs that increase watery secretions by the respiratory tract cells are called:
Expectorants
257
Drugs used to increase airflow through respiratory passageways by relaxing the smooth muscle around them are called:
Bronchodilators
258
a ______ is dry and hacking.
Nonproductive cough
259
All of the following statements regarding hyperthyroidism are true except:
Is more often diagnosed in young cats
260
Veterinary patients are more prone to drug induced thyrotoxicosis than human patients.
False
261
A(n) ______ compound is one that originates outside of the body.
Exogenous
262
The osmotic cathartic ____ is used to chronic constipation, as well as helping to reduce clinical signs associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
Lactulose
263
The act of vomiting is:
- Is physiologically not possible in some species
- Coordinated by the emetic center
- A normal protective mechanism
264
ionophores
- Improve conversion of cattle feed into animal weight
- Are used in livestock to control coccidia
- Can be toxic, even fatal, in horses
265
Induction of emesis via 3% hydrogen peroxide:
- Should be limited to 1.1-2.2 mL/kg (limit 45 mL)
| - Must utilize "Fresh" Hydrogen peroxide for efficacy
266
Nonsystemic antacids:
Chemically neutralize acid molecules in the stomach or rumen
267
As a general rule, gastorenterologist recommend the use of antimicrobials in the treatment of most cases of VO and DI.
False
268
All of the following are true regarding imidazole derivatives except:
Need a basic pH in the GI tract to be absorbed when given orally
269
This type of penicillin is only administered via injection.
Penicillin G
270
Cefovecin is a __________-generation veterinary cephalosporin.
Third
271
Which of the following drugs are considered lincosamides?
Clindamycin and pirlimycin
272
Which of the following is a first generation cephalosporin?
Cephapirin
273
Cephalosporins are bacteriostatic beta lactam antimicrobials
False
274
These disinfecting compounds are effective against the dermatophytes that cause ringworm.
Iodine compounds
275
Alcohol preparations are most effecting at what concentration?
70-90%
276
Which of the following compound is considered a low-level disinfectant?
Isopropyl alcohol
277
All of the following are characteristics of the ideal disinfecting agent except:
Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial activity
278
Sodium hypochlorite:
Is most effective as 10% solution
279
Which of the following are true regarding heartworm?
Heartworm infection refers to the presence of adult D. immitis worms in the heart and pulmonary arteries
280
IDI's work by interfering with the deposition of chitin into the flea eggs
True
281
An _______________ is a compound that kills some endoparasites and some ectoparasites.
Endectocide
282
This OTC insecicide is derived from chrysanthemum flowers.
Pyrethrin
283
Pyrethrin
Have an inflammatory lung process called HARD
284
Pyrantel anthelmintics:
- In suspensions must be shaken prior to administration
- Are added on a continuous basis as a top dressing on horse feed
- Are effective against ascarids
- Mimic effect of excessive acetylcholine release on parasite muscle cells
