Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

T/F horses will always erupt 4 wolf teeth

A

FALSE

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2
Q

the space between incisors and premolars is known as what

A

bars

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3
Q

baby/milk teeth are referred to as what

A

deciduous teeth

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4
Q

T/F corner incisors are present at birth

A

FALSE

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5
Q

T/F permanent teeth are shorter, lighter, and have a defined neck joint connecting root and gum

A

FALSE

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6
Q

deciduous teeth are typically shed in what season

A

fall

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7
Q

T/F by the start of 4 1/2 years horse should have complete set of permanent teeth

A

TRUE

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8
Q

the extra set of pre molars are known as what

A

wolf teeth

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9
Q

the pits in the center of the teeth which gradually disappear with age are called what

A

cups

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10
Q

what develops around 10 yrs old, extends down and reaches bottom at 20 then travels back up and is gone by 30

A

galvaynes groove

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11
Q

indications of needing an oral exam

A

weight loss
eating with tilted head
increased whole grain in feces
partially chewed and dropped food

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12
Q

rasping down sharp edges of molars is known as what

A

floating

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13
Q

leading cause of tooth loss in horse

A

periodontal disease

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14
Q

T/F overbite is also known as monkey mouth

A

TRUE

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15
Q

breed with ancient roots, Arabian bloodline, chestnut with flaxen points, well suited to riding and light draft work

A

haflinger

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16
Q

how many inches in a hand

A

4

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17
Q

stock horse breeds

A

quarterhorse
appaloosa
paint

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18
Q

T/F if a horse is 15 hands tall its considered a pony

A

FALSE

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19
Q

largest demographic of horses fall into what breed category

A

light horse

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20
Q

Arabians and akhal-tekes and morgans are examples of what breed category

A

light horses

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21
Q

what does DQP stand for

A

designated qualified person

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22
Q

which demographic of horses are most heavily pronounced in the FEI category of competitive equine events

A

warmbloods

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23
Q

example of a German breed

A

Hanoverians

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24
Q

T/F a pace is a 2-beat lateral gait moving both hind and front leg simultaneously

A

TRUE

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25
T/F the jockey club does not allow AI
TRUE
26
what gaits aside from walk, trot, and canter is shown in the saddlebred 5 gaited class
rack slow gait
27
names for navicular disease
palmer heel pain palmer foot pain caudal heel syndrom podotrochlear syndrom
28
gold standard for navicular disease diagnosis
MRIs
29
a hoof with gray/white matter that is soft and spongy is a condition known as what
canker
30
a hoof infection that escapes at the coronary band is called what
gravel
31
ingestion of significant amounts of non-structural carbohydrates causes inflammation that sometimes leads to what
laminitis
32
T/F gravel is a type of hoof abcess
TRUE
33
how should thrush be treated
keep dry and clean copper sulfate solution chlorine dioxide
34
T/F canker is more common northwestern US
FALSE
35
T/F x-rays are the best choice when investigating navicular syndrome
FALSE
36
T/F a horse with laminitis would have tightly interlocked laminae
FALSE
37
how will a complicated hoof crack be treated
acrylic repair
38
what can make a horse prone to thrush
moist environment poor foot conformation lack of routine trimming lack of exercise
39
evaluation of the horse as sound within a specific event is referred to as what
form to function
40
the horse has how many bones on average
205
41
compact shaft of the bone is called what
diaphysis
42
the end of each bone(top and bottom) is called what
epiphysis
43
fibrous connective tissue covering bone is called what
periosteum
44
T/F periosteum protects bone and is the major site of healing
TRUE
45
hollow chamber filled with connective tissue(bone marrow) is called what
medullary cavity
46
T/F when a foal is born bone is fully mineralized and is only at cartilage stage as a fetus
FALSE
47
qualities of remodeling
occurs at periosteum helps accommodate growth response to stress on bone bone growth in width
48
the croup refers to what portion of the spinal column
sacral
49
synovial and fibrous membrane are housed where
joint capsule
50
connective tissue extending from bone to bone is called what
ligaments
51
T/F splint bones have several crucial jobs within the horses leg
FALSE
52
what is the definition of unsoundness
defects in form or function that interfere with the usefulness of the horse
53
definition of blemish
acquired physical defect that does not interfere with the usefulness of the horse
54
bone growth or exostosis in pastern or coffin joint of a horse is called what
ringbone
54
bony enlargement on inside of front leg caused by nodular ossification of the bone
splints
55
common conformation issue often seen in draft horses
cow hocked
56
T/F horses travel the opposite of their conformation
TRUE
57
which front leg conformational issue would cause the most concussion over time
calf-kneed
58
T/F overbite is also known as monkey mouth
FALSE
59
5 basic coat colors
white black red brown bay
60
T/F buckskin will never have a dorsal stripe
TRUE
61
what coat color is diluted from chestnut. bright copper with white mane and tail
palomino
62
paint horse with white over the back/lots of white is called what
tobiano
63
dilution from bay coat with dorsal stripe is called what
dun
64
a group of animals that have certain distinguishable characteristics such as function, conformation, and color are called what
breed
65
group of middleweight horses-aim to select for equestrian sport horses, very pronounced FEI
warmbloods
66
draft horses and ponies should be classified as what category with a calm temperament
cold bloods
67
T/F horses survived prehistoric times in North America around 13,000 years ago
FALSE
68
T/F domestication of the horse first happened in the steppes region within Asia
TRUE
69
T/F you should call the vet for a horse with a 100.5 F fever
FALSE
70
T/F banamine is commonly used to treat fevers
TRUE
71
what is a healthy heart rate for aa adult horse at rest
28-40 bpm
72
how many gallons of water does a mature resting horse consume on average
10-12 gallons
73
T/F pink gums and capillary refill time of 1 second is considered healthy
TRUE
74
directional term for the top of the horse
dorsal
75
directional term for the nose of the horse
rostral
76
what can mucous color tell you about the horse
congestion jaundice shock
77
dull and sunken eyes indicate the horse has already lost how much body weight from dehydration
4-5%
78
what can straining during urination indicate
muscular disorder nervous system disorder kidney disease bladder infection
79
T/F constipation leads to impaction colic
TRUE
80
how much will water intake increase for lactating mares
75%
81
yellowing of skin and eyes is known as what
Jaundice
82
what does CRT stand for
capillary refill time
83
how many breaths per minute will a mature resting horse have
8-16
84
a newborn foal has a common heartrate of what
80-120
85
T/f excess phosphorous causes big head disease
TRUE
86
how much of the total digestive tract does the stomach make up
10%
87
where is starch mostly absorbed
the SI
88
what is cellulose absorbed as in the hindgut
VFAs
89
T/F animals are able to use VFAs for energy and can be obtained from the degradation of different feedstuffs
TRUE
90
what does HYPP stand for
hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
91
T/F when starch spills a over into the cecum its known as CHO overload
TRUE
92
deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness
A