Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Maternity Final > Final review > Flashcards

Final review Flashcards

(75 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What does Gravida (G) refer to?

A

Total number of confirmed pregnancies a woman has had, regardless of outcomes

Includes all pregnancies, even if ended in miscarriage, abortion, or ectopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does Para (P) indicate?

A

Number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses have reached 20 weeks gestation

Not the number of individual fetuses; twins count as 1 pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Full term births (F or T)

A

Number of pregnancies that resulted in full term birth, typically defined as delivery at 37 or more weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the definition of Preterm births (P)?

A

Number of pregnancies that resulted in preterm birth, defined as 20 to 36 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Abortions (A) refer to?

A

Number of pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks gestation, either due to miscarriage or elective abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does Living children (L) represent?

A

Number of currently living children the woman has

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the trimesters of pregnancy?

A

First trimester: week 1-13, Second trimester: week 14-26, Third trimester: week 27-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Naegle’s rule used for?

A

Determining the estimated date of birth (EDB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank: The first prenatal visit should occur within the _______.

A

first trimester (12 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A

Subjective changes experienced by the woman: fatigue, breast changes, quickening, amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting, urinary frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are probable signs of pregnancy?

A

Objective changes observed by examiner: positive pregnancy test, Hegar sign, Chadwick sign, Braxton Hicks contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What defines a positive sign of pregnancy?

A

Objective changes indicating proof of pregnancy: fetal heart tones, ultrasound, fetal movements visible or palpated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the earliest marker for pregnancy?

A

Beta hCG, detectable in maternal serum or urine as soon as 7-8 days before expected menses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the significance of the cardiovascular system in fetal development?

A

It is the first organ system to function in the developing human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 5 Ps of labor and birth?

A
  • Passenger (fetus and placenta)
  • Passageway (birth canal)
  • Powers (contractions)
  • Position of mother
  • Psychological response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does fetal lie refer to?

A

Relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother; can be longitudinal, transverse, or oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define fetal attitude.

A

Relation of the body parts to one another, generally in flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is fetal position?

A

Relationship of the presenting part to four quadrants of the mother’s pelvis, denoted by a 3-part abbreviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is fetal station?

A

Relationship of presenting part to imaginary line drawn between maternal ischial spines; measure of degree of descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the cardinal movements of labor?

A
  • Engagement
  • Descent
  • Flexion
  • Internal rotation
  • Extension
  • Restitution/external rotation
  • Expulsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are primary powers in labor?

A

Involuntary contractions responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix and descent of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is effacement?

A

Shortening and thinning of the cervix during the first stage of labor, measured in percent from 0-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does dilation measure in labor?

A

Enlargement or widening of the cervical opening, measures from less than 1 cm to full dilation (10 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are secondary powers in labor?

A

Laboring woman’s involuntary urge to push; should use open glottis method for pushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the role of ultrasound transducer during labor?
Determines Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) by being placed over fetal back below mother’s umbilicus
26
What is the normal baseline FHR range?
110-160 bpm
27
Define acceleration in fetal heart rate monitoring.
Abrupt increase in FHR, defined as an increase from onset to peak <30 seconds, peak >15 bpm lasting >15 seconds
28
What is absent variability in fetal heart rate?
Amplitude range undetectable
29
What is minimal variability in fetal heart rate?
Amplitude range visually detectable but <5 bpm
30
What does marked variability indicate?
Amplitude range of >25 bpm; significance is unclear
31
What are the four types of decelerations?
* Early * Late * Variable * Prolonged
32
What causes early deceleration?
Head compression from uterine contractions, vaginal exam, or fundal pressure; normal, no interventions required
33
What causes late deceleration?
Placental insufficiency; associated with fetal hypoxemia
34
What is variable deceleration?
Decrease at least 15 beats/min or more below baseline, lasts at least 15 seconds, returns to baseline in less than 2 minutes
35
What does VEAL CHOP stand for?
* V: variable - C: cord compression * E: early - H: head compression * A: acceleration - O: ok * L: late - P: placental perfusion
36
What is tachysystole?
Excessive uterine activity, more than 5 contractions in a 10-minute segment averaged over 30 minutes
37
What characterizes the first stage of labor?
Onset of regular contractions to full dilation of cervix
38
What are the stages of postpartum lochia?
* Rubra: bright red, 1-3 days after birth * Serosa: pinkish brown, days 4-10 * Alba: whitish yellow, 10-14 days, can last 3-6 weeks
39
What is gestational hypertension?
Development of hypertension after week 20 of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman without proteinuria
40
What is preeclampsia?
Development of hypertension and proteinuria in previously normotensive woman after 20 weeks of gestation
41
What is eclampsia?
Development of seizures or coma not attributable to other causes in preeclamptic women
42
What are common lab changes in preeclampsia?
Elevated liver enzymes, thrombocytopenia, renal insufficiency
43
What is the first-line medication for controlling BP in preeclampsia?
Nifedipine
44
What is the antidote to magnesium sulfate?
Calcium gluconate
45
What is shoulder dystocia?
Head is born but the anterior shoulder cannot pass under the pubic arch
46
What is postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
Greatest risk for early PPH is during the first hour after delivery
47
What is uterine atony?
Hypotonia of the uterus; associated with high parity and overdistension
48
What are the signs of subinvolution?
* Prolonged lochial discharge * Irregular or excessive bleeding * Larger than normal boggy uterus
49
What medication is contraindicated with hypertension?
Methergine
50
What is placenta previa?
Condition where placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment, leading to late pregnancy bleeding
51
What is a boggy uterus?
Larger than normal uterus that is boggy (not firm) ## Footnote Indicates potential subinvolution or other complications.
52
What treatments may be required for subinvolution?
Methergine, D&C if retained placental fragments, Antibiotics if cause is infection ## Footnote Treatment is dependent on the underlying cause.
53
What medication is contraindicated with hypertension?
Methergine ## Footnote It can exacerbate high blood pressure.
54
What medication is contraindicated with asthma?
Hemabate ## Footnote Can cause bronchoconstriction.
55
What is placenta previa?
Late pregnancy bleeding with placenta implanted in lower uterine segment near or over internal cervical os ## Footnote Can lead to significant complications during delivery.
56
What are risk factors for placenta previa?
* Previous C/S * Advanced maternal age * History of prior suction curettage * Living at higher altitude * Smoking ## Footnote These factors can increase the likelihood of placenta previa.
57
What are the clinical manifestations of placenta previa?
Painless bright red bleeding during 2nd and 3rd trimester, soft, relaxed nontender uterus with normal tone ## Footnote Important for diagnosis and management.
58
What is placental abruption?
Detachment of part or all of placenta from implantation site after 20 weeks gestation ## Footnote Can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications.
59
What are risk factors for placental abruption?
* Cocaine use * Blunt external abdominal trauma * Maternal hypertension * Cigarette smoking * History of abruption * Prelabor Premature Rupture of Membranes ## Footnote Identifying these factors is crucial for prevention.
60
What are the clinical manifestations of placental abruption?
* Vaginal bleeding * Abdominal pain * Uterine tenderness * Contractions * Boardlike abdomen ## Footnote These signs indicate a potentially life-threatening situation.
61
What is the incidence of pregestational diabetes in pregnancies?
Only 10% of pregnancies complicated by diabetes occur in women who have preexisting disease ## Footnote Type 2 diabetes is more common in this group.
62
What is the impact of poor glycemic control around conception?
Associated with increased incidence of miscarriage and development of preeclampsia ## Footnote Emphasizes the importance of preconception counseling.
63
What are the fetal/neonatal risks associated with poor glycemic control?
* Congenital malformations * Respiratory distress * Extreme prematurity * Intrauterine fetal demise * Hyperinsulinism leading to macrosomia * Birth injuries ## Footnote Risks are particularly high when hyperglycemia occurs in the first trimester.
64
What are the target glucose levels for managing diabetes in pregnancy?
* Fasting glucose 60-90 * 1 hour post meal <140 * 2 hour post meal <120 ## Footnote Maintaining these levels is crucial for maternal and fetal health.
65
What changes occur in insulin requirements during pregnancy?
Weeks 6-10: insulin dose decreased by 10-25%; 2nd/3rd trimesters: dose must be increased significantly ## Footnote Insulin needs peak at 36 weeks.
66
What is the goal of intrapartum care for pregestational diabetes?
Maintain glucose levels and provide IV fluids with dextrose if necessary ## Footnote Essential for energy during labor and delivery.
67
What is the incidence of gestational diabetes in pregnancies in the US?
Complicates 9.2% of all pregnancies ## Footnote More likely in certain ethnic groups.
68
What are the maternal risks associated with gestational diabetes?
* Preeclampsia (18% if not well controlled) * Cesarean birth (17-25%) * Development of Type 2 diabetes later in life (up to 70%) ## Footnote These risks highlight the importance of managing gestational diabetes.
69
What is the critical period for organ formation in relation to gestational diabetes?
No increased risk of birth defects has been found with GDM as the critical period has passed ## Footnote However, risks for birth trauma and metabolic issues remain.
70
What is the aim of antepartum care for gestational diabetes?
Strict blood sugar control ## Footnote Key to minimizing complications.
71
What is the APGAR score?
Rapid assessment of newborn’s overall status done at 1 minute and 5 minutes of life ## Footnote Can be repeated every 5 minutes until 20 minutes of age.
72
What are the five signs assessed in the APGAR score?
* Heart rate * Respiratory effort * Muscle tone * Reflex irritability * Generalized skin color ## Footnote Each sign is scored from 0 to 2.
73
What are signs of hypoglycemia in newborns?
* Jitteriness * Lethargy * Poor feeding * Abnormal cry * Hypotonia * Temperature instability * Respiratory distress * Apnea * Seizures ## Footnote Hypoglycemia can be present without clinical manifestations.
74
Which reflexes are present in newborns and until what age?
* Root and suck (till 4 months) * Moro (till 6 months) * Palmar (4-6 months) * Plantar grasp (9mos-1 year) * Babinski (till 1 year) * Tonic neck/fencing position (till 4 months) * Stepping (3-4 months) ## Footnote These reflexes are important indicators of neurological development.
75
What is the significance of the nipple assessment during breastfeeding?
A= normal nipple everts with gentle pressure; B= inverted nipple inverts with gentle pressure ## Footnote Helps assess readiness for breastfeeding.

Maternity Final (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions