Finals Flashcards
(205 cards)
1
Q
are the health professionals most accessible to public
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
community pharamacy
2
Q
- mercury drug
- watsons
- rose pharmacy
- the generic pharmacy
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
community pharmacy
3
Q
hostpitals and other institutions and facilities, such as outpatient clinics
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
hospital pharmacy
4
Q
Counseling of patients at the time of dispensing of prescription and non-prescription drugs
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Community pharmacy
5
Q
Drug information to health professionals, patients and the general public
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Community pharmacy
6
Q
Participation in health-promotion programs
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Community pharmacy
7
Q
Extemporaneous preparation and small-scale manufacture of medicines
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Community pharmacy
8
Q
Responding to symptoms of minor ailments
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Community pharmacy
9
Q
Has more opportunity to interact closely with the prescriber and promote the rational prescribing and use of drugs;
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
10
Q
Having access to medical records for assisting in the selection of drugs and dosage regimen thus recommend changes where necessary;
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
11
Q
To monitor patient compliance and therapeutic response to drugs
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
12
Q
Recognize and report adverse drug reactions
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
13
Q
Serves as a member of policy-making committees like Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (P & TC), those concerned with drug selection, the use of antibiotics, and hospital infections and influences in the preparation and composition of an essential drug list or formulary;
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
14
Q
Can control hospital manufacture and procurement of drugs to ensure the supply of high-quality products;
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
15
Q
Takes part in the planning and implementation of clinical trials.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Hospital pharmacy
16
Q
provide patient care that optimizes medication therapy and promotes health, disease prevention and promotes rational medication use.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Clinical pharmacy
17
Q
works directly with medical professionals and patients, usually in a medical center, hospital or health care unit.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Clinical pharmacy
18
Q
determine the best medications for a given symptom for a patient at a given time.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Clinical pharmacy
19
Q
are responsible in monitoring patient’s response to drug therapy.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Clinical pharmacy
20
Q
are responsible for selecting appropriate drugs, for monitoring the progress of their patients, for diagnosing potentially untreated illnesses, for consulting with the patient on the effects of the drugs, and for ensuring the patients follow prescribed drug regimens.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Clinical pharmacy
21
Q
Research pharmacist will work mainly on (1) contributing to the development of medicines and (2) evaluating pharmaceutical care and services.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Drug research
22
Q
Research pharmacists can assist investigators in basic, clinical and translational research
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Drug research
23
Q
Pharmacists will work with other scientists to develop and select drug compounds that maybe valuable as medicines during the discovery phase
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Drug research
24
Q
Design a research plan, apply research protocol and disseminate the results of the research
a. hospital pharmacy
b. community pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacy
d. drug research
A
Drug research
25
is a field that specialized in creating drugs and medications.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
26
Test medications for efficiency and safety
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
27
Oversee the production process to ensure medications are produced accurately
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
28
Engage marketing and promoting new drugs to consumers, hospitals and doctor’s offices
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
29
Conducting clinical drug trials and evaluating the results of these trials to gauge a drug’s effectiveness and to determine potential risks or side effect
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
30
engage in education, pharmaceutical practice and research in schools of pharmacy. Undergraduate, postgraduate and continuing education require the educators to have expertise in the various pharmaceutical sciences.
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmacist in the academe
31
Duties include administrative activities, scientific research, teaching professional student pharmacists
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmacist in the academe
32
Supervising research and teaching graduate students
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmacist in the academe
33
Speaking and/or publishing in scientific venues
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmacist in the academe
34
Teaching student pharmacists through experiential practice
a. hospital pharmacy
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmacist in the academe
35
sometimes called as medico-marketing or pharma marketing is engaged in advertising or promoting the sale of pharmaceutical drugs. Pharmaceutical marketing involves management of marketing programs that promote products to health-care professionals, while assisting with sales goals.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
36
Management of merchants and external marketing agencies engaged in company promotions
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
37
Branding, communications and development are also common responsibilities
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
38
Development of business strategies, such as pricing strategies
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
39
Identify and analyze competitions
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
40
Research new target markets
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
41
Assists with events and trade-show activities
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. drug research
Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
42
They are known as “Regulatory Pharmacist”. Pharmacists work as regulatory pharmacists in both private and public sectors.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Production regulation
43
Regulatory pharmacists are involved in all stages of development and marketing of drugs.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Production regulation
44
Obtaining authorization of medicines for use in clinical trials
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Production regulation
45
Registration and marketing and the post-approval surveillance activities such as safety updates, licensing applications for prescribing information, new clinical uses or new formulations, etc.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Production regulation
46
Act as the link between the company and the local regulatory authorities on matters relating to the quality, safety and efficacy issues of drugs.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Manufacturing or industrial pharmacy and quality assurance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Production regulation
47
is defined as the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problem.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Pharmacovigilance
48
Collect and record adverse drug reactions
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Pharmocovigilance
49
Creates standard operating procedures, individual case study report, literature screening and regulatory reporting
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Pharmacist in the academe
d. Production regulation
Pharmacovigilance
50
are involved in advance pharmacy practice, health policy development, emergency and humanitarian response and global health. This is primarily concerned with health education, health promotion and disease prevention interventions.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Public health and pharmaceutical policy
d. Production regulation
Public health and pharmaceutical policy
51
Provide public health services
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Public health and pharmaceutical policy
d. Production regulation
Public health and pharmaceutical policy
52
Act as information resources on lifestyle changes that can influence healthy outcomes.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Public health and pharmaceutical policy
d. Production regulation
Public health and pharmaceutical policy
53
Involved in health screenings (e.g. diabetes, cholesterol, osteoporosis), immunizations, pain control, participatory and counseling/health education.
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Public health and pharmaceutical policy
d. Production regulation
Public health and pharmaceutical policy
54
Provide information on self-management (hypertension, asthma, HIV), smoking cessation, alcohol, tobacco and other drug use prevention, family planning, medication indications and conditions (like dyslipidemia).
a. Pharmaceutical Marketing and retail
b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Public health and pharmaceutical policy
d. Production regulation
Public health and pharmaceutical policy
55
play a key role in treating diseases, reduce symptoms, prevent diseases and slow down the worsening of the illness. It is commonly used by doctors in treating patients. The medicines are handles by pharmacists by law.
a. Medicine
b. Therapeutic classification
c. Dosage forms
Medicine
56
are pharmaceutical drug products in the form in which they are marketed for use, with a specific mixture of active ingredients and inactive components (known as excipients) in a particular configuration (such as tablet or capsule) and apportioned into a particular dose.
a. Medicine
b. Therapeutic classification
c. Dosage forms
Dosage form
57
determined by the drug’s intended use in treating a disease.
a. Medicine
b. Therapeutic classification
c. Dosage forms
Therapeutic classification
58
The finely divided powders are
intended to be suspended or dissolved in water or mixed with soft food prior administration.
a. Effervescent powder
b. Oral Powders
c. Dentifrices
d. Douche Powders
Oral powder
59
for solution in water releases carbon dioxide which makes for the taste of salty or bitter medication.
a. Effervescent powder
b. Oral Powders
c. Dentifrices
d. Douche Powders
Effervescent powder
60
may be prepared in the form of bulk powder generally containing soap or detergent, mild abrasive and anticaries effect.
a. Effervescent powder
b. Oral Powders
c. Dentifrices
d. Douche Powders
Dentifrice
61
soluble powders intended to be dissolved in water prior to use as antiseptic or cleaning agent for a body cavity. They are most commonly intended for vaginal use.
a. Effervescent powder
b. Oral Powders
c. Dentifrices
d. Douche Powders
Douches powder
62
They are applied locally to various parts of the body as adsorbents, antiseptics, antipruritic, astringents and antiperspirants.
a. Insufflations
b. Oral Powders
c. Dusting powder
d. Douche Powders
Dusting powder
63
finely divided powders introduced into the body cavities such as the ears, nose, throat, tooth sockets, and vagina with the use of insufflator (powder blower).
a. Insufflations
b. Tablet
c. Dusting powder
d. Capsules
Insufflations
64
are dosage forms in which unit doses of powder, semisolid, or liquid drugs are enclosed in a hard
or soft, water- soluble containeror shell of gelatin.
a. Insufflations
b. Tablet
c. Dusting powder
d. Capsules
Capsules
65
These are solid dosage forms containing drug substance with or without suitable diluents and are
prepared either by compression or molding method.
a. Insufflations
b. Tablet
c. Dusting powder
d. Capsules
Tablets
66
is designed to pass unchanged
through the stomach to the
intestines, where it disintegrates,
dissolves & absorbs.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Film-coated Tablet (FCT)
c. Enteric-coated Tablet (ECT)
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Enteric-coated Tablet (ECT)
67
tablet coated with a colored or uncolored sugar layer.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Film-coated Tablet (FCT)
c. Enteric-coated Tablet (ECT)
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
68
tablets coated with a thin layer of polymer capable of forming a skin like film.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Film-coated Tablet (FCT)
c. Enteric-coated Tablet (ECT)
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Film-coated Tablet (FCT)
69
made by more than one
compression cycle. They are usually
prepared to separate physically or
chemically incompatible ingredients or to produce repeat or prolong action of drug.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Film-coated Tablet (FCT)
c. Enteric-coated Tablet (ECT)
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
70
is designed to release the drug's active ingredient gradually over the day.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Controlled-release Tablet
(CRT)
c. Gelatin-coated tablet
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Controlled-release Tablet
(CRT)
71
gelcap, a capsule shape compressed tablet that allows the coated product to be about one-third smaller than a capsule filled
with an equivalent amount of powder.
a. Sugar Coated tablet (SCT)
b. Controlled-release Tablet
(CRT)
c. Gelatin-coated tablet
d. Multiple Compressed Tablet (MCT)
Gelatin-coated tablet
72
involves placing the tablet between the gums and the inner lining of the cheek
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Gelatin-coated tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Buccal tablets
73
involves placing a drug under the
tongue to dissolve and absorb into your blood through the tissue there.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Effervescent Tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Sublingual tablets
74
contain medicinal substances that
dissolve generally when added to water.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Effervescent Tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Effervescent tablet
75
have a smooth disintegration when
chewed or allowed to dissolve in the mouth.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Immediate release tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Chewable tablets
76
are designed to disintegrate and
release their medication with no
special rate controlling features
such as special coating and techniques.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Immediate release tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Immediate release tablet
77
are very soft, and soluble and are designed for rapid dissolution.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Molded tablet
d. Sublingual tablets
Molded tablet
78
small, cylindrical tablets containing small amounts of potent drugs.
a. Buccal tablets
b. Chewable tablets
c. Tablet triturates
d. Sublingual tablets
Tablet triturates
79
also known as compounding tablets, pharmacist used them to compound prescription.
a. Dispensing tablets (DT)
b. Lozenges/Troches/ Pastilles
c. Lollipops
d. Hypodermic tablets (HT)
Dispensing tablets (DT)
80
used in extemporaneous preparations of parenteral solutions.
No longer available.
a. Dispensing tablets (DT)
b. Lozenges/Troches/ Pastilles
c. Lollipops
d. Hypodermic tablets (HT)
Hypodermic tablets (HT)
81
are discoid shaped solid containing the medicinal agent in suitable flavored base. They are placed in the mouth where they are slowly
dissolve.
a. Dispensing tablets (DT)
b. Lozenges/Troches/ Pastilles
c. Lollipops
d. Hypodermic tablets (HT)
Lozenges/Troches/ Pastilles
82
are lozenges type of oral solid dosage form with a short stick inserted into it which produces local effect in the mouth.
a. Dispensing tablets (DT)
b. Lozenges/Troches/ Pastilles
c. Lollipops
d. Hypodermic tablets (HT)
Lollipops
83
small, round, solid dosage form
containing medicinal agents and
intended for oral administration.
a. Pills
b. Cachets
c. Pellets
d. Ointments
Pills
84
related to capsules in as much as they provide an edible container for the oral administration of solid drugs.
a. Pills
b. Cachets
c. Pellets
d. Ointments
Cachets
85
are small, sterile cylinders
formed by compression from
medicated masses.
a. Pills
b. Cachets
c. Pellets
d. Ointments
Pellets
86
semi solid preparations intended for external application to the skin/mucous membranes, usually
contain medicinal substance.
a. Pills
b. Cachets
c. Pellets
d. Ointments
Ointments
87
viscous liquid or semi solid emulsions of O/W or W/O type. O/W type includes shaving creams, hand
creams, foundation cream. W/O type creams include cold creams and emollient creams.
a. Pills
b. Creams
c. Transdermal preparations
d. Suppositories and Inserts
Creams
88
are semisolid systems consisting of dispersion made up of either small inorganic particles or large organic
molecules enclosing and interpenetrated by a liquid.
a. Pills
b. Gels
c. Transdermal preparations
d. Suppositories and Inserts
Gels
89
deliver drugs directly through the skin and into the bloodstream.
a. Creams
b. Ointments
c. Transdermal preparations
d. Suppositories and Inserts
Transdermal preparations
90
are solid dosage form intended for insertion into body orifices (rectum,
vagina, or urethra)
a. Creams
b. Ointments
c. Transdermal preparations
d. Suppositories and Inserts
Suppositories and inserts
91
are homogeneous mixtures of
one or more solutes dispersed in a dissolving medium (solvent).
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Aqueous acids
d. Aromatic water
Solutions
92
used mainly as a vehicle and as a solvent for the desired flavoring or medicinal ingredients.
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Aqueous acids
d. Aromatic water
Water
93
clear saturated aqueous solutions of volatile oils used mainly as flavored
or perfumed vehicles.
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Aqueous acids
d. Aromatic water
Aromatic water
94
inorganic acids and certain acids, of minor significance as therapeutic agents but are of greater importance in chemical and
pharmaceutical manufacturing.
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Douches
d. Enemas
Aqueous acid
95
aqueous solutions directed against a part or into a cavity of the body. They function as a cleansing
agent or antiseptic agent.
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Douches
d. Enemas
Douches
96
can be retention or evacuation
enemas. Evacuation enemas are rectal preparations employed to evacuate the bowel.
a. Water
b. Solutions
c. Douches
d. Enemas
Enemas
97
aqueous solutions used for treating the nasopharynx by forcing air from the lungs through gargle which is held in the throat.
a. Water
b. Gargle
c. Mouthwash
d. Enemas
Gargle
98
aqueous solutions which are most often used for their deodorizing, refreshing and antiseptic effect.
a. Water
b. Gargle
c. Mouthwash
d. Enemas
Mouthwash
99
prepared from fresh ripe fruits, aqueous in character and used in making syrups which are used as vehicles.
a. Water
b. Gargle
c. Juice
d. Syrups
Juice
100
concentrated solutions of sugar such as sucrose in water or other aqueous liquid. They are used as flavored syrup or medicated syrup.
a. Water
b. Gargle
c. Juice
d. Syrups
Syrups
101
thick liquid preparations somewhat
allied to the syrup and used as a base instead of syrup.
a. Water
b. Gargle
c. Juice
d. Honey
Honey
102
thick, viscid, adhesive liquids produced by dispersing gum in water or by extracting with water
the mucilaginous principles from
vegetable substances.
a. Water
b. Mucilages
c. Juice
d. Honey
Mucilages
103
class of gel in which the structural coherent matrix contain a high proportion of liquid, usually water. They are used as lubricant for surgical gloves, catheters, and rectal thermometer.
a. Jellies
b. Mucilages
c. Elixirs
d. Collodion
Jellies
104
contains pyroxylin in a mixture
of ethyl ether and ethanol.
a. Jellies
b. Mucilages
c. Elixirs
d. Collodion
Colliodon
105
clear, pleasantly flavored
sweetened hydroalcoholic liquids
intended for oral use.
a. Jellies
b. Mucilages
c. Elixirs
d. Collodion
Elixirs
106
solution or mixture of medicinal substances in not less than 50% by weight of glycerin.
a. Jellies
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Collodion
Glycerin or glycerites
107
are drugs administered by the nasal or oral respiratory route for local or systemic effect. Nebulizers are used for the administration of inhalation.
a. Jellies
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Collodion
Inhalations & inhalants
108
solutions or mixtures of various substances in oil, alcoholic
solutions of soap or emulsion. They
are intended for external application. They are applied by being rubbed on the affected area.
a. Jellies
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Liniments
Liniments
109
fish liver oils diluted with edible vegetable oil or solution of volatile
substances of the indicated vitamins in vitamin concentrates (vit. A and D) in fish liver oil.
a. Oleo vitamins
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Spirits (essence)
Oleo vitamins
110
are alcoholic hydro-alcohol solutions of volatile substance used medicinally as inhalation or as
flavoring agent.
a. Oleo vitamins
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Spirits (essence)
Spirits (essence)
111
preparation used for temporary relief of toothache by application of cotton saturated with the product into the tooth cavity.
a. Toothache drops
b. Glycerin or glycerites
c. Inhalations & inhalants
d. Spirits (essence)
Toothache drops
112
concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal drug obtained by removal of the active constituents of the respective drugs with suitable menstruum, evaporation of all or nearly all of the solvent and adjustment of the residual masses or powders to the prescribed standard.
a. Toothache drops
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Spirits (essence)
Extracts
113
are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic
solutions of chemical or soluble
constituents of vegetable drugs.
a. Toothache drops
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Spirits (essence)
Tinctures
114
liquid preparation of vegetable
drugs containing alcohol as a solvent or as a preservative, or both, so made that each mL contains the therapeutic constituents of 1 gram of standard drug that it represents.
a. Fluidextracts
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Spirits (essence)
Fluidextracts
115
are dispersions of finely divided solid particles of a drug in a liquid medium in which the drug is not readily soluble.
a. Fluidextracts
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Suspension
Suspension
116
is a thermodynamically unstable system that consists of two
immiscible liquid phases—dispersed as globules (dispersed phase) and a liquid phase (continuous phase)—that are stabilized by the presence of an emulsifying agent.
a. Emulsion
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Suspension
Emulsion
117
are pressurized dosage forms that upon actuation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid
materials containing one or more active ingredients in a gaseous medium.
a. Emulsion
b. Extracts
c. Tinctures
d. Aerosol
Aerosols
118
sterile preparation intended to
be administered by injection under or through one or more layers of skin. They are usually packed in ampules or vials.
a. Parenteral Preparation
b. Intravenous admixture
c. Intravenous fluids (IVF)
d. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Parenteral Preparation
119
a combination of one or more sterile products added to an IV fluid for administration.
a. Parenteral Preparation
b. Intravenous admixture
c. Intravenous fluids (IVF)
d. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Intravenous admixture
120
sterile, large volume solutions
intended to be administered via infusions; they contain sugar, amino acids and electrolytes.
a. Parenteral Preparation
b. Intravenous admixture
c. Intravenous fluids (IVF)
d. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Intravenous fluids (IVF)
121
it contains amino acids, carbohydrates, lipids and other nutrients in sufficient quantities.
a. Parenteral Preparation
b. Intravenous admixture
c. Intravenous fluids (IVF)
d. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
122
a suspension of attenuated (live) or inactivated (killed) microbes used to stimulate the production of antibodies & provide immunity against one or several diseases.
a. Vaccines
b. Toxoids
c. Human Immune sera
d. Immunoglobulin
Vaccines
123
a chemically modified toxin
from a pathogenic microorganism,
which is no longer toxic but is still
antigenic and can be used as a
vaccine.
a. Vaccines
b. Toxoids
c. Human Immune sera
d. Immunoglobulin
Toxoids
124
contain that specific antibodies obtained from the blood of humans and produces as a result of having had the specific disease or having
immunized against it with a specific biologic product.
a. Vaccines
b. Toxoids
c. Human Immune sera
d. Immunoglobulin
Human Immune sera
125
a solution containing antibodies from the pooled plasma of not less than 1,000 normal individuals.
a. Vaccines
b. Toxoids
c. Human Immune sera
d. Immunoglobulin
Immunoglobulin
126
a special preparation obtained from human donor pools selected for high antibody titer against a specific
disease.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Antitoxin
c. Human Immune sera
d. Hyper immune serum
Hyper immune serum
127
a solution of antibodies
derived from the serum of animals
immunized with specific toxins
used to achieve passive immunity or to effect a treatment.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Antitoxin
c. Human Immune sera
d. Hyper immune serum
Antitoxins
128
a solution of antibodies derived from the serum of animals immunized with specific viral vaccines.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Antitoxin
c. Human Immune sera
d. Hyper immune serum
Antiviral serum
129
a preparation of antibodies derived from the serumof animal immunized with specific venom used to neutralize the venoms produced by the specific organism.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Antivenin
c. Human Immune sera
d. Hyper immune serum
Antivenin
130
sterile preparations to be used on the eyes
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Antivenin
c. Human Immune sera
d. Opthalmic
Opthalmic
131
intended for the eye; clear, sterile solution to be instilled into
the eyes by the use of dropper.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Opthalmic
Solutions
132
used in medicine for therapeutic
and diagnostic purposes.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Otic preparations
Radiopharmaceuticals
133
are placed in the ear canal in small amounts for removal of excess cerumen or for treatment of ear
infection, inflammation or pain.
a. Antiviral Serum
b. Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Otic preparations
Otic preparations
134
are drugs orsolutions of drugs administered by the nasal or oral respiratory route.
a. Inhalation solutions
b. Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Otic preparations
Inhalation solutions
135
isotonic; in an acceptable pH range nonreactive with lens material and sterile solution which exhibits disinfecting activity.
a. Disinfecting solutions
b. Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Otic preparations
Disinfecting solutions
136
used to store and hydrate hard lenses and to disinfect
lenses.
a. Disinfecting solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Otic preparations
Soaking solutions
137
solution intended to
rewet hard lenses.
a. Disinfecting solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Artificial tears
Artificial tears
138
Used to remove surface contaminants, lipids, proteins and the like.
a. Cleaning solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Wetting solutions
Cleaning solutions
139
preparations designed to furnish hydrophilic coating over the characteristically hydrophilic surface of hard contact lens surfaces.
a. Cleaning solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Radiopharmaceuticals
d. Wetting solutions
Wetting solution
140
dispersion of finely divided relatively insoluble drugs substances in an aqueous vehicle containing suitable suspending and dispersing agent.
a. Cleaning solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Ointments
d. Suspension
Suspension
141
contain medicinal agents added to the ointment base either a solution or as micronized powder. They are limited to bedtime installations.
a. Cleaning solutions
b. Soaking Solutions
c. Ointments
d. Suspension
Ointments
142
drug that relieves pain without inducing loss of consciousness
a. Analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti-gout
Analgesic
143
drug that eliminates pain perception in limited area by local action on sensory nerves.
a. Analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti-gout
Local anesthetic
144
a medication used to control seizures
or stop an ongoing series of seizures.
a. Analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti-gout
Anticonvulsant
145
Agents that work by correcting the
overproduction of uric acid which causes intense inflammatory reaction.
a. Analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti-gout
Anti-gout
146
intended to reduce the effects/ intensity of migraine characterized by recurrent headaches that are
moderate to severe headache.
a. Analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti migraine
Anti migraine
147
drug that suppresses the neurologic disturbances and symptoms of parkinsonism.
a. Anti-parkinsonism
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti migraine
Anti-parkinsonism
148
drug that reduces fever by lowering the body temperature.
a. Antipyretic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anti migraine
Antipyretic
149
a CNS depressant used to induce sleep
a. Anti-parkinsonism
b. Hypnotic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anxiolytic
Hypnotic
150
drug that suppresses symptom of anxiety.
a. Anti-parkinsonism
b. Hypnotic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Anxiolytic
Anxiolytic
151
a centrally acting drug that induces
mood elevation, useful in treating mental depression.
a. Anti-parkinsonism
b. Hypnotic
c. Antidepressants
d. Anxiolytic
Antidepressant
152
drug that suppresses symptoms of
psychoses of various diagnostic types.
a. Anti-psychotic
b. Hypnotic
c. Antidepressants
d. Anxiolytic
Anti-psychotic
153
a drug that suppress dizziness
a. Anti-vertigo
b. Hypnotic
c. Antidepressants
d. Anxiolytic
Anti-vertigo
154
drug that suppresses motion
sickness like nausea, vomiting, and vertigo
a. Anti-vertigo
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Antidepressants
d. Anxiolytic
Anti-motion sickness
155
an analgesic, anti-inflammatory drug that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
a. Anti-vertigo
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
d. Muscle relaxant
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
156
works by causing the muscles to
become less tense or stiff, which in turn reduces pain and discomfort.
a. Anti-vertigo
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
d. Muscle relaxant
Muscle relaxant
157
anti-inflammatory drug used to treat arthritis and rheumatoid disorder.
a. Antirheumatic
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
d. Muscle relaxant
Antirheumatic
158
drug that paralyzes skeletal
muscles by preventing transmission of neural impulses to them.
a. Antirheumatic
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
d. Neuromuscular blocker
Neuromuscular blocker
159
drug that kills or inhibit protozoan parasites such as Entameoba histolytica, causative organism of amebiasis.
a. Antirheumatic
b. Anti-motion sickness
c. Antimoebic
d. Neuromuscular blocker
Antimoebic
160
drug that kills or inhibit pathogenic
bacteria.
a. Antirheumatic
b. Antibacterial
c. Antimoebic
d. Neuromuscular blocker
Antibacterial
161
drug that kills or inhibits pathogenic filarial worms.
a. Antifilarial
b. Antibacterial
c. Antimoebic
d. Neuromuscular blocker
Antifilarial
162
a. Antirheumatic
b. Antibacterial
c. Antimoebic
d. Neuromuscular blocker
163
drug that kills or inhibits pathogenic fungi.
a. Antifilarial
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Neuromuscular blocker
Antifungal
164
drug that kills or inhibits helminths
a. Antifilarial
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Antihelmintic
Antihelmintic
165
drug that kills or inhibits Mycobacterium leprae, causative agent of leprosy.
a. Antifilarial
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Antileprosy
Antileprosy
166
drug that kills or inhibits protozoal like in the case of malaria.
a. Antifilarial
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Antiprotozoal
Antiprotozoal
167
drug that kills or inhibits virus
a. Antiviral
b. Antibacterial
c. Antifungal
d. Antileprosy
Antiviral
168
drug that kills or inhibits pathogenic
flukes of genus Schistosoma.
a. Antiviral
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Antifungal
d. Antileprosy
Anti-schistosomal
169
an antigen containing drug used to induce active immunity against an infectious disease.
a. Vaccine
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Antifungal
d. Antileprosy
Vaccine
170
a serum of an animal or human containing antibodies against a specific disease.
a. Vaccine
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Immune sera
d. Antileprosy
Immune sera
171
are medicines that stimulate certain
nerves in your body. They do this by mimicking the action of the chemical messengers epinephrine & norepinephrine or by stimulating their release.
a. Adrenergic agent
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Immune sera
d. Antileprosy
Adrenergic agent
172
agent that increases the contractile
strength of heart muscle, a cardiotonic.
a. Adrenergic agent
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Inotropic agent
d. Antileprosy
Inotropic agent
173
a coronary vasodilator useful in preventing or treating attacks of angina pectoris (chest pain).
a. Antianginal
b. Anti-schistosomal
c. Inotropic agent
d. Antileprosy
Antianginal
174
useful in suppressing rhythm irregularities of the heart.
a. Antianginal
b. Antiarrhythmic
c. Inotropic agent
d. Antileprosy
Antiarrhythmic
175
drug that lowerslipid in the blood.
a. Antihyperlipidemic
b. Antiarrhythmic
c. Inotropic agent
d. Antileprosy
Antihyperlipidemic
176
drug that promotes renal excretion of water & electrolytes useful in treating generalized edema.
a. Antihyperlipidemic
b. Diuretic
c. Inotropic agent
d. Antileprosy
Diuretic
177
drugs that relieves asthma symptoms.
a. Anti-asthma
b. Antitussive
c. Mucolytic
d. Nasal decongestant
Anti-asthma
178
drug that suppresses coughing
a. Anti-asthma
b. Antitussive
c. Mucolytic
d. Nasal decongestant
Antitussive
179
an agent which dissolves thick mucus and usually used to help relieve respiratory difficulties.
a. Anti-asthma
b. Antitussive
c. Mucolytic
d. Nasal decongestant
Mucolytic
180
a drug used to relieve nasal congestion in the upper respiratory tract.
a. Anti-asthma
b. Antitussive
c. Mucolytic
d. Nasal decongestant
Nasal decongestant
181
drug that attacks malignant cell in the body.
a. Antineoplastic
b. Immunosuppressants
c. Mucolytic
d. Nasal decongestant
Antineoplastic
182
drugs that inhibits immune response to foreign materials, used to suppress rejection of tissue graft.
a. Antineoplastic
b. Immunosuppressants
c. Antihistamine
d. Nasal decongestant
Immunosuppressants
183
a drug or other compound that
inhibits the physiological effects of histamine, used especially in the treatment of allergies.
a. Antineoplastic
b. Immunosuppressants
c. Antihistamine
d. Nasal decongestant
Antihistamine
184
drug used to treat anemia
a. Antineoplastic
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Nasal decongestant
Anti-anemic
185
drug administered to slow clotting of circulating blood, prophylactically to prevent heart attack.
a. Antineoplastic
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Anticoagulant
Anticoagulant
186
drug that promotes removal of small fibrin clots
a. Fibrinolytic
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Anticoagulant
Fibrinolytic
187
Drug that promotes homeostasis by inhibiting clot dissolution.
a. Anti Fibrinolytic
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Anticoagulant
Anti Fibrinolytic
188
used to treat patients who have suffered hemorrhage or shock.
a. Plasma expander/substitute
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Anticoagulant
Plasma expander/substitute
189
sterile solution of proteins composed of albumin & globulin from human plasma; used as a replacement therapy in patients with complex deficiencies of coagulation factors such as coagulopathy.
a. Plasma expander/substitute
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Plasma protein fraction
Plasma protein fraction
190
drug that reduces the effects of
ingested poisons by adsorbing toxic material.
a. General antidote
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Specific antidotes
General antidote
191
drug that reduces the effects of a
systemic poison by a mechanism that relates to the particularpoison.
a. General antidote
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Specific antidotes
Specific antidotes
192
drug that neutralizes excess
gastric acid.
a. Antacids
b. Anti-anemic
c. Antihistamine
d. Specific antidotes
Antacids
193
drug that inhibits histamine-induced gastric acid secretion used to treat peptic and duodenal ulcers
a. Antacids
b. Anti-anemic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Specific antidotes
H2 antagonist
194
this is given to protect the eroded
ulcer sited in the GIT from further damage by acid and digestive enzymes.
a. Antacids
b. Anti-anemic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Mucosal Protectant
Mucosal Protectant
195
used to relieve spasm of involuntary muscle like those of smooth muscle in the bowel wall.
a. Antacids
b. Anti-anemic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Antispasmodic drug
Antispasmodic drug
196
drug that suppresses nausea and vomiting.
a. Antacids
b. Antiemetic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Antiemetic
Antiemetic
197
drugs used to alleviate symptoms of diarrhea.
a. Antacids
b. Antiemetic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Antimotility
Antimotiliy
198
drug that promotes defecation
a. Antacids
b. Laxative, cathartic
c. H2 antagonist
d. Antimotility
Laxative, cathartic
199
hormones produces by the sex organs which play an important role in the development of sexual
characteristics.
a. Antacids
b. Laxative, cathartic
c. Sex hormone
d. Antimotility
Sex hormone
200
a drug that prevents conception.
a. Hormonal contraceptive
b. Laxative, cathartic
c. Sex hormone
d. Antimotility
Hormonal contraceptive
201
hormone thatmaintains metabolic
function and normal metabolic rate
a. Hormonal contraceptive
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Sex hormone
d. Antimotility
Thyroid hormone
202
drug that reduces thyroid hormone action usually inhibiting hormone synthesis.
a. Hormonal contraceptive
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Sex hormone
d. Anti thyroid
Anti thyroid
203
drug that supplies insulin or stimulates the secretion of insulin useful in the treatment of diabetes mellitus.
a. Hormonal contraceptive
b. Anti-diabetic
c. Sex hormone
d. Antimotility
Anti-diabetic
204
a drug that induces labor by stimulating contractions of the muscles of the uterus.
a. Oxytocic or uterine stimulant
b. Anti-diabetic
c. Tocolytic or uterine relaxant
d. Antimotility
Oxytocic or uterine stimulant
205
drug used to suppress premature labor
a. Oxytocic or uterine stimulant
b. Anti-diabetic
c. Tocolytic or uterine relaxant
d. Antimotility
Tocolytic or uterine relaxant
