First Aid for the USMLE Step 2 CK: Gynecology Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

What order do thelarche, menarche, pubarche, and growth acceleration take place in female puberty?

A

1) Growth development
2) Thelarche
3) Pubarche
4) Menarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The __________ triggers ovulation and stimulates the production of progesterone.

A

LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The follicular phase comes ___________ the luteal phase.

A

before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The follicular phase is also called the __________ phase.

A

secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which peaks first, estrogen of LH?

A

Estrogen (because of the FSH rise beforehand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The corpus luteum can survive about __________ days without further LH or hCG.

A

10 - 14 days (the luteal phase, basically)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The change from _________ to ___________ causes the endometrial glands to become tortuous.

A

estrogen; progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the symptoms that characterize menopause.

A
  • Hot flashes
  • Vaginal atrophy (pruritus, vaginal dryness)
  • Insomnia
  • Anxiety/irritability
  • Poor concentration
  • Mood changes
  • Dyspareunia
  • Loss of libido
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In menopause, the __________ levels rise before the _________.

A

FSH; LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the lipid profile change during menopause?

A

The HDL goes down and the total cholesterol goes up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some contraindications to HRT?

A
  • Breast cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Thromboembolism
  • Liver disease
  • Triglyceridemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drugs are used to treat vasomotor symptoms of menopause?

A
  • Clonidine
  • Gabapentin
  • SNRIs
  • SSRIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Combined HRT protects against ______________.

A

ovarian and endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary is defined by two possible scenarios: ______________.

A
  • Absence of menarche and secondary sexual features by age 14
  • Absence of menarche by age 16 with secondary sexual features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List four causes of primary amenorrhea without secondary sexual characteristics.

A
  • Kallman syndrome
  • Hypogonadism
  • Primary ovarian insufficiency (such as Turner’s)
  • Constitutional growth delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Implanon contains what?

A

Progestin only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are four advantages to Implanon?

A
  • Effective for 3 years
  • Immediate fertility once removed
  • Safe with breastfeeding
  • Lighter periods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the rate of perforation in IUDs?

A

About 1/1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hormonal IUDs are effective for ________ years, while copper IUDs are effective for ________.

A

5; 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are two disadvantages of Depo (IM medroxyprogesterone)?

A
  • Irreversible infertility for up to ten months after discontinuation
  • Weight gain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you use the NuvaRing?

A

Three weeks continuously followed by one week without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One of the major downsides of progestin-only birth control is _______________.

A

that you need to strictly take it every day at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some contraindications to estrogen-containing pills?

A
  • Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
  • Estrogen dependent cancer
  • Liver failure
  • Breast cancer
  • History of clots
  • Tobacco use in someone older than 35
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List some contraindications for IUDs.

A
  • Active pelvic infection
  • Structural abnormality
  • Gynecologic malignancy
  • Reaction to copper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is in the morning-after pill?
Estrogen and progestin
26
In addition to pills, ___________ can also be used as emergency contraception (up to 7 days post coitus).
copper IUDs
27
The first step of working up amenorrhea is ______________.
a pregnancy test (even in primary amenorrhea)
28
A woman has secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhea, and no pubic hair. Diagnosis?
CAIS
29
List two structural and two hormonal causes of primary amenorrhea in a woman with secondary sexual characteristics.
Structural: • Imperforate hymen • Müllerian agenesis Hormonal: • CAIS • CAH
30
Give a differential for secondary amenorrhea.
It's good to think of systems-based ways, so here is a top-to-bottom outline: • Hypothalamus: neoplasms or functional disorders (like anorexia or stress) • Pituitary: neoplasm • Thyroid: hypothyroidism • Uterine: pregnancy, Asherman syndrome, cervical stenosis • Ovarian: premature ovarian insufficiency, PCOS
31
Those with PCOS have ___________ progesterone.
low The high levels of estrogen from fat inhibit the release of FSH and ovulation does not occur. Thus, progesterone remains low.
32
What two conditions present with absent uterus?
*  CAIS (46, XY) | *  Müllerian agenesis (46, XX)
33
What do a positive and negative progestin challenge indicate?
*  Positive (patient bleeds with progesterone withdrawal): PCOS or idiopathic anovulation *  Negative (patient doesn't bleed): premature ovarian failure or uterine abnormality
34
What features suggest primary dysmenorrhea?
* Pain during the first three days of menstruation *  Back pain * Absence of pathologic features on exam, lab workup, and history that would suggest other diagnosis (because primary dysmenorrhea is a diagnosis of exclusion)
35
True diagnosis of endometriosis and adenomyosis requires _______________.
laparoscopy to see lesions (in the case of endometriosis) and pathologic biopsy of the myometrium (in the case of adenomyosis); because this is costly and invasive, these diagnoses are usually made clinically
36
Although TAH is curative of endometriosis and adenomyosis, women who still want children can opt for _______________.
hysteroscopy with ablation of known lesions
37
Menorrhagia is ______________.
increased amount of blood
38
Metrorrhagia is ______________.
bleeding between periods
39
What things should you do to evaluate AUB?
*  ß-hCG to evaluate for pregnancy * CBC to assess anemia * PT/PTT and bleeding time to detect coagulopathy * Chlamydia and gonorrhea swab to test for cervicitis * TSH to test for hyperthyroidism *  US to detect endometrial stripe thickness and uterine/ovarian masses * Pap test
40
What should you do in acute heavy uterine bleeding?
* High dose estrogen or progestin can stabilize the endometrium *  If hormones fail, D&C can be done
41
___________ can be given during menses to stop heavy bleeding.
Tranexamic acid
42
____________ can help treat ovulatory and non-ovulatory bleeding.
Progestin IUDs and OCPs
43
Describe the classic form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Defective 21-alpha hydroxylase leads to lack of glucocorticoids and aldosterone with excess androgens. Presents with hypotension and virilization. The nonclassic form presents with normal blood pressure and later virilization.
44
What is cosyntropin?
Synthetic ACTH You can give it to assess adrenal insufficiency. If the levels of cortisol fail to rise after administration of cosyntropin, then adrenal insufficiency is likely.
45
Explain the Rotterdam criteria for PCOS diagnosis.
Must have at least two of the following: • Oligo/anovulation • Clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism • Polycystic ovaries Important: metabolic syndrome and obesity are common comorbidities, but are not necessary for diagnosis.
46
What other diseases do you need to rule out in diagnosing PCOS?
*  Adrenal tumor (secreting DHEA) *  Cushing syndrome * Nonclassic CAH * Androgen-secreting ovarian tumors
47
A woman has fever and a positive chandelier sign. What should you do to further evaluate?
* Swab to test for C. trachomatous and N. gonorrhoeae (to narrow treatment) * Ultrasound to rule out tubo-ovarian abscess
48
Although not necessary to diagnose PCOS, what other labs can be done to further the work up?
*  LH/FSH ratio greater than 2 *  TVU showing the "pearl necklace" sign in the ovary *  Metabolic testing (i.e., glucose challenge, lipids)
49
How should PCOS be treated?
* Clomiphene and metformin can induce ovulation (in women seeking to conceive) *  OCPs, progestin, and metformin can normalize ovulation *  Diet, weight loss, and exercise can treat obesity and metabolic syndrome *  Spironolactone can treat hirsutism
50
What are the complications of PCOS (things you should be screening for!)?
* Breast and endometrial cancer (due to unopposed estrogen) *  Diabetes *  Miscarriages
51
Women who've had myomectomy should never have _____________.
a subsequent vaginal delivery (must be caesarian section)
52
The two broad categories of clinical infertility are _______________.
primary infertility (in which the woman has never been pregnant) and secondary infertility (in which the woman has had a prior pregnancy)
53
What percent of infertility cases are due to problems in the woman?
58%
54
Bartholin cysts can cause what symptom?
Dyspareunia
55
Bacterial vaginosis is caused by _____________.
Gardnerella vaginalis
56
Thick white secretions that adhere to the vaginal wall are normal in what two physiologic states?
*  Pregnancy | *  Luteal phase
57
How are the ulcers from HSV different from those in H. ducreyi?
* HSV: shallow, painful, multiple | *  H. ducreyi: deep, painful, single
58
What organisms cause PID (by incidence)?
*  N. gonorrhoeae (1/3) *  C. trochomatis (1/3) *  Endogenous aerobes/anaerobes (1/3)
59
What is the chandelier sign?
CMT that makes the patient "jump for the chandelier"
60
Explain the mnemonic A ROPE for acute pelvic pain.
* Appendicitis *  Ruptured ovarian cyst *  Ovarian torsion *  PID *  Ectopic pregnancy
61
What are the diagnostic criteria for PID?
*  Pelvic pain | * Uterine, cervical, or adnexal tenderness
62
What are two important components of treating toxic-shock syndrome?
*  Antibiotics against S. aureus | * Rehydration
63
A woman presents with fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nonpurulent conjunctivitis, desquamating rash on the palms and soles, and a macular erythematous rash. What is the likley diagnosis?
Toxic shock syndrome (clindamycin and vancomycin)
64
Bacterial cultures typically show __________ in toxic shock syndrome.
nothing (because the syndrome is caused by a preformed toxin)
65
Although most fibroids are asymptomatic, they can present with the following symptoms: _________________.
* Dysmenorrhea *  Heavy periods *  Dyspareunia *  Firm, nontender, enlarged and irregular uterus
66
Myomas can be in three places: ______________.
subserosal, intramural, and submucosal
67
You've done a physical exam on a woman with suspected fibroids. What three tests/labs/images might you order next?
*  TVU * MRI (often just used in preparation for surgery) *  CBC (to assess for anemia)
68
How should you manage an asymptomatic fibroid patient?
Yearly pelvic exams and CBCs
69
List three medications that can treat the bleeding from fibroids.
- Medroxyprogesterone acetate (also Megace) - Leuprolide - Danazol
70
What are the two kinds of endometrial cancer?
* I: endometrioid | * II: serous, papillary, and squamous
71
True or false: both kinds of endometrial cancer are associated with estrogen exposure.
False Only type I is. Type II is associated with the p53 mutation.
72
Which endometrial cancer presents at an older age?
Type II
73
Go through the treatment options for endometrial cancer.
*  Women who may want future children: high-dose progestins * Women who don't want future children: TAH BSO with radiation * Women with advanced cancer: TAH BSO with radiation and chemotherapy
74
Cervical cancer has two tissue subtypes. List each and the type of HPV that is most common in each.
* Squamous (16) | * Adenocarcinoma (18)
75
What are the most common symptoms of cervical cancer?
Metrorrhagia and postcoital bleeding
76
How do LSIL and HSIL correlate with CIN?
* LSIL = CIN I | * HSIL = CIN II and III
77
For ASC-US and LSIL in women younger than 24, ACOG recommends ____________.
repeat cytology in one year
78
For HSIL and ASC-H, ACOG recommends ____________.
colposcopy
79
For ASC-US and LSIL in women older than 24, ACOG recommends ____________.
DNA testing
80
What should you do for AGC?
Colposcopy with endocervical sampling
81
If you do a colposcopy for HSIL or ASC-H and it is negative, then ___________.
do colposcopy and cytology every 6 months for two years or until negative
82
How should you treat CIN I on colposcopy?
Repeat cotesting at 12 and 24 months
83
How should you treat CIN II and III on colposcopy?
LEEP or cone excision
84
A common cause of death in cervical cancer is ______________.
uremia from blocked ureters
85
B in the staging of cervical cancer means ___________.
lateral growth
86
Lynch syndrome raises the risk of which gyn cancers?
Ovarian and endometrial
87
CA-125 is associated with which type of ovarian cancer?
Epithelial cell
88
Elevated CA-125 in a premenopausal woman can be caused by ___________________.
endometriosis
89
What pelvic masses produce AFP?
Choriocarcinoma and endodermal sinus
90
Granulosa cell tumors secrete ____________.
inhibin
91
Dysgerminoma produces _______________.
LDH