Fiser ABSITE Ch. 17 Burns Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Fiser ABSITE Ch. 17 Burns Deck (70):
1

Name the degree of burn:
Sunburn (epidermis)

1st

2

Name the degree of burn:
Painful to touch; blebs and blisters; hair follicles intact; blanches

2nd - Superficial dermis (papillary)

3

Name the degree of burn:
Decreased sensation; loss of hair follicles (need skin grafts)

3rd

4

Name the degree of burn:
Down to bone, into adjacent adipose or muscle tissue

4th

5

Admission criteria for burns:
2nd and 3rd degree burns >10% BSA in pts with what age range?

Less than 10 or >50 yrs

6

Admission criteria for burns:
2nd and 3rd degree in any age with > what % BSA?

>20%

7

Admission criteria for burns:
2nd and 3rd degree burns in any age, any % BSA with significant portions of hands, feet, face, genitalia, perineum or what other area?

overlying major joints

8

Admission criteria for burns:
3rd degree in any age group with > what BSA %?

>5%

9

What do the following burn pts share in common?:
electrical and chemical burns, concomitant inhalational injury, mechanical traumas, preexisting medical condition, suspected child abuse or neglect

meet admission criteria

10

What type of burns is most common (flame, scald, chemical, electrical, etc)?

Scald

11

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt:
Head

9

12

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt:
Arms

18

13

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt:
Chest

18

14

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt: Back

18

15

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt: Legs

36

16

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt: Perineum

1

17

Name the percentage of BSA in burn pt: palm (can use to estimate injury)

1

18

What is the Parkland formula?

For burns ≥ 20% - give 4 cc/kg × % burn in first 24 hours; give ½ in first 8 hours

19

Which fluid do you use in burn pts in first 24 hrs?

Lactated Ringer's

20

What is the best measure of resuscitation in burn pts (with formula in adults and children)?

urine output, 0.5-1 cc/kg/hr in adults;
2-4 cc/kg/hr in children

21

Split-thickness grafts should be ___ mm (include epidermis and part of the dermis)

12-15

22

Homografts (allografts; cadaveric skin) - not as good as autografts • Can be a good temporizing material; last___ weeks • Allografts vascularize and are eventually rejected at which time they must be replaced

2-4

23

Xenografts (porcine) - not as good as homografts; last __ weeks; these do not vascularize

2

24

Wounds to face, palms, soles, and genitals should be deferred for how long?

1 week

25

For each burn wound incision – less than ___ blood loss, less than ___% of skin excised, less than___ hours in OR • Patients can get extremely sick if too much time is spent in OR

1 L, 20, 2

26

What is the most common reason for skin graft loss and what can be done to prevent?

seroma or hematoma formation under graft, need to apply pressure dressing (cotton balls) to the skin graft to prevent

27

Why are split-thinkness grafts better and why are full thickness grafts better

STSGs more likely to survive (thinner so easier for imbibition and subsequent revascularization to occur);
FTSGs have less wound contraction and are good for areas such as the palms and back of hands

28

Burn scar hypopigmentation and irregularities can be improved with ___ thin split-thickness grafts.

dermal abrasion

29

Face and genital burns get topical abx for ___ weeks.

2

30

Hand burns:
• Superficial - ROM exercises, splint in functional position if too much ____
• Deep - immobilize for ___ days after operation, then physical therapy. May need wire fixation of joints if unstable or open. Treat with full-thickness grafts

Edema;
7

31

Palm burns - try to preserve specialized palmar attachments. Splint hand in extension for how long? Graft in week 2 with full-thickness nonmeshed autograft graft

1 week

32

Is there a role for prophylactic IV abx in burns?

no

33

What is the most common organism in burn wound infections?

pseudomonas

34

Silvadene should not be used in pts with what type of allergy? or in pts with what other condition?

sulfa, G6PD (methemoglobinemia)

35

What is the major side effect of silver nitriate in burns?

electrolyte imbalances

36

Sulfamylon (mafenide sodium) in burn pts has a painful application and what is the major side effect and what type of burns is best for?

metabolic acidosis due to carbonic anyhdrase inhibition, best for burns overlying cartilage, has good eschar penetration

37

Burn would with peripheral edema, 2nd- to 3rd-degree burn conversion, hemorrhage into scar, erythema gangrenosum, green fat, black skin around wound, rapid eschar separation, focal discoloration. These are all signs of what?

burn wound infection

38

What is the most common viral infection in burn wounds?

HSV

39

What is the best way to detect a burn wound infection and differentiate from colonization (

bx of wound

40

What is the usual cause of seizures in a burn pt?

iatrogenic related to Na concentration or benzo withdrawal

41

What is symblepharon?

eyelid stuck to conjunctiva, can be a complication after burn, tx: release with glass rod

42

What is the tx for heterotopic ossification of tendons in a burn pt?

physical therapy, may need surgery

43

Gastric ulcer that occurs with burns?

curling's ulcer

44

What is the highly malignant squamous cell CA that arises in chronic nonhealing burn wounds or unstable scars?

Marjolin's ulcer

45

Hypertrophic scar • Usually occurs ___ after injury secondary to ↑ neovascularity • More likely to be deep thermal injuries that take >3 weeks to heal, heal by contraction and epithelial spread, or heal across flexor surfaces • Wait ___ before scar modification • Tx: grafting, steroids, silicone, compression

3-4 months; 1-2 years

46

Epidermal-dermal separation seen with what condition?

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

47

Do you give steroids to a pt with Toxic epidermal necrolysis or Stevens-Johnson syndrome (erthema multiforme)?

NO

48

Name 4 other factors that can cause the Parkland formula to grossly underestimate volume requirements of a burn pt.

inhalation injury, ETOH, electrical injury, postescharotomy

49

Using colloid (albumin) in 1st 24 hrs in burn pt shown to increase what type of complications (can use after 24 hrs)?

pulmonary/respiratory

50

What is the timeframe for escharotomy?

within 4-6 hrs

51

circumferential burns think ___

escharotomy

52

Problems ventilating pt with significant chest torso burns. Consider ___

escharotomy

53

Scald burn in child with absence of splash marks, consider what?

abuse

54

Is lung injury in burns caused by carbonaceous materials and smoke or heat?

carbonaceous materials and smoke

55

Facial burns, wheezing and carbonaceous sputum are all signs and symptoms of what?

lung injury

56

Most common infection in burn wound patients. Also most common cause of death after inhalation injury.

pneumonia

57

Alkalis produce deeper burns than acid due to ____ necrosis. Acid burns produce ___ necrosis.

liquefaction, coagulation

58

What is the main tx in acid and alkali burns?

copious water irrigation

59

In hydrofluoric acid burns, spread ____ on wound.

calcium

60

In powder burns, ___ before irrigation.

wipe away

61

Tx for tar burns is to cool, then wipe away with what type of solvent?

lipophilic

62

What is important to monitor in electrical burns?

cardiac monitoring

63

What are two complications to consider with electrical burns?

rhabdomyolysis and compartment syndrome

64

In lightening strikes, you can see ___ secondary to electrical paralysis of brainstem.

cardiopulmonary arrest, do cpr

65

Cardiac output in severely burned patients - first have decreased CO for ___ hours, then have increased CO (ebb and flow phases following burn)

24-48

66

What is the formula for caloric needs in a burn pt

25 kcal/kg/day + 30 kcal x % burn

67

What is the formula for protein need in a burn pt?

1 g/kg/day + 3 g x % burn

68

What is the best source of nonprotein calories in a burn pt?

glucose (burn wounds use glucose in an obligatory fashion)

69

Try to excise burn wounds in

72

70

In a burn pt, skin grafts contraindicated if culture is positive for ___ or bacteria >10^5

beta-hemolytic strep