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UAL 787 SV Study Questions Nov 23 > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

On the ground above 60kts groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by applying rudder input. This function is only available in ____.

A. The NORMAL flight control mode.
B. The NORMAL and SECONDARY flight control modes.
C. The SECONDARY and DIRECT flight control modes
D. All modes.

A

A. The NORMAL flight control mode.

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2
Q

With a complete loss of flight control signaling, the ______ must be used to move the stabilizer.

A. Captains control wheel.
B. Autopilot.
C. Alternate pitch trim switches.
D. Vertical speed mode.

A

C. Alternate pitch trim switches.

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3
Q

The flaps and slats are both driven:

A. Hydraulically in all modes.
B. Electrically in all modes.
C. Electrically in the PRIMARY mode only.
D. Hydraulically in the PRIMARY mode only.

A

D. Hydraulically in the PRIMARY mode only.

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4
Q

With the flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode, if airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8 or 240 knots for the 787-9/10 with the slats fully extended, they retract to the _____ position.

A. Retracted.
B. 5 degree.
C. Middle.
D. Slat load relief not available in secondary mode.

A

C. Middle.

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5
Q

When are all spoiler panels extend automatically?

A. When armed, upon landing, when the main gear trucks un-tilt and both thrust levers are not in the takeoff range.
B. When not armed, on the ground, with groundspeed above 85 knots, and either thrust lever was previously in the takeoff range, and both thrust levers are then moved to idle.
C. When not armed, on the ground, when both thrust levers are moved to the the reverse idle detent.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

D. All of the above are correct.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?

A. Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.
B. Envelope protection is available.
C. The ACE’s are not available.
D. The PFCs are not available.

A

A. Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.

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7
Q

With flight controls operating in the direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are inoperative?

A. Actuator control electronics (ACEs).
B. Electro hydraulic servos.
C. All components are operating.
D. Primary flight computer (PFCs).

A

D. Primary flight computer (PFCs).

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8
Q

The primary flight control system provides flight envelope protection in which mode(s)?

A. Normal Mode.
B. Secondary Mode.
C. Direct Mode.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

A. Normal Mode.

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9
Q

The autopilot sends signals:

A. Directly to the ACEs.
B. Directly to the PFCs.
C. To the backdrive actuators.
D. Answers B and C are correct.

A

D. Answers B and C are correct.

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10
Q

The autopilot is available in:

A. NORMAL and SECONDARY flight control modes.
B. ALTERNATE flight control mode.
C. Only if normal stab trim is available.
D. NORMAL flight control mode only.

A

D. NORMAL flight control mode only.

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11
Q

When the flaps and slats are in the PRIMARY mode, uncommanded motion will:

A. Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.
B. Cause the flap or slat system to transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.”
C. If the uncommanded motion continues in the Secondary mode, the respective system shuts down.
D. Both A and C are correct.

A

D. Both A and C are correct.

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12
Q

When operating B787-9/10 with the slats in the SECONDARY mode and positioned to the fully extended position, if the airspeed exceeds 240 knots:

A. The slats will transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.
B. LOAD RELIEF will be displayed on the EICAS.
C. The slats will retract to the middle position.
D. Both B and C.

A

D. Both B and C.

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13
Q

In the Normal mode, primary flight control computers (PFC’s) _______.

A. Monitors and provides envelope protection during manual flight.
B. When protecting the flight envelope, reduces pilot authority.
C. With the auto-pilot operating does not need to protect the flight envelope.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

A. Monitors and provides envelope protection during manual flight.

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14
Q

The flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode are _______.

A. Both controlled by the Flap handle.
B. Operated separately, either by hydraulic or electric motors, depending the failure.
C. Operated by the alternate flap switch.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

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15
Q

How can the pilot place the aircraft into the SECONDARY flight control mode?

A. Disconnect the PFCs.
B. Disconnect the autopilt using the Autopilot Disengage Bar on the MCP.
C. You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

C. You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.

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16
Q

In the NORMAL flight control mode, yaw control attempts to maintain zero yaw rate due to engine failure when above _______.

A. V1
B. 60kts groundspeed and aircraft on the ground.
C. 150kts IAS, with a thrust differential greater than 10%.
D. E/O acceleration height.

A

B. 60kts groundspeed and aircraft on the ground.

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17
Q

Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFC’s), places the aircraft _____.

A. In the SECONDARY mode.
B. In the ALTERNATE mode.
C. In the DIRECT mode.
D. Out of control.”

A

C. In the DIRECT mode.

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18
Q

Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in which mode(s)?

A. Secondary.
B. All modes.
C. Direct.
D. A and C.

A

D. A and C.

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19
Q

The three modes of the Primary Flight Control System are:

A. NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT.
B. PRIMARY, SECONDARY, ALTERNATE.
C. NORMAL, SECONDARY, STANDBY.
D. There are only two modes of operation for the Primary Flight Control System.

A

A. NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT.

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20
Q

With a total hydraulic failure, Pitch and Roll control is still available:

A. Requires hydraulic accumulator pressure.
B. Cable connected trim tabs on the elevator and ailerons
C. Electrically using the control wheel and either primary or alternate pitch trim.
D. Hydraulic pressure is ALWAYS required.

A

C. Electrically using the control wheel and either primary or alternate pitch trim.

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21
Q

After landing, the flight control system automatically self tests:

A. When the center hydraulic system is pressurized.
B. During engine shutdown, before external power can be connected.
C. With flaps and speedbrakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts
D. When the PFCs are disconnected.

A

C. With flaps and speedbrakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts

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22
Q

Why is the B787 provided with an electrical flight control backup system?

A. In case of a dual engine failure.
B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.
C. In case both FMC’s are lost.
D. A and C.

A

B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.

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23
Q

During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at:

A. Approximately 60 knots.
B. Engine spool up.
C. 100 knots.
D. HOLD indication on FMA.

A

A. Approximately 60 knots.

24
Q

When the autopilot is not engaged, when is manual trimming necessary?

A. For configuration changes.
B. For airspeed changes.
C. Never, the autopilot trims the aircraft.
D. A and B are correct.

A

B. For airspeed changes.

25
Q

In the NORMAL mode, pitch trim switches operate the trim in what manner?

A. On the ground, the stabilizer is positioned directly.
B. In flight, they signal the Primary Flight Computers to change the trim reference speed.
C. They operate the same on the ground as in flight.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

26
Q

What are some characteristics of the Alternate Trim switches?

A. They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator.
B. They have priority over the primary trim switches, in all flight control modes.
C. They operate with the autopilot engaged, where the yoke switches do not.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

27
Q

The stabilizer green band is calculated by:

A. The nose gear pressure transducers.
B. The FMC using inputs of CG, and gross weight.
C. ACARS using uplinked data.
D. All the above.

A

B. The FMC using inputs of CG, and gross weight.

28
Q

If BOTH the L2 and R2 stabilizer control switches are placed to CUTOUT while in the NORMAL flight control mode:

A. The flight control mode changes to the Direct mode.
B. Pitch trim is not available from any source.
C. Thrust must be used to control pitch.
D. Pitch trim is still available through the trim switches.

A

D. Pitch trim is still available through the trim switches.

29
Q

The autothrottles must be ______ to support stall protection.

A. OFF
B. Engaged
C. Armed
D. Manually applied.

A

C. Armed

30
Q

The autothrottles will not automatically engage to support stall protection when ______?

A. When the Autothrottle Switches are both OFF.
B. During a descent in VNAV SPD, with a thrust FMA of HOLD.
C. When the pitch mode is FLCH or TOGA .
D. All of the above are correct.

A

D. All of the above are correct.

31
Q

The ailerons are:

A. Locked out during high speed flight.
B. Mechanically controlled by cable.
C. Locked out in low speed flight.
D. Are never locked out.

A

A. Locked out during high speed flight.

32
Q

What effect does a total failure of one of the hydraulic systems have on the spoilers.

A. None, because each spoiler has two hydraulic systems, a primary and backup.
B. In the event of a hydraulic system failure, the electric backup actuators take over.
C. Each spoiler pair is dedicated to the same hydraulic system, therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.
D. A and B are correct.

A

C. Each spoiler pair is dedicated to the same hydraulic system, therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.

33
Q

Some of the benefits of the fly-by-wire design are:

A. Enhanced handling qualities.
B. Reduced pilot workload.
C. All of the above.

A

C. All of the above.

34
Q

When does the slat auto gap function activate on the 787-9/10?

A. In the primary mode, with the slats in the middle position.
B. When the aircraft enters a high angle of attack.
C. Airspeed below 240 KIAS for the B787-9.
D. All of the above MUST be present.

A

D. All of the above MUST be present.

35
Q

Which of the following are limitations on the use of speed brakes?

A. Do not use the speed brakes with flaps 25 or 30.
B. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.
C. They can be used anytime, as necessary.
D. A and B are correct.

A

B. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.

36
Q

In flight, in the Normal flight control mode, with the autopilot Off, stepping on a rudder pedal causes the what response?

A. The rudder to deflect and the aircraft to yaw, proportional to the amount of rudder pedal deflection and the airspeed.
B. A sideslip maneuver is commanded, with the sideslip angle dependent on pedal displacement.
C. In Normal mode, the flight control computers control the rudder and the pedals have no effect.
D. The Autopilot to automatically engage.

A

B. A sideslip maneuver is commanded, with the sideslip angle dependent on pedal displacement.

37
Q

What is the function of the Wheel to Rudder Cross-tie?

A. When hand flying, in all flight control modes, it moves the non-flying pilot’s yoke, control column and rudder pedals simulatenously with the flying pilot’s inputs, for situational awareness.
B. In the secondary and direct flight control modes, it reduces maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
C. In the direct flight control mode only, it functions to limit rapid, opposite control inputs.
D. Answers A and B are both correct.

A

B. In the secondary and direct flight control modes, it reduces maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.

38
Q

If the flap placard speed is exceeded with flaps in the _____ position on the 787-8, or flaps in the _____ position for the 787-9/10, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate for the airspeed.

A. 15 through 30.
B. 10 through 30.
C. 5 through 30.
D. A and B are correct.

A

D. A and B are correct.

39
Q

Which flight control surfaces are locked out during high-speed flight?

A. Ailerons.
B. Ailerons and spoilers 5 and 10.
C. Ailerons and spoilers 4, 5, 10, and 11.
D. Spoilers 5 and 10.

A

A. Ailerons.

40
Q

The yaw control function for thrust asymmetry:

A. Is only available in the Normal flight control mode.
B. Engages with a 10% thrust difference between engines, eliminating the need for rudder input by the pilot.
C. Is only available when airspeed exceeds 250kts.
D. On ground, only functions in the event an engine failure is sensed.”

A

A. Is only available in the Normal flight control mode.

41
Q

Which of the following functions are available in the Secondary Mode?

A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie.
B. Envelope protection.
C. Auto speedbrakes.
D. None of the above.

A

A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie.

42
Q

What happens when a control wheel roll input causes the bank angle to exceed 35 degrees?

A. The control wheel force attempts to roll the airplane back towards level flight, to less than 30 degrees of bank.
B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.
C. The control wheel force will not allow the pilot to override its inputs.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

43
Q

When is automated yaw and roll control for engine failure, crosswind, or turbulence, an integral part of the flight control system?

A. Only in the Normal mode.
B. Only above 60 knots groundspeed, when on the ground.
C. Only with the autopilot engaged.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

44
Q

Which is a true statement concerning Tail Strike protection?

A. It is only available on takeoff.
B. It is automatic, but a pilot can override its effect.
C. It is available in all flight control modes, except the direct mode.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

B. It is automatic, but a pilot can override its effect.

45
Q

When does the Auto drag function operate?

A. Only on final approach with the landing gear extended, and an ILS or GLS approach line selected in the FMC.
B. With flaps at 25 or 30, and the thrust levers at idle.
C. Only with the autopilot Off.
D. Both A and C are correct.

A

B. With flaps at 25 or 30, and the thrust levers at idle.

46
Q

Why is Wheel to rudder cross tie not provided in the Normal flight control mode?

A. Wheel to rudder cross tie is avalible in the normal flight control mode.
B. Because the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
C. Because in the normal mode the autopilot is normally on.
D. Answers A and C. are both correct.

A

B. Because the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.

47
Q

In the Normal flight control mode, rudder trim or input is automatic under which of the following conditions?

A. During takeoff in crosswind or gusty conditions, or during engine failure.
B. Only when the autopilot is engaged.
C. On landing when there is reverse thrust asymmetry.
D. Both A and C are correct.

A

D. Both A and C are correct.

48
Q

After landing why are any applied automatic or manual rudder trim inputs zeroed?

A. So that that they do not provide a yaw command during the transition from air mode to ground mode.
B. Rudder trim inputs are not removed until groundspeed is less than 40 knots.
C. Only manually input rudder trim is zeroed.
D. Rudder inputs are only removed if a Go Around is selected.

A

A. So that that they do not provide a yaw command during the transition from air mode to ground mode.

49
Q

When do the speedbrakes automatically retract?

A. In the air when either throttle is advanced 90% full travel.
B. On the ground, when either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range.
C. On the ground, if there is a transition to in the air.
D. all of the above are true.

A

D. all of the above are true.

50
Q

When does the Pregap function operate on the 787-9/10?

A. In the Secondary mode only.
B. When the flap handle is not Up.
C. When the airspeed is less than 240 knots.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

51
Q

When is flap load relief operational?

A. In Primary mode only.
B. When the flaps placard limits are exceeded, with flaps selected beyond flaps 5.
C. Above 20,000 feet or 260 knots.
D. A and B are correct.

A

D. A and B are correct.

52
Q

What is true about the Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM)?

A. It is an approach function to lower the angle of the deck to assist the flight attandents when moving and stowing carts for landing.
B. It is only functional with flaps at 20 or greater.
C. It is used to improve approach attitudes and increase the nose gear ground contact margin during overspeed approaches.
D. Both B and C are correct.

A

D. Both B and C are correct.

53
Q

With the autopilot engaged, use of either the Primary or alternate trim switches will ______?

A. Automatically trip the Autopilot Off and cause an EICAS warning message AUTOPILOT.
B. Cause an EICAS Caution message MANUAL TRIM.
C. Primary and Alternate trim switches are inhibited with the Autopilot engaged.
D. Both B and C are correct.

A

C. Primary and Alternate trim switches are inhibited with the Autopilot engaged.

54
Q

In the Normal mode, what does Stall Protection do when it begins to function?

A. It limits nose up trim at approximately minimum maneuvering speed.
B. It requires pilots to use significant continuous additional aft control pressure to maintain an airspeed below the minimum maneuvering speed.
C. Automatically activates the stick shaker for 3 seconds to alert the pilots to a low speed condition.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

D. Both A and B are correct.

55
Q

Before takeoff, the EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND, may appear for what reason?

A. Final reminder to the pilots to set the Stab trim in the green band.
B. A nose gear transducer has failed.
C. The FMC computed green band range does not agree with the pressure transducer data.
D. Both B and C are correct.

A

D. Both B and C are correct.

56
Q

When Autodrag is operating, how does it perform its function?

A. It raises all of the outboard spoilers and undroops the flaperons.
B. It deflects both ailerons downward simultaneously, and raises the two most outboard spoilers.
C. It causes an EICAS advisory message AUTODRAG to be displayed.
D. Both A and C are correct.

A

B. It deflects both ailerons downward simultaneously, and raises the two most outboard spoilers.

UAL 787 SV Study Questions Nov 23 (13 decks)

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