FM 3-04.126 ATK/Recon OPs Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
_________ is the synchronized and simultaneous application of the warfighting functions (WFFs) to achieve an effect that is greater than if each arm were used in sequence.
A
Combined Arms
2
Q
________ are conducted to find, fix, and destroy enemy forces and confirm intelligence. _____ require the ability to mass overwhelming firepower and effects at the time and place where the enemy’s assets and strengths are most vulnerable.
A
Decisive Operations
3
Q
_____ establish conditions for success of the decisive operation by setting the battlefield to our advantage.
A
Shaping Operations
4
Q
_______ includes lethal and nonlethal operations that make the enemy vulnerable to attack, impede or divert its attempts to maneuver, provide combat support to facilitate the maneuver of friendly forces, enhance deception, or otherwise dictate the time and place for decisive battle.
A
Shaping Operations
5
Q
_______ generate and maintain combat power.
A
Sustaining Operations
6
Q
The primary missions of attack reconnaissance helicopter units are: (4)
A
Reconnaissance / Security / Attack / Movement to Contact
7
Q
_____ provide reaction time, maneuver space, and protection to air-ground maneuver.
A
Security Operations
8
Q
_______ is a hasty or deliberate attack providing air-to-ground fires for friendly units engaged in close combat. Detailed integration is required.
A
Close Combat Attack
9
Q
_____ is a hasty or deliberate attack to divert, disrupt, delay, degrade, or destroy the enemy before they can be used effectively against friendly forces.
A
Interdiction Attack
10
Q
The ____ platoon has three non-FCR and one FCR aircraft. The ____ platoon has two non-FCR and two FCR aircraft.
A
Attack
Reconnaissance
11
Q
_______ is the art of motivating and directing people and organizations to accomplish missions.
A
Command
12
Q
The ______ is an FM secure net controlled by the S-3 and used for C2.
A
Command Net
13
Q
The S-2 controls the _____ net.
A
Operations and Intelligence (O&I) net
14
Q
The ______ net is controlled by the S-1 and S-4.
A
Administrative and Logistics Net (A&L)
15
Q
The staff does NOT ask the commander for solutions. It _______________.
A
presents issues, offers COAs, and recommends one of the COAs.
16
Q
During offensive operations, the main CP should be _____. During defensive operations, the main CP normally locates ______.
A
well forward
farther to the rear
17
Q
What are the seven steps of the Military Decision Making Process (MDMP)? In the steps, when do WARNOs come out?
A
(1) Receipt of the Mission <> WARNO <> (2) Mission Analysis <> WARNO <> (3) COA Development, (4) Analysis, (5) Comparison, and (6) Approval <> WARNO <> (7) Orders Production
18
Q
The ____ methodology facilitates the attack of the right target or objective with the right asset at the right time. What does ___ stand for?
A
D3A
Decide, Detect, Deliver, Assess
19
Q
Effects refer to target or objective attack criteria. The S-3/FSO specifies the criteria according to Higher HQs. What are some quantifiable types of criteria?
A
% of casualties, destroyed elements, time on target, duration of fires, number of munitions, or application of assets.
20
Q
The platoon leader leads his platoon in combat and is responsible for __________.
A
crew selection recommendations and mission accomplishment.
21
Q
What are the eight steps of the Troop Leading Procedures?
A
Receive Mission, Issue WARNO, Make tentative Plan, Initiate Movement, Conduct Recon, Complete Plan, Issue OPORD, Supervise and Refine
22
Q
______ are utilized by the company commander to plan, organize, and effectively execute the mission.
A
Company Planning Cells
23
Q
Who acts as the AMC on a mission?
A
Company Commander or senior officer
24
Q
For a (significant) mission to be executed, what are the types and order of briefings?
A
OPORD Brief, Air Mission Brief, Team Brief, Crew Mission Brief
25
ARBs are maneuver units that can _____, but not ____, terrain for limited periods.
dominate
| occupy
26
AWTs are normally comprised of a lead and a wingman. _____ is generally the most ______ PC in the team and is selected based on _________________.
Lead <> proficient
| ability and demonstrated knowledge of mission, tactics, and local SOPs
27
The wingman's primary responsibility is to _______.
cover the lead aircraft
28
The wingman is generally the ______.
Commander, Platoon Leader, or senior WO who serves as AMC
29
What are the basic AWT flight formations used?
Combat Cruise
Combat Cruise LEFT and RIGHT
Combat Spread
30
________ is used when teams wish to move quickly and maximize use of terrain for masking.
Combat Cruise
31
When flying combat cruise, separation should be ____ or more depending on terrain and threat.
150 meters
32
Combat Cruise LEFT / RIGHT requires changing sides only _______. Optimum position is ___ off lead aircraft.
after coordinating with the lead aircraft
| 45 degrees
33
________ promotes security by providing maximum firepower forward and overlapping fields of view.
Combat Spread
34
___ rotor discs is the approximate separation needed during Combat Spread.
10 rotor discs
35
Combat Spread should not be used in the objective area when ________.
constant maneuvering is required.
36
What are the three flight modes?
Low-Level, Contour, and Nap-of-the-Earth (NOE)
37
What are the three movement techniques?
Traveling, Traveling Overwatch, and Bounding Overwatch
38
When conducting NVD terrain flight, what factors increase psychological and physiological stress?
Increased Workloads, Limited FOV, Reduced visual acuity, and more complex Aircrew coordination
39
____ flight is conducted at varying airspeeds as close to the earth's surface as vegetation and obstacles permit. Aviators should decrease _____ if ________.
NOE
| airspeed if Wx and ambient light restrict visibility
40
_____ is conducted at low altitude conforming to the earth's _____. It is characterized by _______.
Contour flight; contours
| varying airspeeds and altitude, dictated by terrain and obstacles
41
______ is conducted at constant altitude and airspeed, which are both dictated by ______.
Low-Level Flight
| Threat Avoidance
42
Company elements employ the ______ movement technique to move rapidly through the operational environment when enemy contact is unlikely, or the situation requires speed for evading the enemy.
traveling
43
Company elements employ the _______ movement technique when speed is essential and enemy contact is possible.
Traveling Overwatch
44
Company elements employ ________ movement technique when they expect enemy contact and the greatest degree of concealment is required.
Bounding Overwatch
45
Which movement technique is the slowest?
Bounding Overwatch
46
Bounding Overwatch is too ____ for high tempo operations and ________ for nonlinear and/or urban operations.
slow
| vulnerable
47
Units normally employ contour and NOE flight with the _____ movement technique
Bounding Overwatch
48
What are the four categories of reconnaissance?
| Companies may be assigned any combination of the four
Route <> Zone <> Area <> Surveillance
49
Reconnaissance missions focus on reconnaissance objectives and set strict _________ and developing the situation in conjunction with ground forces.
criteria for engagement
50
What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance?
Gain and Maintain Contact <> Orient on the Objective <> Report rapidly and accurately <> Retain freedom to maneuver <> Develop the situation <> Ensure max recon force forward <> Ensure cont recon
51
What is the acronym used for the fundamentals of reconnaissance?
GORRDEE
52
Gorrdee - Once contact is made, it is _________; ____ or ____ criteria of the OPORD.
not voluntarily broken
orders must be received to break contact
be defined in the bypass
53
Gorrdee - Breaking contact is dangerous because it is _________ to ________.
inherently risky
| regain contact
54
gOrrdee - The objective may be a __________.
terrain feature, control measure, locality, or threat force
55
goRrdee - Acquire and report accurately and timely information on the ______________ that could impact friendly operations.
threat, civil considerations, and terrain and weather
56
goRrdee - Combat information is extremely _____.
time sensitive
57
gorRdee - Obtain information by stealth when possible, but _____ as necessary to accomplish the mission. __________ help retain freedom to maneuver.
fights
| overwatch, suppressive fires, cunning, and constant SA
58
gorRdee - _______ occurs when the company is fully committed and cannot maneuver or extricate itself.
If the ARC is decisively engaged, ________ and a battle for survival begins.
Decisive Engagement
| reconnaissance stops
59
gorrDee - If a threat force is encountered, the ARC determines its __________.
size, composition, disposition, activities, and movement.
60
gorrdEe - Recon assets are most valuable when positioned __________ as METT-TC, combat support, and sustainment factors allow; use maximum ___ integration.
as far forward
| UAS
61
gorrdEe - Recon assets do not necessarily have to be in a linear fashion; _____ is essential, especially in restricted terrain or a contaminated environment.
depth
62
gorrdeE - Extended operations, both distance and duration, require ARC commanders to develop _________ to maintain a continuous recon effort.
crew rest plans
63
What are the five planning considerations for reconnaissance operations?
Focus, Tempo, Engagement/Bypass Criteria, Air Limits of Advance (LOAs), and Transition Operations Guidance
64
What are the four Actions on Contact an aviator must take?
Deploy to cover and report
Maintain contact and develop the situation
Choose a COA; Recommend or Execute the COA
65
For "Actions on Contact", what are the options for 'Choose a Course of Action'?
Hasty Attack, Bypass, Hasty Screen, Support by another team
66
What is the main criteria for COA selection with regards to 'Actions on Contact'?
Resuming the mission as soon as possible
67
In order to bypass the enemy when conducting the reconnaissance, what must the team leader receive?
Commander's Permission (verbal or OPORD)
68
Without augmentation, a company has the capability to reconnoiter up to _ routes _____, or _ routes ____ for limited periods.
2 routes continuously
| 3 routes simultaneously
69
What are the three reconnaissance methods at the company level?
Aerial
Reconnaissance-by-Fire
Dismounted
70
What are the four forms of reconnaissance?
ROUTE <> ZONE <> AREA <> SURVEILLANCE
71
A _____ reconnaissance is conducted to obtain information about a specific ___ and all ________ from which the threat could influence movement along the _.
Route, Route, adjacent terrain, route
72
A ____ reconnaissance is a directed effort to obtain information concerning all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a ____ defined by ____.
Zone, Zone, Boundaries
73
The boundaries of a zone reconnaissance are _____.
| The boundaries of an area reconnaissance are ____.
Restrictive
| Permissive
74
The purpose of ______ reconnaissance is to gather intelligence or conduct surveillance of a specified ___.
Area, Area
75
Landing Zone / Pickup Zone reconnaissance is a type of _______ performed to determine the suitability for air assault operations.
area reconnaissance
76
(Primarily for UAS) ____ is defined as systematic observation to obtain detailed information of a specific target or area.
Aerial Surveillance
77
Security operations include all measures taken by a command to protect itself from ____________ by the threat.
surprise, provocation, espionage, sabotage, or observation
78
What are the fundamentals of security? What is the acronym?
MOPP
Maintain threat contact, Orient on the objective, Provide early warning, Provide reaction time and maneuver space, Perform continuous reconnaissance
79
Moppp - Once the ARC gains contact, it does not break contact unless ___________.
directed to do so by HHQs
80
mOppp - A security force operates __________.
between the main body and known or suspected threat units
81
moPpp - Early warning of threat activity includes accurate reports regarding threat: __________. (SDCLDRE)
Size <> Disposition <> Composition <> Location <> Direction of movement <> Rate of advance <> special Equipment
82
mopPp - The ARC provides ____ for the commander to assess the situation, determine a COA, issue orders, and maneuver.
time
83
moppP - A security force performs _____ to gain all possible information about the enemy force and terrain within the assigned AO.
continuous reconnaissance
84
What are the four types of security missions the ARC is expected to conduct and/or participate in?
SCREEN <> GUARD <> COVER <> AREA SECURITY
85
What is the primary purpose of the SCREEN?
provide early warning to the main body
86
Screening operations are not performed _____ of a moving force because that would be an ____ or ____.
forward
advance guard
zone reconnaissance
87
Screen missions are ____ in nature, largely accomplished by establishing a series of OPs to ensure adequate ____ of the assigned sector.
defensive
| surveillance
88
What are the two types of screens?
| What determines which is appropriate?
Stationary <> Moving
| Main Body being secured: moving or stationary?
89
What is the primary difference between a SCREEN and a GUARD?
Expectation of contact and necessity for protection
90
The ARC cannot perform a ____ mission independently and without augmentation of ground forces.
GUARD
91
What are the two types of guards?
Stationary <> Moving
92
A ______ force accomplishes all the tasks of screening and guard forces. Difference: a ___ force is tactically self-contained and capable of operating independently.
cover
| cover
93
___ security operations includes recon and security of designated personnel, airfields, unit convoys, facilities, main supply routes (MSRs), FOBs, equipment, and critical points.
AREA
94
A ______, part of Area Security, is executed against a specific target within a given area. It incorporates both air and ground forces.
Cordon and Search
95
The two basic methods for conducting convoy security are ______ and ______.
Attached and Detached
96
Attached Convoy Security provides _______.
| Detached Convoy Security provides ________.
deterrent and immediate CCA if the convoy is engaged
| GND CDR with real-time SA IOT make decisions
97
Attached CNVY SECURITY: Lead flies up to __ ahead of CNVY to provide security. Trail flies behind or over the CNVY.
1 kilometer
98
The ______ technique for convoy security has each aircraft fly racetrack patterns on opposite sides of the route.
butterfly pattern
99
__________ missions are flown to protect helicopters conducting air assault, MEDEVAC/CASEVAC, or air movement missions. Upon reaching the objective, the AWT immediately transitions to _________.
Aerial escort
| Area Security Operations.
100
The standard escort formation for a single AWT when conducting aerial escort is _______. The AWT flies a ______ off the last aircraft in the escorted formation.
the "Inverted Y" formation
| combat spread formation
101
Air Assault planning is conducted ______.
| What are the 5 stages of planning for AASLT?
backwards
| Ground Tactical Plan <> Landing Plan <> Air Movement Plan <> Loading Plan <> Staging Plan
102
Under optimum conditions of wide-open terrain, excellent visibility, and all available aircraft screening and rotating through the FARP, a company can screen along ______ for ____ hours.
30 kilometers for 8-12 hours
103
An ____ is an ______ that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both
attack is an offensive operation
104
A _____ is an attack launched with the forces at hand and with minimal preparation to maintain the momentum or take advantage of the enemy situation.
hasty attack
105
The objectives of a _______ are the overwhelm the enemy quickly and seize the initiative.
hasty attack
106
A _____ is an attack that is planned and carefully coordinated with all involved elements to provide synchronization of combat power at the decisive point.
deliberate attack
107
Close Combat Attack (CCA) is defined as _________.
a coordinated attack by Army aircraft against targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces
108
Transmission of the CCA brief is _________ except in _____ situations.
clearance to fire
| Danger Close
109
The check-in brief includes:
Identification, Team Composition/Location/ETA, Munitions, Playtime, Request for SITREP + Task/Purpose
110
After completion of CCA, aircrew provides ____ and ______ recommendation to ground commander.
BDA
| re-attack / end of mission
111
An _____ is an attack by Army aircraft to diver, disrupt, delay, degrade, or destroy enemy combat power before it can be used effectively against friendly forces.
Interdiction Attack
112
_____ attack is conducted at such a distance from friendly forces that detailed integration with ground forces is not needed.
Interdiction
113
AWT normally perform as ____ during Joint Air Attack Team (JAAT) operations because they have the highest level of __.
AMC <> SA
114
What are the three attack employment methods (timing)?
Continuous <> Phased <> Maximum Destruction
115
What are the three weapons delivery techniques?
Hover, Running, and Diving Fire
116
Hover Fire is any engagement conducted below____.
ETL
117
Running Fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ______.
above ETL
118
The ______ attack is used to take advantage of masking terrain while increasing the angle of attack.
Low Altitude Bump
119
A normal dive angle for diving fire is ____ degrees. Anything greater than ____ is a steep dive.
10-15 degrees
| 30 degrees
120
More than any other factor, it is important to avoid ______ as it increases a weapon's Pk. In a target-rich environment, a unit may ________ and still not meet the CDR's intent.
overkill
| expend all its ammunition
121
In what three can an engagement end?
Commander Announces Cease-Fire
All Targets Destroyed
All Ammo Expended
122
The primary purpose of the rehearsal is ensuring all crews know and understand ___________.
the Commander's Intent and how it will be executed
123
Once established in BPs, crews prepare for engagement. They must expect the enemy to employ _________ unless _______.
active and passive Air Defence
| reliable intelligence predicts otherwise
124
The amount of time a helicopter can safely remain unmasked will depend _____. Should enemy AD or tanks be in overwatch, or if the TGT is STI, no more than __________.
two engagements from the same firing position
125
Leaders must plan engagements within the "____" of the sensors, not merely "____".
USEABLE range
| maximum range
126
The ______ is the last covered and concealed position prior to the objective that is occupied for short periods of time.
Holding Area
127
Holding areas are normally located ______ behind the BP, ABF, or FLOT.
2-5 kilometers
128
What is the key factor when selecting ABFs/BPs?
SENSOR RANGE (not weapons range)
