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Flashcards in Gunnery Deck (505):
1

 

What is the [WARNING] associated with the 30mm?

 

(-10)

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.

2

 

[WARNING] If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __ _______, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must ______ _____ of the aircraft for __ _______. Aircraft crewmembers should remain __ ___ ________ and ________ ________________________________.

 

(-10)

 

[WARNING] If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

3

 

What is the Gun Duty Cycle IAW the -10?

6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.

4

True / False

 

Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode

 

 

TRUE

5

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, what happens to the gun?

Gun is STOWED IN ELEVTION

6

What happens to the gun in the event of IHADSS failure when GUN is actioned and HMD is the selected sight?

Gun firing is inhibited

 

When gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position

7

In the event of a power loss, what happens to the gun? Why?

The gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation.

To prevent a dig-in.

8

What message is displayed in the HAD when the GUN is actioned and the WP detects a 'NO GO' status?

 

What happens when the trigger is pulled?

"GUN FAIL"

 

LOS reticule will flash

9

When is Fixed Gun especially suitable to be utilized?

When TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable.

10

When using IHADSS against point targets beyond ______ meters (without the use of TADS or FCR), the crew should select __________.

1,000 meters

 

FIXED GUN

11

What is the azimuth and elevation of the GUN commanded to by the WP when in the Fixed Position?

+0.87 degrees elevation

0 degrees azimuth

12

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?

YES

13

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in teh AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.

14

What is the maximum effective range of the 30mm?

1500 - 1700 meters

15

What is the time of flight for a 3km 30mm shot?

12.2 seconds

16

What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?

805 meters/second

17

What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?

625 +/- 25 rounds/minute

18

Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a __________.

4 meter radius

19

The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of _______ rounds.

1200

20

How many rounds is the 100 gallon Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) capable of holding?

How many rounds in the flex chute?

Total Rounds?

242

58

300

21

Regarding the 30mm, what is the maximum range for which the WP will provide a fire control solution?

4200 meters

22

With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (_________), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets' structures, ____________________ is required

With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is NOT AVAILABLE. In order to breach typical MOUT targets' structures, continued/concentrated fire is required

23

What are the movement limits of the gun turret?

86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression.

24

What are the ATM standards for Gun Dynamic Harmonization?

Aircraft Centerline +/- 5 degrees of target

Target range 500 to 1500 meters

25

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds and then presses the ________________________.

Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG)

26

When rockets are action simultaneously with the gun, what azimuth is the gun limited to?

+/- 60 degrees

27

When gun is actioned simultaneously with missile (inboard pylon), what is the azimuth limited to ON THE SIDE TO BE FIRED?

52 degrees

28

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, where should the CPG select the DMPI?

Slightly short of personnel targets

29

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?

115 meters

30

What are the visual markings of the M789 HEDP round?

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case

31

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ___________ stations. Fire no more than ______ with two __________ launchers every ____________, or fire with only _____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

32

After a failure of 6MP, 6FL, or 6SK rockets (which use the _________ fuse) to fire (NO-FIRE event), how long should the rockets be given to reset?

M439 (Base Mounted Resistence Capacitance)

10 days

33

With respect to rockets, can the crew override the settings on the Weapons Utility Load page?

YES

34

How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the ammount of gun ammo loaded on preflight?

Can these settings be changed from inside the aircraft? How?

The Load Maintenance Panel

YES - Weapons Utility Load page

35

TRUE / FALSE

 

If the PLT actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots

FALSE

36

What sights can be utilized to employ the Aerial Rocket Subsystem?

HMD, TADS, or FCR

37

Can the pylons articulate independently of one another?

YES

38

What is the range in elevation that the pylons are capable on independently articulating?

How fast can the pylons articulate?

What controls the pylons?

+4 degrees to -15 degrees

10 degrees per second

Weapons Processor

39

At what range to rockets achieve best effectiveness?

3000 to 5000 meters

40

It is NOT AUTHORIZED to fire MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _____, and for all other flight conditions of less than _____.

Hover - low speed: 7' AGL

Other flight conditions: 5' AGL

41

With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available?

 

A - 24

B - 8

E - 6

42

How many rockets can fit in each pod?

With two pods installed, how many rockets can be loaded?

(yes... just multiply answer 1 by 2)

19

38

43

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _________ without changing ____________. At ranges beyond __________, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?

 

pitch attitude changes (nose-up)

44

What are the possible MK66 motor fuse/warhead combinations currently supported by our software?

6PD

6MP

6FL

6IL

6RC

6SK

45

The bursting radius of the M151 HE "10 Pounder" is _________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than ________.

10 meters burst

50 meters lethality (T)

46

What is employing "sunshine" IAW .45 and JFIRE?

Employing Illumination Rockets

47

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor.

4 inches

48

The M261 MPSM has ___ submunitions and effective employment ranges from ____________________.

9 submunitions

effective from 500 to 7000 meters

 

 

WILL NOT FIRE AT GREATER THAN 90 KTAS or LESS THAN 1000m.

49

At _______, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to _________________.

1,000 meters

8mm of milled steel

50

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than __________ and forward airspeeds of less than ____ knots.

Greater than 1000 meters

Less than 90 KTAS

51

What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM Rocket?

RAM AIR DECELERATOR

Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition

52

What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?

1500' AGL

53

What standoff range should Illum (m257/m278) rockets be launched from?

3500 meters

54

How far beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket will spent illum rocket motors impact?

700 to 1,200 meters

55

What is the minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets?

What is the effective range?

800 meters minimum

1km - 3km effective range

56

6FL - Minimum Range

800 meters

57

6FL - Effective Range

1km - 3km

58

____________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versiosn will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.

Red Pigment

59

The flechette rocket detonates about _____ before the predetermined range.

150 meters

60

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ______ __________ from deployment point.

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point.

61

At _____ meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to __________.

At 1,000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel.

62

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.

51 meters

63

What are the four "T's" of diving flight?

Target / Torque / Trim / Target

64

During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?

An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball

65

What is the rotary wing risk estimate for a 1500 meter PD rocket engagement?

305 meters

66

To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline __________ to the side of the SAL missile being launched.

3 to 5 degrees

67

The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ___________

+/- 20 degrees

68

The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________

+/- 7.5 degrees

69

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?

The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position

70

Hellfire missile arming occurs after ___________ acceleration __________ meters after launch.

Exceeding 10 G's

150 to 300 meters

71

Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _________ or ____________ or ________ or ______.

475 meters per second

923 knots

950 mph

Mach 1.4

72

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

30 minutes

73

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?

What does the symbol mean?

OT

Overtemperature

74

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missile will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

3

75

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the CCM routing within the laser missile. This selection ________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.

NARROWS

76

What are the SAL II K2A LOBL minimum engagement ranges?

0 degree offset

20 degree offset

500 meters

700 meters

77

What are the SAL II K2A LOAL DIR minimum engagement ranges?

0 degree offset

7.5 degree offset

1,500 meters

1,700 meters

78

What are the SAL II K2A LOAL LO minimum engagement ranges?

0 degree offset

7.5 degree offset

2,000 meters

2,500 meters

79

What is the SAL II K2A LOAL HI minimum engagement range?

0 degree offset

7.5 degree offset

3,500 meters

3,500 meters

80

What is the minimum range for a AGM-114 K2A missile?
Why?

800 meters

because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation

81

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within _______ and __________ of the gun target line, nor more than _______ from the target centerline

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline

82

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ______ if the target is ________ below the aircraft

500 meters

50 to 400 feet

83

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased ________ if the target is __________ the aircraft

1000 meters

401 to 800 feet below

84

With LOAL LO selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a ______ mask ______ away

260 foot mask

600 meters away

85

With LOAL HI selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a _______ mask _______ away.

1,000 foot mask

1,500 meters away

86

What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR K2A missile with a 7.5 degree offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.

2200 meters

(1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target)

87

The maximum ______________ for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to _____________________, the _______________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for _____________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

88

The maximum _____ of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?

Selecting LOAL - LO or LOAL-HI trajectory will extend the missile's maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers.

89

What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?

Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory

90

What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for K/M/N/R missile trajectory?

600 feet

91

What is the maximum airspeed you can fly when engaging with an AGM-114F-A?

90 Knots

92

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?

105.1 lbs

93

For RF missile engagements _______, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.

less than 1 Km

94

When the RM missile is tracking and the target range is ______________, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees

greater than or equal to 1 Km

95

When an RF missilt detects a moving target with a range between _____________, it will radiate and engage LOBL

0.5 - 8.0 Km

96

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _________. If target is not detected, it will revert to LOAL.

1.0 - 2.5 Km

97

The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between __________.

2.5 - 6 Km

98

The RF missile is capable of hitting a stationary LOAL target via the TADS handover through RFHOs to a maximum of ______.

8 Km

99

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present

100

What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?

R

101

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

NA

102

What is "transfer alignment"?

The transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform

103

What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?

TADS, FCR, and IDM

104

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

To allow for LOAL shots only, inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature.

105

The ____________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a _________ target engagement.

2nd Target Inihibit button

Stationary

106

__________ is when an RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.

Doppler Beam Sharpening

107

At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of ________ at ______.

990 meters @ 8 Km

108

Stationary targets between _______________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler  beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missileconducts DBS by ________________________________.

2,500 and 8,000 meters

pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction

109

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at __________ invervals. This DOES/DOES NOT occur while missiles are WASed.

10 minute interval

DOES NOT

110

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose

111

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the ________ sight and range source, regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

CPG's sight and range source

112

How many shot-at locations can be stored?

128

113

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ______________ in the firing sequence.

The next missile to be launched

114

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is __________.

Active

 

Not Active

115

What is the "rule of thumb" for computing Hellfire TOF?

Range x 4

116

What is the "rule of thumb" for calculating maximum laser delay?

(TOF / 2) - 2

117

What is the rotary wing risk estimate for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L?

110 meters

118

Default range for the pilot is _____

Default range for the CPG is _____

1.5 km

3.0 km

119

The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and intiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ____ targets.

128 targets

16 targets

256 targets

120

A flashing asterisk (*) in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ____________________.

Multiple Target Condition is detected

121

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the _____ and compensates for ________ when engaging with __________ when TADS is the LOS.

The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS.

122

True / False

Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode (ATM)

FALSE

123

True / False

In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.

FALSE

124

Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.

10 RFI symbols

125

RFI emitters will stay full intensity until ________ after they cease transmission.

30 seconds

126

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _____________________ around the threat Symbol and target type

Home Plate Symbol

127

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for _____, the symbols will change to _____________. After _________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______.

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank.

128

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in _______.

Enemy/Gray emitters are displayed in _________.

CYAN

YELLOW

129

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places _______________ over that emitter.

an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)

130

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ______ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.

SEVEN

INSIDE

131

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats on the _______ of the ASE footprint.

TEN

OUTSIDE

132

The RFI system detects and processes what kind of radar signals?

PULSE

PULSE DOPPLER

CONTINUOUS WAVE (CW)

133

What does the message "RFI DATA?" mean?

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available.

134

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the ____________.

+/- 90 degrees

FCR centerline

135

The _________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

CUED Search

136

While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?

The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter.

137

Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended how often?

TWO times ever 2.5 hours

(intent: once every 1+15 hrs)

138

When do FCR target symbols become stale?

Moving / Stationary

Moving - 5 seconds

Stationary - 30 seconds

139

If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne - what will the FCR do?

Change to ATM

140

How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?

1) Pressing NTS button again

2) Selecting ALT NTS with the cursor

3) Shooting the NTS

4) Conducting another FCR scan

141

What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?

2500 meters

142

What are the GTM/RMAP scan sectors for each FOV?

WFOV - 90 degrees

MFOV - 45 degrees

NFOV - 30 degrees

ZFOV - 15 degrees

143

The FCR is unable to process STI targets at ranges greater than ________.

6000 meters

144

In zoom mode the FCR will conduct ___ scans per scanburst

4 scans per scanburst in ZFOV

145

The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict _____ each?

2 km

146

The ____ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.

NTS

147

Which FCR priority scheem emphasizes STI ground targets?

B

148

Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage MTI ground targets?

C

149

A single scan burst in GTM NFOV will give how many scans?

3 scans per scanburst in NFOV

150

What improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification?

Scan-to-Scan Correlation

151

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _______ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become ______.

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid.

152

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on the target symbol and ______________.

ANTS symbol

flash for 3 seconds

153

What is the caution associated with the use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to the FCR components.

154

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT grip?

The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target.

155

Regarding the TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

64 symbols

156

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ________ target symbols ________ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The sumbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

beneath

during/after

on top of

157

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a _______ scan sector when ground speed decreases below ____ and until increasing above ____ knots. Narrow format displays a ____ scan sector when the ground speed increases above _____ and until decreasing below _____.

WFOV - 180 degree sector

decreasing below 45 KTAS and increasing above 55 KTAS

NFOV - 90 degree secotr

increases above 55 KTAS and until decreasing below 45 KTAS

158

When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in ___.

T50

159

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the _____ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

flashing lightning bolt

Ownship

160

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)

161

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ______________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the _______________.

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

162

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The _______________ process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.

FLIR SANUC (scene assisted non-uniformity correction)

163

____________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________________________.

Crew Coordination

ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained

164

On the AF (Air Fire) page, if the values are all displayed in ____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in ____, a performance parameter has been exceeded.

GREEN

WHITE

165

The ________ will nominally take ______ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.

Target State Estimator (TSE)

3 seconds

166

MUMT-2 Range expectations for the following -

AAG to Observer:

AAG to AAG:

UR to UAS:

15 km

15 km

40 km

167

While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?

The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential ICS shall cease until the P* states "BACK ABOVE" to the P.

168

When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?

Pilot not on the controls

169

What are the three levels of safing?

Finger off the trigger

de-WASed

SAFE/ARM button - SAFE

170

Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

NO (Safety Inhibit)

171

Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

NO (Safety Inhibit)

172

Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________ prior to entering the ____.

armament safety check

FARP

173

When _________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher _______ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______.

icing conditions exist

ARM/SAFE switch

icing

174

When operating at ________, ensure anti-ice is in the ______. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _________ could result in severe _______.

high power settings

manual mode

high power settings

Np/Nr droop

175

The crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark _______.

friendly positions

176

What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45?

DOCTRINE

TRAINING

ORGANIZATION

LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT

177

Maximum effective range is defined as ______________________________.

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target

178

The two types of fires are ____ and _____.

Direct and Indirect

179

What are the three techniques of fire?

Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression

180

Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target our of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by _______________________.

killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment

181

Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualities or damage.

10%

182

Suppression is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?

limits enemy movement, limits enemy observation, and increases friendly freedom to maneuver

183

Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ______ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _____ of the suspected target area.

10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm

10 meters

184

The four modes of fire IAW .45 are what?

Hover

Moving

Running

Diving

185

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ___ but less than _____. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above _________.

Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne

Above 40 KTAS through Vne

186

What is the purpose of a "Fence Check"?

Ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight.

Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly.

187

What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?

(WAILR)

Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder

188

What does "FENCE OUT" mean?

What does "FENCE IN" mean?

OUT - conduct WAILR check crossing 'the wire', leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METT-TC depending

IN - conduct revers WAILR as part of the before landing checks

189

How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD?

How many can be active?

8 created/displayed

1 active

190

During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph = __%

Ph = 70%

191

Define "BREAK"

immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing the maximum performance evasive maneuver

192

Define JINKING

deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire

193

Define PULL OFF

employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area

194

Transmission of the ____ CCA Brief constitutes _________ except in ________ situations.

5-Line

Clearance to Fire

Danger Close

195

To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _____ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature. The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.

8 - 10 km

196

After conducting the proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?

Shooter/Shooter

Shooter/Cover

Looker/Shooter

197

NORMA / BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the _______ of the weapon's range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy's _____________.

last one-third

maximum effective range

198

What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?

R-Min

R-Max

Azimuth

Elevation

TOF

199

What are the four types of ballistics?

Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal

200

Rotor Downwash Error is what type of ballistic?

What weapon system is most affected?

When is maximum error induced?

Aerial

Rockets

Engagements while IGE

201

Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with a forward airspeed of _____.

30 knots

202

Projectile Drift is ________ ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to __________.

an Exterior

drift to the right

203

Trajectory Shift is _______ ballistic. Aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to _____-.

an Aerial

Shift Forward

204

Port-Starboard Effect is produced when _____________ combine. When a target is to the left, _________________. When the target is to the right, ___________.

Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift

the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right.

Trajectory Shift / Projectile Drift cancel each other

205

Angular Rate Error is an _______ ballistic that is caused by __________________.

Aerial Ballistic

the motion imparted on the projectile by the launch platform

206

A crew fires a 30mm burst at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?

Burst on Target Recognition Method

Kentucky Windage

207

List the 9 laser related missile performance detractors.

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Spot Jitter, Overspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect

208

What is backscatter?

A portion of the laser beam's energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser's enegery penetrates towards the target.

209

True / False

The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent

FALSE

210

What is Entrapment?

Laser's reflection point on the DPI is trapped or masked within the target.

211

What is the Podium Effect?

When the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker.

212

What is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon?

Turret Bending

213

What is turret bending?

Airframe and Gun-Turret flexing in response to sustained recoil

214

The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is ______.

620 meters

215

What are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation?

Low

High

Pulse

216

To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond ______, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the WP to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above the line of sight.

1000 meters

1000 meters

217

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

Training

218

What is entered on the keyboard unit to select an auto range?

A

219

The maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered is ____

1788

220

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ______ with a ________ look down angle.

33 feet AGL

one-degree look down angle

221

Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _______ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires _______ burst of laser energy for target destination and continuous range updates.

3 laser bursts

continuous

222

On the COORD page, pressing any _______ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an _________________.

VAB L1-L6

acquisition source

223

The _________ to WAS a weapon has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the PLT actions rockets, _________ is in effect.

last crewmember

cooperative moding

224

The engagement process is a systemic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tennents. What are they?

DIDEA

Detect - Identify - Decide - Engage - Assess

225

A target is _______ when it is temporarily taken out of the battle. ________ a target allows the maneuver commander to decide whether to continue to engage with indirect fires, maneuver to the target and engage with direct fires or bypass a target and proceed with other missions.

neutralized

neutralizing

226

_________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. A unit with __% or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. Direct hits are required on hard materiel targets.

Destruction

30%

227

The method of attacking a target is governed by the results desired. What are the 3 possible results?

Suppression

Neutralization

Destruction

228

What are the four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters?

Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal

229

What are the various types of interior ballistics?

(BLTPP)

Barrel Wear / Launcher Tube Alignment / Thrust Misalignment / Propellant Charge / Projectile Weight

230

Gravity, Yaw, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics?

Exterior

231

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

Time of Flight

Wind Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile

232

Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile's trajectory changing which increases ____. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?

Drag

Near the muzzle

233

The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right called?

Projectile Drift

234

________ and ________ combine to constitute the port-starboard effect.

Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift

235

Aerial-Fired weapons characteristics derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are ___________.

Rotor Downwash Error, Angular Rate Error, and Turning Bank Error

236

In general, at ranges less than _______, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges greater than _______, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.

1,000 meters

1,000 meters

237

AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if:

TADS is the selected LOS (7-state kalman filter)

FCR is the selected LOS (scan-to-scan correlation)

**no lead angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight

238

PROJECTILE JUMP

Firing to the right produces a _____ jump.

Firing to the left produces a _____ jump.

When is projectile jump correction required?

downward

upward

if a relative wind exists

239

___________ is caused by the motion (pitch/roll/yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.

Angular Rate Error

240

_________ is effectively negligible for 30mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. ________ induces angular rates in the pitch axis up to __ degrees per second.

Angular Rate Error

Articulating Pylons

10

241

What are three factors that effect dispersion?

Vibrations

Sights

Boresights

242

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?

Terminal Ballistic

243

Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as _____________.

Relative Wind Effect

244

What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?

Thrust Misalignment

Rocket Spin

245

Maximum effective range is defined as:

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target

246

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land __ degrees off center __ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a __ meter radius.

5 degrees off center - 66 percent of the time

90% probability of injuries within 20 meter radius

247

Hellfire II missiles maximum velocity is approximately _____ meters per second.

475 m/s

248

Running fire performed at airspeeds _____ will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.

above ETL

249

Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the percieved dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the WP: 1st round....

no - compensation. 2nd round, 1/2 table value, 3rd round on - full table value applied.

250

The 30mm audible signature travels approximately ____ meters per second. Engagement at ranges greater than _____ meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.

331 meters per second

2,000 meters

251

The base line TADS can take up to ______ to establish a good track history and generate a quality ballistic solution.

three seconds

252

At approximately _____ indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.

33 knots

253

The TARGET STATE ESTIMATOR utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:

- Processed range data from the laser range validator

- TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros

- Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI

254

The Apache's ___________ will correct for steady state target movement when the TADS or FCR sights are used. However, the ___ assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the ___ as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.

Target State Estimator

TSE / TSE

255

What is used to preprocess laser range data recieved from the TADS LRFD?

LASER RANGE VALIDATOR

256

Crewmembers will not use ________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.

FRIENDLY

257

The Laser Range Validator processes the range returns and derives a range rate "profile". When data is good - _____. When data is not consistent with the established range profile, the ______.

SOLID ASERISK

ASTERISK IS FLASHED

258

To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately ____ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.

8 - 10 km

259

Transmission of the 5-line CCA brief (Ground to Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a __________.

Danger Close Situation

260

The Four "T's" associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?

Target / Torque / Trim / Target (re-verified)

261

_______ is the recommended mode of operation as the gun turret is positioned and rocket pylons articulate based on the commands computed by the ballistic solution.

NORMAL MODE

262

In _______, the gun turret is positioned to 0-degrees azimuth and +6 degrees elevation. Ballistic correctors are computed and used to position the fixed-mode reticle?

FIXED MODE

263

What are the four techniques of fire?

Hover / Running / Diving / Low-Alt Bump

264

_______ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300'-1,000' bump about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.

Low-Altitude Bump

265

The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing_____.

TPM-R

266

In TPM-R, what is T and what are the options for T?

Technique

Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Alt Bump

267

In TPM-R, what is P and what are the options for P?

Pattern

Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-Attack, Figure 8, Butterfly Pattern, 45-degree Attack, Circular/Wheel Pattern

268

In TPM-R, what is the M and what are the options for M?

Munitions

30mm, (type) RKT, MSL

269

In TPM-R, what is R and what need be announced?

Range

Range to engage with each munition and then pull off at

270

The AMC assigns team engagement from a moving helicopter _________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter __________________.

Moving - greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS

Running - 40 KTAS and the aircraft velocity never exceeds (Vne)

271

The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections are as follows:

Laser Range-Finder Method

Mil Relationship Method

Recognition Method

272

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your LOS to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is ________.

Recognition Method (Kentucky Windage)

273

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket's impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is ____.

Laser-Rangefinder Method

274

When the LRFD is not working, referencing the target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as _____________.

Mil Relationship Method

275

Steep dive angles (______) result in large rates of change in aircraft flight parameters and present flight safety challenges.

> 25 degrees

276

Steeper dive angles compress the range error for rockets significantly and result in less _____ around the rocket aim point.

dispersion

277

Pilots must plan the ____ in time to avoid abrupt recovery maneuvers. _____ may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground.

Dive Recovery

Target Fixation

278

______ may make dive recoveries difficult. If the aircraft enters ______, the pilot must reduce the severity of the dive recovery by reducing the amount of aft cyclic and/or reducing the collective pitch on the rotor system.

Mushing

279

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

Time of Flight

Wind-Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile

280

The two types of fires are ___ and ____.

Direct and Indirect

281

Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is know as ______.

Indirect Fire

282

What are the three levels of safing the aircraft?

Finger of the Trigger

de-WASed

SAFE/ARM button - SAFE

283

What is the rotrary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing): 30mm cannon

500m

1000m

1500m

75m

95m

115m

284

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

Black Projectile with Yellow Band and Yellow Markings

285

To accomplish AWS dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of ____ degrees, at a range of _______.

+/- 5 degrees

500-1500 meters

286

The nominal burst radius of the M789 HEDP round is ____; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, ______________________.

4 meters

impact angle, velocity, and target type

287

What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?

5.8 seconds

288

When viewed from above the fragment pattern of each individual round is a flattened "X" shape with the majority of the fragments moving to the side and slightly forward, with the highest concentration spiking at the _______ o'clock positions.

2:00 and 10:00

289

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the crew DMPI selection should be _______ of the target to achieve the desired effects.

offset and/or short

290

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid _____ when HMD is the selected sight.

Manual Range

291

When FXD is selected by the pilot, the ____ will only be displayed in the ____ format symbology. When FXD is selected by the ___, both crewmembers will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.

CCIP

PLT

CPG

292

Fixed gun may be utilized during degraded system operations (IHADSS Invalid LOS). When selecting FXD gun, the gun will be commanded to ______ in elevation and forward in azimuth to the helicopter armament datum line (ADL).

+0.87 degrees

293

What is the gun duty cycle?

6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by at 10 min cooling period. For burst limiter settings other than 50 - no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.

294

The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _____. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

300

10 minutes

30 minutes

295

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is __________.

1500 - 1700 meters

296

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a ____ inhibit. When firing the AWS ___________, LOS INVALID becomes ______________, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent.

Safety

in FXD mode

a performance inhibit

297

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of _______ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ______ elevation (_____ elevation within ____ of aircraft centerline), and ______ in depression.

86 degrees

+11 degrees

+9 degrees (within 10 degrees...)

-60 degrees

298

True / False

Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.

TRUE

299

The 30mm is limited to _____ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

+/- 60 degrees

300

The 30mm is limited to ______ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

52 degrees

301

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a "____" weapon status field message will be displayed and the __________ anythime the trigger is pulled.

"GUN FAIL"

LOS reticle will flash

302

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

The possibility exists that the AWS could be inadvertently be driven into the ground.

303

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will __________. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.

Stowed in Elevation.

304

What is the approximate velocity (fps) of the 30 mm round?

2640 fps

305

What is the "WARNING" associated with the 30mm?

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death

306

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of _______.

4200 meters

307

The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is _____ rounds.

1200

308

The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ____ rounds. (__ rounds in the chain)

300 total

58 in the chain

309

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ______ in elevation to prevent ____ during landing.

+11 degrees

dig-in

310

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _______. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ____________.

inhibited

return to the stowed position

311

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is _____.

625 +/- 25 rounds per minute

312

__________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.

Turret bending

313

When conducting AWS harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the _______________.

Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG)

314

The Sideloader / Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions. What are they?

Counting of 30mm rounds

Control of the carrier driver assembly

Control of the loader assembly for uploading/downloading

315

The 30mm can accommodate 3 different types of rounds. What are they?

M789 HEDP

M799 HEI

M788 TP

316

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

888 rounds

317

The rotarty wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):

HE Rockets: 300m / 800m / 1500m

Flechette: 1000m

HE: 300m - 140m

       800m - 210m

       1500 - 305m

FL: 1000m - 170m

318

With Hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quanties of each are available?

A-24

B-8

E-6

319

M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _______ and/or speeds greater than ____ are not authorized.

1000 meters

90 KTAS

320

________________ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.

ACCEL LIMIT is a safety inhibit

321

The _______ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ______ and the pilot actions rockets, ________ is in effect.

last crewmember

LHG WAS

cooperative moding

322

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and provides range settings from ______ to about ________.

500 - 7000 meters

323

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _____ of armor.

4 inches

324

There are ____ submunitions in each M261 MPSM warhead.

nine

325

An MPSM submunition that lands _ degrees of center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a ______ radius and a submunition landing ___ degrees off center has a ___ percent probability of producing casualties within a _____ radius.

5 degrees - 90 percent - 20 meters

20 degrees - 90 percent - 5 meters

326

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land _ degrees off center ___ percent of the time and __ off center ___ percent of the time.

5 degrees - 66 percent of the time

30 degrees - 33 percent of the time

327

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ____ with two ___ launchers every _____ seconds, or fire only ___ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.

pairs / outboard / three / one

328

The target area coverage achieved by one M261 MPSM warhead ______ as range increases.

decreases

329

In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and _____ smoke producing submunitions.

six

three

330

What is the RAD and what does it do as it relates to the MPSM rocket?

Ram Air Decelerator

Stops forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition

331

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ____ from other airborne helicopters.

51 meters

332

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ___________.

HMD, TADS, or FCR

333

When rockets are in cooperative mode the WP will use the _______________ and will disregard the __________.

CPG Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution

PLT LOS and range data

334

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?

Yes. During the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN's RKT page. Both may view, access, edit or fire RKT's

335

What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?

Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordnance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves)

336

The "10 pounder" rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at ______ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.

high dive angles

337

The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.

150 meters

338

Hover fire rocket engagements with PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _______ without changing the aircraft pitch angle.

4500 meters

339

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by out software includes _______________.

6PD / 6RC / 6IL / 6SK / 6MP / 6FL

340

Firing Mk66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ______, and for all other flight conditions of _____, is not authorized.

7 ft AGL

5 ft AGL

341

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ____ meters. The effective range with Mk66 rocket motors is ______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ___.

800 meters

1-3 km

3 km

342

Re-inventory and attempting to fire ______ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ____ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze to reset.

6MP / 6FL / 6SK

10 days

343

The _______ warhead provides one million candlepower for 100 seconds or more.

M257 Illumination (over)

344

The M278 IR Illumination (cover) warhead will provide IR light for _____ minutes.

Three

345

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing) for the AGM-114 K/M/N/FA/L is

110 meters

346

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both _________, to the gun target line prior to firing.

horizontally and vertically

347

An offset of ____ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.

3 to 5 degrees

348

SAL Hellfire Missile Performance Detractors are:

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium effect

349

Backscatter can/cannot be overridden by the trigger second detent.

CANNOT

Safety Inhibit

350

Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a __________ to provide missile guidance.

Remote Designator

"Buddy Lase"

351

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of ________ of delay from missile separation.

two seconds

352

What are the missile constraints box drivers:

LOBL

LOAL DIR

LOAL LO / HI

LOBL - missile seeker

LOAL DIR - selected LOS

LOAL LO/HI - target coordinates (B5 data)

353

True / False

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window.

FALSE

354

The missile seeker has a ________ seeker limit from the missile centerline.

+/- 30 degree

355

LOAL LO/HI maximum engagement range is ____.

8 km

356

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is ___.

7 km

357

LOBL maximum engagement range is ___.

7 km

358

SAL II "K Model" LOBL min engagement ranges:

0 degree offset: 500 meters

20 degree offset: 700 meters

359

SAL II "K Model" LOAL DIR min engagement ranges:

0 degree offset: 1,500 meters

7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters

360

SAL II "K Model" LOAL LO min engagement ranges:

0 degree offset: 2,000 meters

7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters

361

SAL II "K Model" LOAL HI min engagement ranges:

0 degree offset: 3,500 meters

7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters

362

The LOBL missile constraint box is ____ degrees.

+/- 20 degrees

363

The LOAL missile constraints box is ____ degrees.

+/- 7.5 degrees

364

LOAL LO will clear a ____ mask with a ____ meter standoff.

260 ft - 600 meter

365

LOAL HI will clear a ____ mask with a ____ standoff.

1,000 ft - 1,500 meters

366

Due to the seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows:

___ meters for 50-400 feet above TGT alt

____ meters for 401-800 feet above TGT alt

500 meters

1,000 meters

367

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ______ the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.

800 feet above

368

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes

369

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within ___ degrees of the gun target line nor more than ___ degrees from the target centerline.

30 degrees

60 degrees

370

The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:

1) the firing ACFT's LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code

2) the selected sight is HMD

3) the laser is off

371

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is _____. When the SAL missile is NORM or RIPL the switch is _____.

active

not active

372

The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a "K" model missile in LOBL mode is___

300 feet at 3 Km, 500 feet at 5 Km and 600 feet at 7 Km

373

Targets shall be a minimum of ____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114 M/N/K2A missiles.

800 meters

374

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ground __________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion.

just short of the target

375

Do not fly faster than ____ when firing the AGM-114 missile

90 KTAS

376

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no gretaher than ______ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM-114

90 knots

377

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as __________ in the firing sequence.

the next missile to be launched

378

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

3

379

As a guideline, moving targets tracking on the rail ________ pull latency.

can tolerate

380

As a guideline, for RF inhibit FCR moving target, trigger pull latency should be no more than _____ seconds.

15

381

As a guideline, for TADS stationary targets, trigger pull latency no more than ___ seconds.

5

382

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than _______ seconds after the TARGET DATA message disappears.

5 to 7

383

Target velocities are set to _____ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold.

zero

384

_____________ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.

Transfer Alignment

385

___ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target.

"R"

386

__________ occurs from the time that the WP transfers target data to the missile until the missile is either launched or returns to the standby mode.

Prelaunch Mode

387

______________ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.

Doppler Beam Sharpening

388

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of _______. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL.

1 - 2.5 Km

389

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ________. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned.

10 minute intervals

390

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:

TADS / FCR / IDM

391

The _________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs.

postlaunch mode

392

The target ____________are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets.

Acquisition and Tracking Modes

393

What are the three target acquisition modes of the RF missile?

Preterminal Track Acquisition

Terminal Track Acquisition

Moving Target Acquisition

394

What are the two missile tracking modes of the RF missile?

Preterminal Track and Terminal Track

395

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between 0.5 - 1.0 km, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. If the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message _______ will be displayed and firing will be inhibited.

"NO ACQUIRE"

396

RF DBS trajectory is based on target location relative to the ___________.

missile centerline

397

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target.

RIGHT

398

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

NA

399

How long is the allowable traning mode missile elapsed ON time?

30 minutes

400

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?

What does the symbol mean?

OT

Overtemperature

401

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

To allow for LOAL shots only

Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature

402

What does the message "TARGET DATA?" mean in the HAD?

Indicates no target data is available

(MSL WAS'd, RF MSL selected, and TADS is the selected LOS)

403

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) tracking capability of the missile to the precision PRF of the selected laser code.

narrows

404

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ______ RF missile during a _______ target engagement

Primary

Stationary

405

A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying off-axis path to the target. This is called _____________.

Doppler Beam Sharpening

406

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _____.

1 - 2.5 km

407

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _____ meters at 8 km.

990 meters

408

True / False

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR / TSD page ACQ source window.

FALSE

By what is acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position

409

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to ____, the allowable constraints angle is ______.

1 km

20 degrees

410

If the RF missile is tracking and the target is less than ____, the allowable constraints angle is ______.

1 km

5 degrees

411

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

1 meter and 45 degree off the missile nose

412

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?

105.1 lbs

413

In what three modes does the RF missile operate?

Standby

Prelaunch

Post Launch

414

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present

415

The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

"NAV DATA INVALID"

416

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are:

WFOV / MFOV / NFOV / ZFOV

WFOV - 90 degrees

MFOV - 45 degrees

NFOV - 30 degrees

ZFOV - 15 degrees

417

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?

A

418

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

B

419

Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

C

420

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans

3 scans

421

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ______, it will radiate and attempt LOBL.

0.5 - 8 km

422

_____________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification

Scan-to-Scan Correlation

423

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ___ target is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____.

NTS <> frozen <> solid

424

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on that symbol and _________.

ANTS symbol

flash for 3 seconds

425

The ______ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

CUED search

426

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___ degrees of the ________.

+/- 90 degrees

Aircraft Centerline

427

Up to __ RFI emitters can be displayed

10

428

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a __________ around the threat symbol and target type.

Home Plate Symbol

429

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ______, the symbol will change to _______. After _______ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______.

30 seconds <> Partial Intensity <> 90 seconds <> blank

430

Powering on the RLWR ON enables up to ___ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

ten

inside

431

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

ten

outside

432

The RFI system detects and processes ____________________________ radar signals.

pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave

433

When the Radar Jammer is transmitting ___________ in the center of the Ownship Icon will be present.

a flashing lightning bolt

434

What does the message "RFI DATA?" mean?

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED SEARCH and no threat data is available

435

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components.

436

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?

The display ZOOM area will be centered on the NTS target

437

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

64 symbols

438

CAUTION: ________ selection in extreme cold weather (-10*C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.

FCR BIT ORIDE

439

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ____ target symbols ______ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

beneath

during / after

on top of

440

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed ____________________. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed _______________________.

decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots

increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots

441

Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command ________ to the line of bearing of the selected emitter.

the FCR centerline

442

Continuing to press and release the cued switch will _________________.

continuously cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters

443

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______.

CYAN

YELLOW

444

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ______________ over that emitter.

an inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol)

445

The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Detecting Set provides for _______ of coverage in azimuth and ____ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap.

360 degrees

+/- 45 degrees

446

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

TRAINING

447

Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

NO (safety inhibit)

448

Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

NO (safety inhibit)

449

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using ___________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

the CPG's sight and range source

450

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the ______ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

flashing lightning bolt

ownship

451

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)

452

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ____________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ________________.

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

453

The FCR can engage stationary targets between ___ and ____ km.

0.5 - 8 km

454

When operating at _________, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _______ could result in sever Np/Nr droop.

high power settings

high power settings

455

_________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________ cannot be maintained.

Crew Coordination

ground and obstacle clearance

456

When _______, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to liftoff. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______.

icing conditions exist

icing

457

Pilot and CPG shall perform their ________ prior to entering the Forward Area Refuel Point (FARP)

armament safety check

458

A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates _________.

receiving valid range data

459

A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates

receiving multiple target returns

460

What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered?

1788

461

________ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent.

Three bursts

462

When operating in the TESS / weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

TRAINING

463

The second detent of the trigger activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain ______ for up to 10 seconds following release of the second detent.

dynamic

464

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _____ with a ______ look down angle.

33 feet

one-degree

465

On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1-L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat __________.

an Acquisition Source

466

Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as the ______ source and the _______ is pressed.

acquisition

RHG SLAVE

467

The CPG is required to ________ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically _________.

manually "slave"

set to off

468

Medium field of vieew should be used for target acquisition and _______ field of view should be used for target  recognition and engagement.

narrow or zoom

469

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. ________ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving.

Linear Motion Compensator (LMC)

470

When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where?

In the PLT/CPG weapon inhibit field for 4 seconds

471

The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.

25

472

The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity to full intensity _____ when TADS is lasing.

white

473

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (zoom).

474

Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?

The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off

475

The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately ______ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.

30 seconds

476

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for _______ or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.

15 minutes

477

What does the LRFD in the "LAST" position do?

WP uses last laser return

478

An aircraft equipped with an Upper Receiver (UR) is capable of receiving _________.

C, L, S, and KU band

479

An aircraft equipped with an Air to Air, Air to Ground (AAG) antenna is capable of receiving ____.

KU band

480

JFIRE BREVITY

BLIND

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of Visual

481

JFIRE BREVITY

CAPTURED

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor

482

JFIRE BREVITY

CONTACT

1. Sensor SA at the stated position

2. Air-to-Surface acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point

483

JFIRE BREVITY

LOOKING

Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight

(opposite of CONTACT)

484

JFIRE BREVITY

LOWDOWN

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest

485

JFIRE BREVITY

MOVER(S)

Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion

486

JFIRE BREVITY

NO JOY

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY

487

JFIRE BREVITY

PLAYTIME

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes

("ONE PLUS THIRTY" = 1hr 30min)

488

JFIRE BREVITY

POSTURE

Communicates sensor posture (offensive/defensive/ or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply friendly ground forces' tactical situation.

489

JFIRE BREVITY

REMINGTON

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

490

JFIRE BREVITY

SQUIRTER

A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area

491

JFIRE BREVITY

SUNSHINE

Illuminating target with artificial illumination

492

JFIRE BREVITY

TALLY

Sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY

493

JFIRE BREVITY

VISUAL

Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND

494

JFIRE BREVITY

WINCHESTER

No ordnance remaining

495

JFIRE BREVITY

CEASE (activity)

(CEASE BUZZER / CEASER LASER / CEASE FIRE)

Discontinue stated activity

496

JFIRE BREVITY

LASER ON

Start / Acknowledge laser designation

497

JFIRE BREVITY

LASING

The speaker is firing the laser

498

JFIRE BREVITY

NEGATIVE LASER

Laser energy has not been acquired

499

JFIRE BREVITY

SPOT

1. Acquisition of laser designation

2. Platform is LST capable

500

JFIRE BREVITY

STARE (with laser code and ref point)

Cue the laser spot search

Tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point

501

JFIRE BREVITY

ROPE

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position

502

JFIRE BREVITY

SNAKE

Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target

503

JFIRE BREVITY

SPARKLE

Mark / Marking target by IR pointer

Platform is capable to IR point

504

JFIRE BREVITY

HANDSHAKE

Video data link established

Opposite of HOLLOW

505

JFIRE BEVITY

HOLLOW

Any data link message not received

Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE