Gunnery

Question 1

What is the [WARNING] associated with the 30mm?

(-10)

Answer 1

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.

Question 2

[WARNING] If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __ _______, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must ______ _____ of the aircraft for __ _______. Aircraft crewmembers should remain __ ___ ________ and ________ ________________________________.

(-10)

Answer 2

[WARNING] If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

Question 3

What is the Gun Duty Cycle IAW the -10?

Answer 3

6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.

Question 4

True / False

Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode

Answer 4

TRUE

Question 5

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, what happens to the gun?

Answer 5

Gun is STOWED IN ELEVTION

Question 6

What happens to the gun in the event of IHADSS failure when GUN is actioned and HMD is the selected sight?

Answer 6

Gun firing is inhibited

When gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position

Question 7

In the event of a power loss, what happens to the gun? Why?

Answer 7

The gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation.

To prevent a dig-in.

Question 8

What message is displayed in the HAD when the GUN is actioned and the WP detects a ‘NO GO’ status?

What happens when the trigger is pulled?

Answer 8

“GUN FAIL”

LOS reticule will flash

Question 9

When is Fixed Gun especially suitable to be utilized?

Answer 9

When TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable.

Question 10

When using IHADSS against point targets beyond ______ meters (without the use of TADS or FCR), the crew should select __________.

Answer 10

1,000 meters

FIXED GUN

Question 11

What is the azimuth and elevation of the GUN commanded to by the WP when in the Fixed Position?

Answer 11

+0.87 degrees elevation

0 degrees azimuth

Question 12

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?

Answer 12

YES

Question 13

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in teh AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

Answer 13

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.

Question 14

What is the maximum effective range of the 30mm?

Answer 14

1500 - 1700 meters

Question 15

What is the time of flight for a 3km 30mm shot?

Answer 15

12.2 seconds

Question 16

What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?

Answer 16

805 meters/second

Question 17

What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?

Answer 17

625 +/- 25 rounds/minute

Question 18

Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a __________.

Answer 18

4 meter radius

Question 19

The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of _______ rounds.

Answer 19

1200

Question 20

How many rounds is the 100 gallon Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) capable of holding?

How many rounds in the flex chute?

Total Rounds?

Answer 20

242

58

300

Question 21

Regarding the 30mm, what is the maximum range for which the WP will provide a fire control solution?

Answer 21

4200 meters

Question 22

With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (_________), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, ____________________ is required

Answer 22

With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is NOT AVAILABLE. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, continued/concentrated fire is required

Question 23

What are the movement limits of the gun turret?

Answer 23

86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression.

Question 24

What are the ATM standards for Gun Dynamic Harmonization?

Answer 24

Aircraft Centerline +/- 5 degrees of target

Target range 500 to 1500 meters

Question 25

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds and then presses the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 25

Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG)

Question 26

When rockets are action simultaneously with the gun, what azimuth is the gun limited to?

Answer 26

+/- 60 degrees

Question 27

When gun is actioned simultaneously with missile (inboard pylon), what is the azimuth limited to ON THE SIDE TO BE FIRED?

Answer 27

52 degrees

Question 28

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, where should the CPG select the DMPI?

Answer 28

Slightly short of personnel targets

Question 29

What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?

Answer 29

115 meters

Question 30

What are the visual markings of the M789 HEDP round?

Answer 30

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case

Question 31

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ___________ stations. Fire no more than ______ with two __________ launchers every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or fire with only _____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

Answer 31

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).

Question 32

After a failure of 6MP, 6FL, or 6SK rockets (which use the _________ fuse) to fire (NO-FIRE event), how long should the rockets be given to reset?

Answer 32

M439 (Base Mounted Resistence Capacitance) 10 days

Question 33

With respect to rockets, can the crew override the settings on the Weapons Utility Load page?

Answer 33

YES

Question 34

How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the ammount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these settings be changed from inside the aircraft? How?

Answer 34

The Load Maintenance Panel YES - Weapons Utility Load page

Question 35

TRUE / FALSE If the PLT actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots

Answer 35

FALSE

Question 36

What sights can be utilized to employ the Aerial Rocket Subsystem?

Answer 36

HMD, TADS, or FCR

Question 37

Can the pylons articulate independently of one another?

Answer 37

YES

Question 38

What is the range in elevation that the pylons are capable on independently articulating? How fast can the pylons articulate? What controls the pylons?

Answer 38

+4 degrees to -15 degrees 10 degrees per second Weapons Processor

Question 39

At what range to rockets achieve best effectiveness?

Answer 39

3000 to 5000 meters

Question 40

It is NOT AUTHORIZED to fire MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than \_\_\_\_\_, and for all other flight conditions of less than \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 40

Hover - low speed: 7' AGL Other flight conditions: 5' AGL

Question 41

With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available?

Answer 41

A - 24 B - 8 E - 6

Question 42

How many rockets can fit in each pod? With two pods installed, how many rockets can be loaded? (yes... just multiply answer 1 by 2)

Answer 42

19 38

Question 43

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _________ without changing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. At ranges beyond \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?

Answer 43

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints? pitch attitude changes (nose-up)

Question 44

What are the possible MK66 motor fuse/warhead combinations currently supported by our software?

Answer 44

6PD 6MP 6FL 6IL 6RC 6SK

Question 45

The bursting radius of the M151 HE "10 Pounder" is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 45

10 meters burst 50 meters lethality (T)

Question 46

What is employing "sunshine" IAW .45 and JFIRE?

Answer 46

Employing Illumination Rockets

Question 47

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor.

Answer 47

4 inches

Question 48

The M261 MPSM has ___ submunitions and effective employment ranges from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 48

9 submunitions effective from 500 to 7000 meters *WILL NOT FIRE AT GREATER THAN 90 KTAS or LESS THAN 1000m.*

Question 49

At \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 49

1,000 meters 8mm of milled steel

Question 50

Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than __________ and forward airspeeds of less than ____ knots.

Answer 50

Greater than 1000 meters Less than 90 KTAS

Question 51

What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM Rocket?

Answer 51

RAM AIR DECELERATOR Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition

Question 52

What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?

Answer 52

1500' AGL

Question 53

What standoff range should Illum (m257/m278) rockets be launched from?

Answer 53

3500 meters

Question 54

How far beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket will spent illum rocket motors impact?

Answer 54

700 to 1,200 meters

Question 55

What is the minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets? What is the effective range?

Answer 55

800 meters minimum 1km - 3km effective range

Question 56

6FL - Minimum Range

Answer 56

800 meters

Question 57

6FL - Effective Range

Answer 57

1km - 3km

Question 58

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versiosn will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.

Answer 58

Red Pigment

Question 59

The flechette rocket detonates about _____ before the predetermined range.

Answer 59

150 meters

Question 60

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ from deployment point.

Answer 60

Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point.

Question 61

At _____ meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 61

At 1,000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel.

Question 62

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.

Answer 62

51 meters

Question 63

What are the four "T's" of diving flight?

Answer 63

Target / Torque / Trim / Target

Question 64

During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?

Answer 64

An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball

Question 65

What is the rotary wing risk estimate for a 1500 meter PD rocket engagement?

Answer 65

305 meters

Question 66

To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline __________ to the side of the SAL missile being launched.

Answer 66

3 to 5 degrees

Question 67

The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Answer 67

+/- 20 degrees

Question 68

The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Answer 68

+/- 7.5 degrees

Question 69

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?

Answer 69

The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position

Question 70

Hellfire missile arming occurs after ___________ acceleration __________ meters after launch.

Answer 70

Exceeding 10 G's 150 to 300 meters

Question 71

Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _________ or ____________ or ________ or \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 71

475 meters per second 923 knots 950 mph Mach 1.4

Question 72

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

Answer 72

30 minutes

Question 73

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does the symbol mean?

Answer 73

OT Overtemperature

Question 74

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missile will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

Answer 74

3

Question 75

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the CCM routing within the laser missile. This selection ________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.

Answer 75

NARROWS

Question 76

What are the SAL II K2A LOBL minimum engagement ranges? 0 degree offset 20 degree offset

Answer 76

500 meters 700 meters

Question 77

What are the SAL II K2A LOAL DIR minimum engagement ranges? 0 degree offset 7.5 degree offset

Answer 77

1,500 meters 1,700 meters

Question 78

What are the SAL II K2A LOAL LO minimum engagement ranges? 0 degree offset 7.5 degree offset

Answer 78

2,000 meters 2,500 meters

Question 79

What is the SAL II K2A LOAL HI minimum engagement range? 0 degree offset 7.5 degree offset

Answer 79

3,500 meters 3,500 meters

Question 80

What is the minimum range for a AGM-114 K2A missile? Why?

Answer 80

800 meters because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation

Question 81

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within _______ and __________ of the gun target line, nor more than _______ from the target centerline

Answer 81

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline

Question 82

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ______ if the target is ________ below the aircraft

Answer 82

500 meters 50 to 400 feet

Question 83

Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased ________ if the target is __________ the aircraft

Answer 83

1000 meters 401 to 800 feet below

Question 84

With LOAL LO selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a ______ mask ______ away

Answer 84

260 foot mask 600 meters away

Question 85

With LOAL HI selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a _______ mask _______ away.

Answer 85

1,000 foot mask 1,500 meters away

Question 86

What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR K2A missile with a 7.5 degree offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.

Answer 86

2200 meters (1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target)

Question 87

The maximum ______________ for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the _______________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for _____________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

Answer 87

The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.

Question 88

The maximum _____ of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?

Answer 88

Selecting LOAL - LO or LOAL-HI trajectory will extend the missile's maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers.

Question 89

What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?

Answer 89

Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory

Question 90

What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for K/M/N/R missile trajectory?

Answer 90

600 feet

Question 91

What is the maximum airspeed you can fly when engaging with an AGM-114F-A?

Answer 91

90 Knots

Question 92

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?

Answer 92

105.1 lbs

Question 93

For RF missile engagements \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.

Answer 93

less than 1 Km

Question 94

When the RM missile is tracking and the target range is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees

Answer 94

greater than or equal to 1 Km

Question 95

When an RF missilt detects a moving target with a range between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, it will radiate and engage LOBL

Answer 95

0.5 - 8.0 Km

Question 96

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. If target is not detected, it will revert to LOAL.

Answer 96

1.0 - 2.5 Km

Question 97

The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 97

2.5 - 6 Km

Question 98

The RF missile is capable of hitting a stationary LOAL target via the TADS handover through RFHOs to a maximum of \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 98

8 Km

Question 99

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

Answer 99

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present

Question 100

What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?

Answer 100

R

Question 101

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

Answer 101

NA

Question 102

What is "transfer alignment"?

Answer 102

The transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform

Question 103

What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?

Answer 103

TADS, FCR, and IDM

Question 104

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

Answer 104

To allow for LOAL shots only, inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature.

Question 105

The ____________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a _________ target engagement.

Answer 105

2nd Target Inihibit button Stationary

Question 106

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is when an RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.

Answer 106

Doppler Beam Sharpening

Question 107

At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of ________ at \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 107

990 meters @ 8 Km

Question 108

Stationary targets between _______________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missileconducts DBS by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 108

2,500 and 8,000 meters pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction

Question 109

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at __________ invervals. This DOES/DOES NOT occur while missiles are WASed.

Answer 109

10 minute interval DOES NOT

Question 110

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

Answer 110

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose

Question 111

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the ________ sight and range source, regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

Answer 111

CPG's sight and range source

Question 112

How many shot-at locations can be stored?

Answer 112

128

Question 113

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ______________ in the firing sequence.

Answer 113

The next missile to be launched

Question 114

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is \_\_\_\_\_\_. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 114

Active Not Active

Question 115

What is the "rule of thumb" for computing Hellfire TOF?

Answer 115

Range x 4

Question 116

What is the "rule of thumb" for calculating maximum laser delay?

Answer 116

(TOF / 2) - 2

Question 117

What is the rotary wing risk estimate for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L?

Answer 117

110 meters

Question 118

Default range for the pilot is \_\_\_\_\_ Default range for the CPG is \_\_\_\_\_

Answer 118

1. 5 km 3. 0 km

Question 119

The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and intiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ____ targets.

Answer 119

128 targets 16 targets 256 targets

Question 120

A flashing asterisk (\*) in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 120

Multiple Target Condition is detected

Question 121

When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the _____ and compensates for ________ when engaging with __________ when TADS is the LOS.

Answer 121

The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS.

Question 122

True / False Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode (ATM)

Answer 122

FALSE

Question 123

True / False In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.

Answer 123

FALSE

Question 124

Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.

Answer 124

10 RFI symbols

Question 125

RFI emitters will stay full intensity until ________ after they cease transmission.

Answer 125

30 seconds

Question 126

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _____________________ around the threat Symbol and target type

Answer 126

Home Plate Symbol

Question 127

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for \_\_\_\_\_, the symbols will change to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. After _________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 127

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank.

Question 128

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Enemy/Gray emitters are displayed in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 128

CYAN YELLOW

Question 129

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places _______________ over that emitter.

Answer 129

an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)

Question 130

Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ______ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 130

SEVEN INSIDE

Question 131

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats on the _______ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 131

TEN OUTSIDE

Question 132

The RFI system detects and processes what kind of radar signals?

Answer 132

PULSE PULSE DOPPLER CONTINUOUS WAVE (CW)

Question 133

What does the message "RFI DATA?" mean?

Answer 133

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available.

Question 134

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 134

+/- 90 degrees FCR centerline

Question 135

The _________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

Answer 135

CUED Search

Question 136

While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?

Answer 136

The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter.

Question 137

Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended how often?

Answer 137

TWO times ever 2.5 hours | (intent: once every 1+15 hrs)

Question 138

When do FCR target symbols become stale? Moving / Stationary

Answer 138

Moving - 5 seconds Stationary - 30 seconds

Question 139

If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne - what will the FCR do?

Answer 139

Change to ATM

Question 140

How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?

Answer 140

1) Pressing NTS button again 2) Selecting ALT NTS with the cursor 3) Shooting the NTS 4) Conducting another FCR scan

Question 141

What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?

Answer 141

2500 meters

Question 142

What are the GTM/RMAP scan sectors for each FOV?

Answer 142

WFOV - 90 degrees MFOV - 45 degrees NFOV - 30 degrees ZFOV - 15 degrees

Question 143

The FCR is unable to process STI targets at ranges greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 143

6000 meters

Question 144

In zoom mode the FCR will conduct ___ scans per scanburst

Answer 144

4 scans per scanburst in ZFOV

Question 145

The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict _____ each?

Answer 145

2 km

Question 146

The ____ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.

Answer 146

NTS

Question 147

Which FCR priority scheem emphasizes STI ground targets?

Answer 147

B

Question 148

Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage MTI ground targets?

Answer 148

C

Question 149

A single scan burst in GTM NFOV will give how many scans?

Answer 149

3 scans per scanburst in NFOV

Question 150

What improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification?

Answer 150

Scan-to-Scan Correlation

Question 151

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _______ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 151

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid.

Question 152

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on the target symbol and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 152

ANTS symbol flash for 3 seconds

Question 153

What is the caution associated with the use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

Answer 153

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to the FCR components.

Question 154

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT grip?

Answer 154

The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target.

Question 155

Regarding the TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

Answer 155

64 symbols

Question 156

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ________ target symbols ________ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The sumbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

Answer 156

beneath during/after on top of

Question 157

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a _______ scan sector when ground speed decreases below ____ and until increasing above ____ knots. Narrow format displays a ____ scan sector when the ground speed increases above _____ and until decreasing below \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 157

WFOV - 180 degree sector decreasing below 45 KTAS and increasing above 55 KTAS NFOV - 90 degree secotr increases above 55 KTAS and until decreasing below 45 KTAS

Question 158

When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in \_\_\_.

Answer 158

T50

Question 159

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the _____ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

Answer 159

flashing lightning bolt Ownship

Question 160

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

Answer 160

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)

Question 161

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ______________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 161

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

Question 162

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The _______________ process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.

Answer 162

FLIR SANUC (scene assisted non-uniformity correction)

Question 163

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 163

Crew Coordination ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained

Question 164

On the AF (Air Fire) page, if the values are all displayed in ____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in \_\_\_\_, a performance parameter has been exceeded.

Answer 164

GREEN WHITE

Question 165

The ________ will nominally take ______ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.

Answer 165

Target State Estimator (TSE) 3 seconds

Question 166

MUMT-2 Range expectations for the following - AAG to Observer: AAG to AAG: UR to UAS:

Answer 166

15 km 15 km 40 km

Question 167

While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?

Answer 167

The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P\* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential ICS shall cease until the P\* states "BACK ABOVE" to the P.

Question 168

When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?

Answer 168

Pilot not on the controls

Question 169

What are the three levels of safing?

Answer 169

Finger off the trigger de-WASed SAFE/ARM button - SAFE

Question 170

Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 170

NO (Safety Inhibit)

Question 171

Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 171

NO (Safety Inhibit)

Question 172

Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________ prior to entering the \_\_\_\_.

Answer 172

armament safety check FARP

Question 173

When _________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher _______ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 173

icing conditions exist ARM/SAFE switch icing

Question 174

When operating at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ensure anti-ice is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _________ could result in severe \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 174

high power settings manual mode high power settings Np/Nr droop

Question 175

The crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 175

friendly positions

Question 176

What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45?

Answer 176

DOCTRINE TRAINING ORGANIZATION LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT

Question 177

Maximum effective range is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 177

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target

Question 178

The two types of fires are ____ and \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 178

Direct and Indirect

Question 179

What are the three techniques of fire?

Answer 179

Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression

Question 180

Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target our of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 180

killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment

Question 181

Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualities or damage.

Answer 181

10%

Question 182

Suppression is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?

Answer 182

limits enemy movement, limits enemy observation, and increases friendly freedom to maneuver

Question 183

Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ______ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _____ of the suspected target area.

Answer 183

10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm 10 meters

Question 184

The four modes of fire IAW .45 are what?

Answer 184

Hover Moving Running Diving

Question 185

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ___ but less than \_\_\_\_\_. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 185

Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne Above 40 KTAS through Vne

Question 186

What is the purpose of a "Fence Check"?

Answer 186

Ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight. Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly.

Question 187

What are the standard steps of a Fence Check? (WAILR)

Answer 187

Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder

Question 188

What does "FENCE OUT" mean? What does "FENCE IN" mean?

Answer 188

OUT - conduct WAILR check crossing 'the wire', leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METT-TC depending IN - conduct revers WAILR as part of the before landing checks

Question 189

How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD? How many can be active?

Answer 189

8 created/displayed 1 active

Question 190

During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph = \_\_%

Answer 190

Ph = 70%

Question 191

Define "BREAK"

Answer 191

immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing the maximum performance evasive maneuver

Question 192

Define JINKING

Answer 192

deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire

Question 193

Define PULL OFF

Answer 193

employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area

Question 194

Transmission of the ____ CCA Brief constitutes _________ except in ________ situations.

Answer 194

5-Line Clearance to Fire Danger Close

Question 195

To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _____ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature. The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.

Answer 195

8 - 10 km

Question 196

After conducting the proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?

Answer 196

Shooter/Shooter Shooter/Cover Looker/Shooter

Question 197

NORMA / BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the _______ of the weapon's range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 197

last one-third maximum effective range

Question 198

What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?

Answer 198

R-Min R-Max Azimuth Elevation TOF

Question 199

What are the four types of ballistics?

Answer 199

Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal

Question 200

Rotor Downwash Error is what type of ballistic? What weapon system is most affected? When is maximum error induced?

Answer 200

Aerial Rockets Engagements while IGE

Question 201

Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with a forward airspeed of \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 201

30 knots

Question 202

Projectile Drift is ________ ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 202

an Exterior drift to the right

Question 203

Trajectory Shift is _______ ballistic. Aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to \_\_\_\_\_-.

Answer 203

an Aerial Shift Forward

Question 204

Port-Starboard Effect is produced when _____________ combine. When a target is to the left, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When the target is to the right, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 204

Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right. Trajectory Shift / Projectile Drift cancel each other

Question 205

Angular Rate Error is an _______ ballistic that is caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 205

Aerial Ballistic the motion imparted on the projectile by the launch platform

Question 206

A crew fires a 30mm burst at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?

Answer 206

Burst on Target Recognition Method Kentucky Windage

Question 207

List the 9 laser related missile performance detractors.

Answer 207

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Spot Jitter, Overspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect

Question 208

What is backscatter?

Answer 208

A portion of the laser beam's energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser's enegery penetrates towards the target.

Question 209

True / False The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent

Answer 209

FALSE

Question 210

What is Entrapment?

Answer 210

Laser's reflection point on the DPI is trapped or masked within the target.

Question 211

What is the Podium Effect?

Answer 211

When the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker.

Question 212

What is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon?

Answer 212

Turret Bending

Question 213

What is turret bending?

Answer 213

Airframe and Gun-Turret flexing in response to sustained recoil

Question 214

The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 214

620 meters

Question 215

What are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation?

Answer 215

Low High Pulse

Question 216

To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond \_\_\_\_\_\_, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the WP to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above the line of sight.

Answer 216

1000 meters 1000 meters

Question 217

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

Answer 217

Training

Question 218

What is entered on the keyboard unit to select an auto range?

Answer 218

A

Question 219

The maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered is \_\_\_\_

Answer 219

1788

Question 220

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ______ with a ________ look down angle.

Answer 220

33 feet AGL one-degree look down angle

Question 221

Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _______ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires _______ burst of laser energy for target destination and continuous range updates.

Answer 221

3 laser bursts continuous

Question 222

On the COORD page, pressing any _______ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 222

VAB L1-L6 acquisition source

Question 223

The _________ to WAS a weapon has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the PLT actions rockets, _________ is in effect.

Answer 223

last crewmember cooperative moding

Question 224

The engagement process is a systemic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tennents. What are they?

Answer 224

DIDEA Detect - Identify - Decide - Engage - Assess

Question 225

A target is _______ when it is temporarily taken out of the battle. ________ a target allows the maneuver commander to decide whether to continue to engage with indirect fires, maneuver to the target and engage with direct fires or bypass a target and proceed with other missions.

Answer 225

neutralized neutralizing

Question 226

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. A unit with \_\_% or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. Direct hits are required on hard materiel targets.

Answer 226

Destruction 30%

Question 227

The method of attacking a target is governed by the results desired. What are the 3 possible results?

Answer 227

Suppression Neutralization Destruction

Question 228

What are the four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters?

Answer 228

Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal

Question 229

What are the various types of interior ballistics? (BLTPP)

Answer 229

Barrel Wear / Launcher Tube Alignment / Thrust Misalignment / Propellant Charge / Projectile Weight

Question 230

Gravity, Yaw, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics?

Answer 230

Exterior

Question 231

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

Answer 231

Time of Flight Wind Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile

Question 232

Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile's trajectory changing which increases \_\_\_\_. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?

Answer 232

Drag Near the muzzle

Question 233

The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right called?

Answer 233

Projectile Drift

Question 234

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and ________ combine to constitute the port-starboard effect.

Answer 234

Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift

Question 235

Aerial-Fired weapons characteristics derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 235

Rotor Downwash Error, Angular Rate Error, and Turning Bank Error

Question 236

In general, at ranges less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.

Answer 236

1,000 meters 1,000 meters

Question 237

AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if:

Answer 237

TADS is the selected LOS (7-state kalman filter) FCR is the selected LOS (scan-to-scan correlation) \*\*no lead angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight

Question 238

PROJECTILE JUMP Firing to the right produces a _____ jump. Firing to the left produces a _____ jump. When is projectile jump correction required?

Answer 238

downward upward if a relative wind exists

Question 239

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by the motion (pitch/roll/yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.

Answer 239

Angular Rate Error

Question 240

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is effectively negligible for 30mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. ________ induces angular rates in the pitch axis up to \_\_ degrees per second.

Answer 240

Angular Rate Error Articulating Pylons 10

Question 241

What are three factors that effect dispersion?

Answer 241

Vibrations Sights Boresights

Question 242

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?

Answer 242

Terminal Ballistic

Question 243

Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 243

Relative Wind Effect

Question 244

What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?

Answer 244

Thrust Misalignment Rocket Spin

Question 245

Maximum effective range is defined as:

Answer 245

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target

Question 246

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land __ degrees off center __ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a __ meter radius.

Answer 246

5 degrees off center - 66 percent of the time 90% probability of injuries within 20 meter radius

Question 247

Hellfire II missiles maximum velocity is approximately _____ meters per second.

Answer 247

475 m/s

Question 248

Running fire performed at airspeeds _____ will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.

Answer 248

above ETL

Question 249

Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the percieved dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the WP: 1st round....

Answer 249

no - compensation. 2nd round, 1/2 table value, 3rd round on - full table value applied.

Question 250

The 30mm audible signature travels approximately ____ meters per second. Engagement at ranges greater than _____ meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.

Answer 250

331 meters per second 2,000 meters

Question 251

The base line TADS can take up to ______ to establish a good track history and generate a quality ballistic solution.

Answer 251

three seconds

Question 252

At approximately _____ indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.

Answer 252

33 knots

Question 253

The TARGET STATE ESTIMATOR utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:

Answer 253

- Processed range data from the laser range validator - TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros - Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI

Question 254

The Apache's ___________ will correct for steady state target movement when the TADS or FCR sights are used. However, the ___ assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the ___ as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.

Answer 254

Target State Estimator TSE / TSE

Question 255

What is used to preprocess laser range data recieved from the TADS LRFD?

Answer 255

LASER RANGE VALIDATOR

Question 256

Crewmembers will not use ________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.

Answer 256

FRIENDLY

Question 257

The Laser Range Validator processes the range returns and derives a range rate "profile". When data is good - \_\_\_\_\_. When data is not consistent with the established range profile, the \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 257

SOLID ASERISK ASTERISK IS FLASHED

Question 258

To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately ____ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.

Answer 258

8 - 10 km

Question 259

Transmission of the 5-line CCA brief (Ground to Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 259

Danger Close Situation

Question 260

The Four "T's" associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?

Answer 260

Target / Torque / Trim / Target (re-verified)

Question 261

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the recommended mode of operation as the gun turret is positioned and rocket pylons articulate based on the commands computed by the ballistic solution.

Answer 261

NORMAL MODE

Question 262

In \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the gun turret is positioned to 0-degrees azimuth and +6 degrees elevation. Ballistic correctors are computed and used to position the fixed-mode reticle?

Answer 262

FIXED MODE

Question 263

What are the four techniques of fire?

Answer 263

Hover / Running / Diving / Low-Alt Bump

Question 264

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300'-1,000' bump about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.

Answer 264

Low-Altitude Bump

Question 265

The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 265

TPM-R

Question 266

In TPM-R, what is T and what are the options for T?

Answer 266

Technique Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Alt Bump

Question 267

In TPM-R, what is P and what are the options for P?

Answer 267

Pattern Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-Attack, Figure 8, Butterfly Pattern, 45-degree Attack, Circular/Wheel Pattern

Question 268

In TPM-R, what is the M and what are the options for M?

Answer 268

Munitions 30mm, (type) RKT, MSL

Question 269

In TPM-R, what is R and what need be announced?

Answer 269

Range Range to engage with each munition and then pull off at

Question 270

The AMC assigns team engagement from a moving helicopter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 270

Moving - greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS Running - 40 KTAS and the aircraft velocity never exceeds (Vne)

Question 271

The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections are as follows:

Answer 271

Laser Range-Finder Method Mil Relationship Method Recognition Method

Question 272

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your LOS to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 272

Recognition Method (Kentucky Windage)

Question 273

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket's impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is \_\_\_\_.

Answer 273

Laser-Rangefinder Method

Question 274

When the LRFD is not working, referencing the target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 274

Mil Relationship Method

Question 275

Steep dive angles (\_\_\_\_\_\_) result in large rates of change in aircraft flight parameters and present flight safety challenges.

Answer 275

\> 25 degrees

Question 276

Steeper dive angles compress the range error for rockets significantly and result in less _____ around the rocket aim point.

Answer 276

dispersion

Question 277

Pilots must plan the ____ in time to avoid abrupt recovery maneuvers. _____ may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground.

Answer 277

Dive Recovery Target Fixation

Question 278

\_\_\_\_\_\_ may make dive recoveries difficult. If the aircraft enters \_\_\_\_\_\_, the pilot must reduce the severity of the dive recovery by reducing the amount of aft cyclic and/or reducing the collective pitch on the rotor system.

Answer 278

Mushing

Question 279

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

Answer 279

Time of Flight Wind-Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile

Question 280

The two types of fires are ___ and \_\_\_\_.

Answer 280

Direct and Indirect

Question 281

Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is know as \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 281

Indirect Fire

Question 282

What are the three levels of safing the aircraft?

Answer 282

Finger of the Trigger de-WASed SAFE/ARM button - SAFE

Question 283

What is the rotrary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing): 30mm cannon 500m 1000m 1500m

Answer 283

75m 95m 115m

Question 284

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

Answer 284

Black Projectile with Yellow Band and Yellow Markings

Question 285

To accomplish AWS dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of ____ degrees, at a range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 285

+/- 5 degrees 500-1500 meters

Question 286

The nominal burst radius of the M789 HEDP round is \_\_\_\_; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 286

4 meters impact angle, velocity, and target type

Question 287

What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?

Answer 287

5.8 seconds

Question 288

When viewed from above the fragment pattern of each individual round is a flattened "X" shape with the majority of the fragments moving to the side and slightly forward, with the highest concentration spiking at the _______ o'clock positions.

Answer 288

2:00 and 10:00

Question 289

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the crew DMPI selection should be _______ of the target to achieve the desired effects.

Answer 289

offset and/or short

Question 290

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid _____ when HMD is the selected sight.

Answer 290

Manual Range

Question 291

When FXD is selected by the pilot, the ____ will only be displayed in the ____ format symbology. When FXD is selected by the \_\_\_, both crewmembers will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.

Answer 291

CCIP PLT CPG

Question 292

Fixed gun may be utilized during degraded system operations (IHADSS Invalid LOS). When selecting FXD gun, the gun will be commanded to ______ in elevation and forward in azimuth to the helicopter armament datum line (ADL).

Answer 292

+0.87 degrees

Question 293

What is the gun duty cycle?

Answer 293

6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by at 10 min cooling period. For burst limiter settings other than 50 - no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.

Question 294

The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for \_\_\_\_\_. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.

Answer 294

300 10 minutes 30 minutes

Question 295

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 295

1500 - 1700 meters

Question 296

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a \_\_\_\_ inhibit. When firing the AWS \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, LOS INVALID becomes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent.

Answer 296

Safety in FXD mode a performance inhibit

Question 297

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of _______ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ______ elevation (\_\_\_\_\_ elevation within ____ of aircraft centerline), and ______ in depression.

Answer 297

86 degrees +11 degrees +9 degrees (within 10 degrees...) -60 degrees

Question 298

True / False Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.

Answer 298

TRUE

Question 299

The 30mm is limited to _____ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

Answer 299

+/- 60 degrees

Question 300

The 30mm is limited to ______ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

Answer 300

52 degrees

Question 301

If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a "\_\_\_\_" weapon status field message will be displayed and the __________ anythime the trigger is pulled.

Answer 301

"GUN FAIL" LOS reticle will flash

Question 302

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

Answer 302

The possibility exists that the AWS could be inadvertently be driven into the ground.

Question 303

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.

Answer 303

Stowed in Elevation.

Question 304

What is the approximate velocity (fps) of the 30 mm round?

Answer 304

2640 fps

Question 305

What is the "WARNING" associated with the 30mm?

Answer 305

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death

Question 306

The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 306

4200 meters

Question 307

The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is _____ rounds.

Answer 307

1200

Question 308

The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ____ rounds. (\_\_ rounds in the chain)

Answer 308

300 total 58 in the chain

Question 309

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ______ in elevation to prevent ____ during landing.

Answer 309

+11 degrees dig-in

Question 310

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When the gun is de-actioned, it will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 310

inhibited return to the stowed position

Question 311

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 311

625 +/- 25 rounds per minute

Question 312

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.

Answer 312

Turret bending

Question 313

When conducting AWS harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 313

Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG)

Question 314

The Sideloader / Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions. What are they?

Answer 314

Counting of 30mm rounds Control of the carrier driver assembly Control of the loader assembly for uploading/downloading

Question 315

The 30mm can accommodate 3 different types of rounds. What are they?

Answer 315

M789 HEDP M799 HEI M788 TP

Question 316

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

Answer 316

888 rounds

Question 317

The rotarty wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing): HE Rockets: 300m / 800m / 1500m Flechette: 1000m

Answer 317

HE: 300m - 140m 800m - 210m 1500 - 305m FL: 1000m - 170m

Question 318

With Hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quanties of each are available?

Answer 318

A-24 B-8 E-6

Question 319

M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _______ and/or speeds greater than ____ are not authorized.

Answer 319

1000 meters 90 KTAS

Question 320

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.

Answer 320

ACCEL LIMIT is a safety inhibit

Question 321

The _______ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ______ and the pilot actions rockets, ________ is in effect.

Answer 321

last crewmember LHG WAS cooperative moding

Question 322

The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and provides range settings from ______ to about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 322

500 - 7000 meters

Question 323

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _____ of armor.

Answer 323

4 inches

Question 324

There are ____ submunitions in each M261 MPSM warhead.

Answer 324

nine

Question 325

An MPSM submunition that lands _ degrees of center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a ______ radius and a submunition landing ___ degrees off center has a ___ percent probability of producing casualties within a _____ radius.

Answer 325

5 degrees - 90 percent - 20 meters 20 degrees - 90 percent - 5 meters

Question 326

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land _ degrees off center ___ percent of the time and __ off center ___ percent of the time.

Answer 326

5 degrees - 66 percent of the time 30 degrees - 33 percent of the time

Question 327

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ____ with two ___ launchers every _____ seconds, or fire only ___ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.

Answer 327

pairs / outboard / three / one

Question 328

The target area coverage achieved by one M261 MPSM warhead ______ as range increases.

Answer 328

decreases

Question 329

In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and _____ smoke producing submunitions.

Answer 329

six three

Question 330

What is the RAD and what does it do as it relates to the MPSM rocket?

Answer 330

Ram Air Decelerator Stops forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition

Question 331

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ____ from other airborne helicopters.

Answer 331

51 meters

Question 332

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 332

HMD, TADS, or FCR

Question 333

When rockets are in cooperative mode the WP will use the _______________ and will disregard the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 333

CPG Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution PLT LOS and range data

Question 334

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?

Answer 334

Yes. During the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN's RKT page. Both may view, access, edit or fire RKT's

Question 335

What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?

Answer 335

Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordnance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves)

Question 336

The "10 pounder" rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at ______ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.

Answer 336

high dive angles

Question 337

The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.

Answer 337

150 meters

Question 338

Hover fire rocket engagements with PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _______ without changing the aircraft pitch angle.

Answer 338

4500 meters

Question 339

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by out software includes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 339

6PD / 6RC / 6IL / 6SK / 6MP / 6FL

Question 340

Firing Mk66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than \_\_\_\_\_\_, and for all other flight conditions of \_\_\_\_\_, is not authorized.

Answer 340

7 ft AGL 5 ft AGL

Question 341

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ____ meters. The effective range with Mk66 rocket motors is \_\_\_\_\_\_. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than \_\_\_.

Answer 341

800 meters 1-3 km 3 km

Question 342

Re-inventory and attempting to fire ______ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ____ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze to reset.

Answer 342

6MP / 6FL / 6SK 10 days

Question 343

The _______ warhead provides one million candlepower for 100 seconds or more.

Answer 343

M257 Illumination (over)

Question 344

The M278 IR Illumination (cover) warhead will provide IR light for _____ minutes.

Answer 344

Three

Question 345

The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing) for the AGM-114 K/M/N/FA/L is

Answer 345

110 meters

Question 346

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, to the gun target line prior to firing.

Answer 346

horizontally and vertically

Question 347

An offset of ____ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.

Answer 347

3 to 5 degrees

Question 348

SAL Hellfire Missile Performance Detractors are:

Answer 348

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium effect

Question 349

Backscatter can/cannot be overridden by the trigger second detent.

Answer 349

CANNOT Safety Inhibit

Question 350

Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a __________ to provide missile guidance.

Answer 350

Remote Designator "Buddy Lase"

Question 351

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of ________ of delay from missile separation.

Answer 351

two seconds

Question 352

What are the missile constraints box drivers: LOBL LOAL DIR LOAL LO / HI

Answer 352

LOBL - missile seeker LOAL DIR - selected LOS LOAL LO/HI - target coordinates (B5 data)

Question 353

True / False The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window.

Answer 353

FALSE

Question 354

The missile seeker has a ________ seeker limit from the missile centerline.

Answer 354

+/- 30 degree

Question 355

LOAL LO/HI maximum engagement range is \_\_\_\_.

Answer 355

8 km

Question 356

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is \_\_\_.

Answer 356

7 km

Question 357

LOBL maximum engagement range is \_\_\_.

Answer 357

7 km

Question 358

SAL II "K Model" LOBL min engagement ranges:

Answer 358

0 degree offset: 500 meters 20 degree offset: 700 meters

Question 359

SAL II "K Model" LOAL DIR min engagement ranges:

Answer 359

0 degree offset: 1,500 meters 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters

Question 360

SAL II "K Model" LOAL LO min engagement ranges:

Answer 360

0 degree offset: 2,000 meters 7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters

Question 361

SAL II "K Model" LOAL HI min engagement ranges:

Answer 361

0 degree offset: 3,500 meters 7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters

Question 362

The LOBL missile constraint box is ____ degrees.

Answer 362

+/- 20 degrees

Question 363

The LOAL missile constraints box is ____ degrees.

Answer 363

+/- 7.5 degrees

Question 364

LOAL LO will clear a ____ mask with a ____ meter standoff.

Answer 364

260 ft - 600 meter

Question 365

LOAL HI will clear a ____ mask with a ____ standoff.

Answer 365

1,000 ft - 1,500 meters

Question 366

Due to the seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows: \_\_\_ meters for 50-400 feet above TGT alt \_\_\_\_ meters for 401-800 feet above TGT alt

Answer 366

500 meters 1,000 meters

Question 367

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ______ the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.

Answer 367

800 feet above

Question 368

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

Answer 368

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes

Question 369

During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within ___ degrees of the gun target line nor more than ___ degrees from the target centerline.

Answer 369

30 degrees 60 degrees

Question 370

The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:

Answer 370

1) the firing ACFT's LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code 2) the selected sight is HMD 3) the laser is off

Question 371

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is \_\_\_\_\_. When the SAL missile is NORM or RIPL the switch is \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 371

active not active

Question 372

The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a "K" model missile in LOBL mode is\_\_\_

Answer 372

300 feet at 3 Km, 500 feet at 5 Km and 600 feet at 7 Km

Question 373

Targets shall be a minimum of ____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114 M/N/K2A missiles.

Answer 373

800 meters

Question 374

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ground __________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion.

Answer 374

just short of the target

Question 375

Do not fly faster than ____ when firing the AGM-114 missile

Answer 375

90 KTAS

Question 376

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no gretaher than ______ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM-114

Answer 376

90 knots

Question 377

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as __________ in the firing sequence.

Answer 377

the next missile to be launched

Question 378

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

Answer 378

3

Question 379

As a guideline, moving targets tracking on the rail ________ pull latency.

Answer 379

can tolerate

Question 380

As a guideline, for RF inhibit FCR moving target, trigger pull latency should be no more than _____ seconds.

Answer 380

15

Question 381

As a guideline, for TADS stationary targets, trigger pull latency no more than ___ seconds.

Answer 381

5

Question 382

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than _______ seconds after the TARGET DATA message disappears.

Answer 382

5 to 7

Question 383

Target velocities are set to _____ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold.

Answer 383

zero

Question 384

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.

Answer 384

Transfer Alignment

Question 385

\_\_\_ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target.

Answer 385

"R"

Question 386

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs from the time that the WP transfers target data to the missile until the missile is either launched or returns to the standby mode.

Answer 386

Prelaunch Mode

Question 387

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.

Answer 387

Doppler Beam Sharpening

Question 388

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL.

Answer 388

1 - 2.5 Km

Question 389

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned.

Answer 389

10 minute intervals

Question 390

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:

Answer 390

TADS / FCR / IDM

Question 391

The _________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs.

Answer 391

postlaunch mode

Question 392

The target \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets.

Answer 392

Acquisition and Tracking Modes

Question 393

What are the three target acquisition modes of the RF missile?

Answer 393

Preterminal Track Acquisition Terminal Track Acquisition Moving Target Acquisition

Question 394

What are the two missile tracking modes of the RF missile?

Answer 394

Preterminal Track and Terminal Track

Question 395

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between 0.5 - 1.0 km, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. If the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message _______ will be displayed and firing will be inhibited.

Answer 395

"NO ACQUIRE"

Question 396

RF DBS trajectory is based on target location relative to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 396

missile centerline

Question 397

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target.

Answer 397

RIGHT

Question 398

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

Answer 398

NA

Question 399

How long is the allowable traning mode missile elapsed ON time?

Answer 399

30 minutes

Question 400

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does the symbol mean?

Answer 400

OT Overtemperature

Question 401

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

Answer 401

To allow for LOAL shots only Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature

Question 402

What does the message "TARGET DATA?" mean in the HAD?

Answer 402

Indicates no target data is available (MSL WAS'd, RF MSL selected, and TADS is the selected LOS)

Question 403

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) tracking capability of the missile to the precision PRF of the selected laser code.

Answer 403

narrows

Question 404

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ______ RF missile during a _______ target engagement

Answer 404

Primary Stationary

Question 405

A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying off-axis path to the target. This is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 405

Doppler Beam Sharpening

Question 406

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 406

1 - 2.5 km

Question 407

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _____ meters at 8 km.

Answer 407

990 meters

Question 408

True / False The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR / TSD page ACQ source window.

Answer 408

FALSE By what is acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position

Question 409

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to \_\_\_\_, the allowable constraints angle is \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 409

1 km 20 degrees

Question 410

If the RF missile is tracking and the target is less than \_\_\_\_, the allowable constraints angle is \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 410

1 km 5 degrees

Question 411

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

Answer 411

1 meter and 45 degree off the missile nose

Question 412

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?

Answer 412

105.1 lbs

Question 413

In what three modes does the RF missile operate?

Answer 413

Standby Prelaunch Post Launch

Question 414

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

Answer 414

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present

Question 415

The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

Answer 415

"NAV DATA INVALID"

Question 416

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV / MFOV / NFOV / ZFOV

Answer 416

WFOV - 90 degrees MFOV - 45 degrees NFOV - 30 degrees ZFOV - 15 degrees

Question 417

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?

Answer 417

A

Question 418

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

Answer 418

B

Question 419

Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

Answer 419

C

Question 420

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans

Answer 420

3 scans

Question 421

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between \_\_\_\_\_\_, it will radiate and attempt LOBL.

Answer 421

0.5 - 8 km

Question 422

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification

Answer 422

Scan-to-Scan Correlation

Question 423

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ___ target is ______ and the NTS symbol will become \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 423

NTS \<\> frozen \<\> solid

Question 424

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on that symbol and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 424

ANTS symbol flash for 3 seconds

Question 425

The ______ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.

Answer 425

CUED search

Question 426

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___ degrees of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 426

+/- 90 degrees Aircraft Centerline

Question 427

Up to __ RFI emitters can be displayed

Answer 427

10

Question 428

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a __________ around the threat symbol and target type.

Answer 428

Home Plate Symbol

Question 429

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for \_\_\_\_\_\_, the symbol will change to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. After _______ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 429

30 seconds \<\> Partial Intensity \<\> 90 seconds \<\> blank

Question 430

Powering on the RLWR ON enables up to ___ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 430

ten inside

Question 431

Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.

Answer 431

ten outside

Question 432

The RFI system detects and processes ____________________________ radar signals.

Answer 432

pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave

Question 433

When the Radar Jammer is transmitting ___________ in the center of the Ownship Icon will be present.

Answer 433

a flashing lightning bolt

Question 434

What does the message "RFI DATA?" mean?

Answer 434

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED SEARCH and no threat data is available

Question 435

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?

Answer 435

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components.

Question 436

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?

Answer 436

The display ZOOM area will be centered on the NTS target

Question 437

Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.

Answer 437

64 symbols

Question 438

CAUTION: ________ selection in extreme cold weather (-10\*C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.

Answer 438

FCR BIT ORIDE

Question 439

A shot-at symbol will be displayed ____ target symbols ______ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.

Answer 439

beneath during / after on top of

Question 440

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 440

decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots

Question 441

Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command ________ to the line of bearing of the selected emitter.

Answer 441

the FCR centerline

Question 442

Continuing to press and release the cued switch will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 442

continuously cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters

Question 443

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 443

CYAN YELLOW

Question 444

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ______________ over that emitter.

Answer 444

an inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol)

Question 445

The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Detecting Set provides for _______ of coverage in azimuth and ____ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap.

Answer 445

360 degrees +/- 45 degrees

Question 446

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

Answer 446

TRAINING

Question 447

Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 447

NO (safety inhibit)

Question 448

Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?

Answer 448

NO (safety inhibit)

Question 449

The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using ___________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.

Answer 449

the CPG's sight and range source

Question 450

The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the ______ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.

Answer 450

flashing lightning bolt ownship

Question 451

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?

Answer 451

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)

Question 452

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ____________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 452

FCR centerline to the TADS LOS TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

Question 453

The FCR can engage stationary targets between ___ and ____ km.

Answer 453

0.5 - 8 km

Question 454

When operating at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _______ could result in sever Np/Nr droop.

Answer 454

high power settings high power settings

Question 455

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________ cannot be maintained.

Answer 455

Crew Coordination ground and obstacle clearance

Question 456

When \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to liftoff. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to \_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 456

icing conditions exist icing

Question 457

Pilot and CPG shall perform their ________ prior to entering the Forward Area Refuel Point (FARP)

Answer 457

armament safety check

Question 458

A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 458

receiving valid range data

Question 459

A flashing asterisk in the \*XXXX message indicates

Answer 459

receiving multiple target returns

Question 460

What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered?

Answer 460

1788

Question 461

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent.

Answer 461

Three bursts

Question 462

When operating in the TESS / weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is "armed"?

Answer 462

TRAINING

Question 463

The second detent of the trigger activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain ______ for up to 10 seconds following release of the second detent.

Answer 463

dynamic

Question 464

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _____ with a ______ look down angle.

Answer 464

33 feet one-degree

Question 465

On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1-L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 465

an Acquisition Source

Question 466

Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as the ______ source and the _______ is pressed.

Answer 466

acquisition RHG SLAVE

Question 467

The CPG is required to ________ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 467

manually "slave" set to off

Question 468

Medium field of vieew should be used for target acquisition and _______ field of view should be used for target recognition and engagement.

Answer 468

narrow or zoom

Question 469

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. ________ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving.

Answer 469

Linear Motion Compensator (LMC)

Question 470

When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where?

Answer 470

In the PLT/CPG weapon inhibit field for 4 seconds

Question 471

The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.

Answer 471

25

Question 472

The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity to full intensity _____ when TADS is lasing.

Answer 472

white

Question 473

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?

Answer 473

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (zoom).

Question 474

Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?

Answer 474

The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off

Question 475

The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately ______ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.

Answer 475

30 seconds

Question 476

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for _______ or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.

Answer 476

15 minutes

Question 477

What does the LRFD in the "LAST" position do?

Answer 477

WP uses last laser return

Question 478

An aircraft equipped with an Upper Receiver (UR) is capable of receiving \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 478

C, L, S, and KU band

Question 479

An aircraft equipped with an Air to Air, Air to Ground (AAG) antenna is capable of receiving \_\_\_\_.

Answer 479

KU band

Question 480

JFIRE BREVITY BLIND

Answer 480

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of Visual

Question 481

JFIRE BREVITY CAPTURED

Answer 481

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor

Question 482

JFIRE BREVITY CONTACT

Answer 482

1. Sensor SA at the stated position 2. Air-to-Surface acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point

Question 483

JFIRE BREVITY LOOKING

Answer 483

Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight (opposite of CONTACT)

Question 484

JFIRE BREVITY LOWDOWN

Answer 484

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest

Question 485

JFIRE BREVITY MOVER(S)

Answer 485

Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion

Question 486

JFIRE BREVITY NO JOY

Answer 486

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY

Question 487

JFIRE BREVITY PLAYTIME

Answer 487

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes ("ONE PLUS THIRTY" = 1hr 30min)

Question 488

JFIRE BREVITY POSTURE

Answer 488

Communicates sensor posture (offensive/defensive/ or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply friendly ground forces' tactical situation.

Question 489

JFIRE BREVITY REMINGTON

Answer 489

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

Question 490

JFIRE BREVITY SQUIRTER

Answer 490

A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area

Question 491

JFIRE BREVITY SUNSHINE

Answer 491

Illuminating target with artificial illumination

Question 492

JFIRE BREVITY TALLY

Answer 492

Sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY

Question 493

JFIRE BREVITY VISUAL

Answer 493

Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND

Question 494

JFIRE BREVITY WINCHESTER

Answer 494

No ordnance remaining

Question 495

JFIRE BREVITY CEASE (activity) (CEASE BUZZER / CEASER LASER / CEASE FIRE)

Answer 495

Discontinue stated activity

Question 496

JFIRE BREVITY LASER ON

Answer 496

Start / Acknowledge laser designation

Question 497

JFIRE BREVITY LASING

Answer 497

The speaker is firing the laser

Question 498

JFIRE BREVITY NEGATIVE LASER

Answer 498

Laser energy has not been acquired

Question 499

JFIRE BREVITY SPOT

Answer 499

1. Acquisition of laser designation 2. Platform is LST capable

Question 500

JFIRE BREVITY STARE (with laser code and ref point)

Answer 500

Cue the laser spot search Tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point

Question 501

JFIRE BREVITY ROPE

Answer 501

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position

Question 502

JFIRE BREVITY SNAKE

Answer 502

Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target

Question 503

JFIRE BREVITY SPARKLE

Answer 503

Mark / Marking target by IR pointer Platform is capable to IR point

Question 504

JFIRE BREVITY HANDSHAKE

Answer 504

Video data link established Opposite of HOLLOW

Question 505

JFIRE BEVITY HOLLOW

Answer 505

Any data link message not received Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE