Flashcards in FO #5 WEEK OF OCT. 21ST, 2018 FALL 2018 – FIRE OFFICERS COURSE INSTRUCTOR: BC CHRIS PAOLICELLI Deck (67)
1) When members are operating near a waterfront while wearing Bunker Gear and an SCBA each company’s Water Safety Kit should be brought to the point of operation. Safety lines should be readied for use and attached to members operating in, over and around water. At least one _________ ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal if needed. (SB 81 3.3)
A. 20 foot straight
B. 24 foot extension
C. 16 foot hook
D. 12 foot straight
3.3 Each company’s Water Safety Kit should be brought to the point of operation. Safety lines should be readied for use and attached to members operating in, over and around water. At least one 20 ft straight ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal should the need arise.
2) During a drill on waterfront operations, the following statements were made regarding the buoyancy of a member accidently falling into the water while wearing bunker. Which statement made was incorrect? (SB 81 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 4.1)
A. Members wearing bunker gear, with or without an SCBA, will become quickly submersed.
B. The higher the fall the less opportunity there may be to remain at the surface.
C. Bunker gear does not float.
D. In the event a member falls into water slowly tread water or attempt to slowly swim to safety.
4.1 In the event you fall into the water, do not attempt to swim - call for help, try to remain calm and slowly tread water. Thrashing about will reduce the amount of time you may be able to keep yourself at the surface.
3) An officer and his ladder company arrive as the 1st ladder at a report of smoke in the “B” stairwell of a multiple dwelling. Upon entering the building the caller states she smells smoke in the stairwell on the 8th floor and the officer notices the building has two staircases “A” and “B”. After arriving on the 7th floor, the officer opens the door to the “B” stairwell and finds a light smoke condition. The officer would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? (SB 82)
A. Immediately close the door to the “B” stairwell and notify the IC of the smoke condition and identity of the stairwell.
B. Search for the source of the smoke utilizing the “A” stairwell and have the 2nd ladder begin searching from the lower floors upward, one floor at a time, utilizing the “B” stairwell.
C. Have the roof firefighter proceed to the roof via the “A” stairwell and vent the “B” stairwell bulkhead from the roof.
D. Once the source of the fire has been located, approach and extinguish the fire from that floor using either a can or handline, based on the volume of burning material
7. When the source of smoke has been located, approach and extinguishment shall be made from the floor below, with either a can or a handline, based on the volume of burning material.
4) Choose a correct statement regarding the use of protective hoods. (SB 83)
A. The hood should be inspected at the start of each tour. If any problems are found and a spare hood is not available, the member should not enter IDLH areas.
B. During operations, members must leave the fire area immediately upon feeling any discomfort or pain through the hood.
C. The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with water.
D. The hood should be washed in lukewarm water using soap or a chlorine mixture. Never wring out the hood, air-dry the hood away from sunlight.
3. At the start of each tour and after each use, inspect your hood for tears, discoloration, stretching or open seams. If you find any problems notify the officer on duty. If a spare hood is not available, the OOD shall instruct the member to have his/her helmet earflaps down and coat collar up and secured by the neck strap prior to entering the fire area.
Therefore, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hose line.
5. The hood shall be washed in lukewarm water using liquid detergent. Do not use soap or chlorine bleach. They are harmful to the hood's stitching.
5) Engine Company 300 arrives 1st at the scene of a fire on the 1st floor of a two story private dwelling. The officer notices window bars on the cellar and 1st floor windows. When transmitting the 10-75, the officer would be most correct to special call which of the following units? (SB 84 4.2)
A. An additional ladder company only
B. An additional engine and ladder company. The ladder company may be a rear mount if a Tower Ladder was assigned on the initial alarm.
C. An additional engine and ladder company. The ladder company must be a Tower Ladder due to the window bars.
D. The response of a Rescue Company must always be ensured when window bars are present.
4.2 An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Co. shall be a Tower Ladder, if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company.
6) A Battalion Chief drilling on fires in buildings with window bars present made the following statements. In how many points was he correct? (SB 84 4.4, 4.5, 4.6, 4.8, 4.10)
1. The engine company operating the first line must employ an aggressive interior attack to control the fire and protect interior stairs.
2. The second hoseline stretched must immediately be stretched to the floor above the fire to protect the egress of the occupants above.
3. If possible, room at the front of the fire building should be made available to position a Tower Ladder.
4. The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least one window on the fire floor and the floor above is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window.
5. An engine on scene or a special called engine could provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped inside a building behind window bars or members removing window bars.
A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
6-B (1, 3, 4, 5)
4.5 The second line stretched should back up the first line. If not needed, it shall then go to the floor above.
7) Gypsum plank and concrete decking is of lightweight construction which spans large wide spaces. According to Safety Bulletin 85, what is the main drawback of this type of construction from a firefighting standpoint? (SB 85 3.1)
A. The extreme vulnerability to moisture.
B. The extreme difficulty in identifying these types of roof at an operation.
C. The inability of this type of construction to hold the weight of firefighters.
D. The extreme weight of the gypsum planks.
3.1 Gypsum plank and concrete decking is of lightweight construction which spans large
wide spaces. The main drawback, from a firefighting operational stand point, is that this
type of construction is extremely vulnerable to moisture causing a deterioration of the
8) From the following choices, choose the correct point regarding FDNY operations at buildings with Gypsum Roof Systems. (SB 85 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 4.2)
A. The presence of a Gypsum Roof Deck will be indicated by a grey powdery residue during saw operations.
B. When this type of roof system is found, roof operations shall be limited to the opening of skylights, scuttles and bulkheads.
C. Interior firefighting operations can continue, but shall be conducted from areas of safety. Hose streams should be operated well in advance of members.
D. A Roof firefighter who discovers a Gypsum Roof Deck must immediately notify their company officer.
3.4 The presence of a Gypsum Roof Deck will be indicated by a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, members shall make immediate notification to the Incident Commander and proceed to evacuate the roof.
Members shall not be committed to roof operations when
this type of roof construction is found.
9) The City of New York, Con Edison and NYS Power Authority have purchased the Toyota Rav 4 Electric Vehicle (EV) for use throughout the city. This vehicle can be identified by all but which one of the following features? (SB 86 2)
A. An electric charge receptacle located on the right front fender.
B. The vehicle is a 4-door model with air intake vents located on both rear quarter panels.
C. “EV” decal located on both sides and the rear of vehicle.
D. Batteries contained in one battery pack located within the vehicle trunk.
• The batteries are contained in one battery pack located under the vehicle passenger floor.
10) In a Toyota Rav 4 vehicle, traction batteries store a substantial amount of energy, which can cause serious injury or death if not handled properly. Traction batteries should never be punctured and the high voltage wiring should not be cut. The high voltage wiring can be identified by the ________ colored harness it is wrapped in. (SB 86 3)
The traction batteries store substantial amounts of energy, which can cause serious injury or death if not handled properly. Traction batteries should never be punctured. This could cause burns or possible explosion. To avoid shock, burns, or other serious injury, the high-voltage wiring (wrapped in orange-colored harnesses) should not be cut or touched if the conductor is exposed.
11) On a hot, humid August afternoon, units have just extinguished an “All-Hands” fire in a brownstone. After exiting the fire building, members should take all but which one of the following actions to avoid suffering from heat stress? (SB 87 4)
A. Members should remove their helmets and coats, and open the front flap of their pants to remove pent up heat and humidity within the Bunker Gear.
B. Members should drink cold water or “sports” drinks (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter). Avoid hot drinks.
C. Members should seek cool, shady areas and casually move about to enhance rehydration due to increased blood circulation.
D. No member should be alone during any phase of the recuperation process, maintain the “Buddy” system for the duration of R&R.
• Members should drink cold water or diluted "replacement" beverages (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter). Avoid concentrated "sports" drinks and hot drinks.
12) BC STUDENTS While working in Battalion 8 you receive a response to the Chrysler Building for a report of smoke on an upper floor. You decide to use the building’s Base Station Leaky Cable Simplex radio. You should know all of the following points regarding this system are correct with the exception of which choice? (Communications 13 2.2)
A. Transmissions made from the base station will be carried by the system’s cable to all areas of the building.
B. Transmissions captured by the cable are received by the base station radio but are not re-transmitted.
C. It is a simplex radio that can either operate on FDNY UHF HT channels 1-16 (FDNY programmed) or it may utilize in-house radios (Proprietary).
D. Important messages that are needed to be heard by all members must be re-transmitted at the base station radio by the member monitoring transmissions.
It is a simplex radio that can either operate on FDNY UHF HT channels 1 through 8 (FDNY Programmed) or it
may utilize in-house radios (Proprietary).
1) Dangers to firefighters at a confined space incident are different from those faced at a “typical” structure fire. They may be far less obvious than fire, even invisible, yet can kill with one or two breaths. Choose an incorrect statement regarding confined spaces. (Confined Space 1.1.2)
A. Not all confined spaces are dangerous. B. Confined spaces take many different shapes and forms including manholes, sewers, elevator shafts, chimneys and holds of ships.
C. If a confined space poses a danger to anyone who enters it, it is designated a Permit Required Confined Space.
D. A Permit Space is designated by OSHA, who issues the permit.
1.1.2 Confined spaces take many different shapes and forms. (See Fig # 1) They include manholes, sewers, cesspools, storage tanks, silos, holds of ships, elevator shafts, chimneys and many other seemingly unlikely places for a person to be working. It must be noted there are literally thousands of confined spaces spread over all boroughs of the city. Some, such as manholes, are entered on a routine basis by the employees who must maintain the equipment they contain. Not all confined spaces are dangerous. Chances are that during an average tour, you will pass by at least one or two confined space entry sites and not ever have a problem. Certain dangerous confined spaces may be designated as Permit Required Confined Spaces (Permit Spaces) by OSHA.
2) A Permit Required Confined Space is any confined space that contains one or more certain hazards. From the choices below, how many would require a space to be considered a Permit Required Confined Space?
(Confined Space 1.2)
1. The space contains a hazardous atmosphere.
2. The space has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
3. The space contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
4. The space is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inward tapering walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross section.
5. The space contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard.
1.2 What is a Permit Required Confined Space?
1.2.1 If a confined space poses a danger to anyone that enters it, it is designated a Permit Required Confined Space (permit space).
A Permit Space is any confined space that has one or more of the following potential problems:
Contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
Contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
Is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross section.
Contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard. A permit space is designated by the owner of the space, who issues the permit. They may be recognized by the warning sign which OSHA requires to be posted at the entry to the space reading: Danger: Permit Required Confined Space-Do Not Enter or similar wording
3) A non-permit space can be just as deadly as a permit space; it just does not have a sign to warn you of the dangers. The hazards to people inside confined spaces can be divided into two main categories, Atmospheric and Physical hazards. Choose the incorrect choice regarding these hazards. (Confined Space 2, 2.1.1, 2.1.2)
A. Physical hazards are the most deadly, accounting for almost 65% of all confined space deaths.
B. Atmospheric hazards can be of three types; Explosive, Asphyxiant or Toxic.
C. In most cases where the hazard is a simple asphyxiant there will be no hint to give indication of any lack of oxygen.
D. Toxic atmospheres are more difficult to evaluate and operate in than are asphyxiant atmospheres. There is no way to test for the presence of all possibly toxic materials in a field setting.
2.1 Atmospheric Hazard Due to the potential for life threatening atmosphere, all members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, until the atmosphere is verified safe !
2.1.1 Atmospheres that are simply asphyxiants (do not contain enough oxygen to support life) account for as many as 50% of all confined space deaths
4) Around and within many confined spaces you may encounter physical hazards that can kill or injure the unsuspecting rescuer. Loss of footing is a common hazard in many spaces. Choose a correct precaution members should take when entering these spaces. (Confined Space 2.2.2)
A. Members should use a Fire Department ladder if there is no ladder present. If there is a ladder built into the space thoroughly check its stability before using it to enter.
B. Members entering a confined space should be attached to a lifeline that is secured to substantial object to allow them to be lowered into the space. Members should remain attached to this lifeline at all times unless rendering aid to a victim.
C. The lifeline can be used to pull additional equipment in or out of the space if need be.
Since many spaces are not entered frequently, ladders built into these spaces may have deteriorated dangerously since last use.
2.2.2 Members entering these spaces should use a Fire Department ladder if conditions permit. Members should also be protected against sudden falling by tying off their life line around a substantial object to allow them to be lowered into the space. They should remain attached to this lifeline at all times while operating in the space. It will serve to protect them against further falls, act as a guideline for their retreat or to guide reinforcements to their positions. It can also be used to pull additional equipment in or out of the space if need be.
5) As a general rule, each member entering a confined space with a 30 Minute Cylinder must be withdrawn to fresh air with _____ minutes. (Confined Space 4.2)
As a general rule, each member operating with a 30 minute cylinder must be withdrawn to fresh air in 15 minutes in order to ensure their safety. Members must be aware of the need to be out in fresh air before removing their facepiece. The vibralert on the mask may not provide the wearer with sufficient exit time if a complex entry and/or escape path must be followed. For this reason, it is critical that the rescuers remain in direct line of sight with the outside and their exit! (See Fig 4)
6) First arriving units should treat most confined space emergencies in the same fashion we have come to use at hazardous materials incidents, with extreme care for the rescuers well being. Choose an incorrect action that should take place at a confined space rescue. (Confined Space 4.2)
A. Prior to entry being made into a confined space, one member should be designated as the SCBA control timer.
B. This member should ensure that each member has a full SCBA cylinder for entry and write down the time that each member enters the confined space.
C. It is critical that Rescuers remain in direct line of sight with the outside and their exit. D. Members should not remove their facepiece until they are out in fresh air.
Prior to entry into a space, one member should be designated as the SCBA control timer. This member should ensure that each member has a full SCBA cylinder for entry and write down the time that each member dons their facepiece.
7) Each member entering a confined space must be secured to a bowline on a bight and slippery hitch to a life saving rope. A high point anchor should be created in case a rescuer needs to be pulled from the space. The tower ladder is the preferred choice as a high point anchor due to its greater weight capacity, at least _____ lbs., compared to only ____ lbs. for an aerial ladder. (Confined Space 4.4)
A. 500 / 200
B. 600 / 300
C. 750 / 350
D. 800 / 250
The tower ladder is preferred due to its greater weight supporting capacity, at least 800 lbs., compared to only 250 lbs. for an aerial. The most important point to be remembered is that the AERIAL OR TOWER SHALL NEVER BE USED AS A CRANE TO LIFT A PERSON . The tower or aerial is only to be utilized as a high point anchor over the opening, as a place to secure the pulley. Once the boom or ladder is in position, ALL PERSONNEL MUST BE REMOVED FROM THE TURNTABLE AND THE ENGINE SHUT OFF TO PREVENT ACCIDENTAL MOVEMENT of the device. This is essential due to the great forces exerted by these hydraulic systems. If a victim or rescuer became snagged on an obstacle while a power device was being used to raise them, amputation, decapitation and death could result. Remember, use power devices only as anchor points!
8) Treatment of injured victims in dangerous confined spaces is a difficult task. Concerns for patient’s airway, breathing, circulation, spinal injuries and secondary injuries along with physical restrictions on size and type of medical treatment devices must be balanced with the threat to rescuers. How many of the following statements are correct regarding medical considerations at confined space operations? (Confined Space 5)
1. The IC should ensure the response of an ALS unit from EMS for all confined space incidents.
2. If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a mask facepiece is the highest priority.
3. Generally it is best to remove the victim to a safe atmosphere prior to performing life support measures such as CPR.
4. All trauma victims and victims that are unconscious for any reason should be treated as having spinal injuries.
5. At times, under extreme conditions, it may be necessary to forego nearly all attempts at immobilization in order to secure patient survival.
8-B (1, 2, 3, 5)
For this reason, all trauma victims, and victims that are unconscious for an UNKNOWN reason, should be treated as having spinal injuries.
9) According to the Confined Space Rescue Plan Checklist, all of the following are considered Safe Atmospheric Conditions with the exception of which choice? (Confined Space Data Sheet #1 Page 2)
A. Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
B. Flammable Range- Not over 10% of LEL C. Toxicity- Carbon Monoxide not over 35 PPM
D. Hydrogen Sulfide not over 5 PPM
Safe Atmospheric Conditions
1. Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%.
2. Flammable Range - Not over 10% of LEL. 3. Toxicity - Not over 35 PPM of Carbon Monoxide
4. Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
10) BC STUDENTS BC Hayes is the 1st BC to arrive at a transformer fire in Con Edison Transmission Substation. The substation is not staffed and there are no Con Edison personnel on scene. BC Hayes would be incorrect to take which one of the following actions? (AUC 338 Addendum 2 4.3, 5.1, 5.2, 6)
A. Request the response of Con Edison via the borough the dispatcher.
B. Set up handlines and/or large caliber streams to protect exposed buildings around the substation.
C. Stretch, but do not charge, a 3 ½” supply line to the sprinkler Siamese if present.
D. Have a Tower Ladder bucket raised while maintaining an 18-foot safe clearance horizontally from the exterior fence line.
4.3 Some substations are staffed 24 hours a day. However, if a White Hat is not on scene, call the posted number and request that one respond.
11) BC STUDENTS As a Battalion Chief, when should your review the Probationary Firefighter’s training notebooks? (AUC 323 Add.2)
A. At least once a week
B. At least once a month
D. During company drill visits
Probationary firefighters shall ensure the training notebook is reviewed according to the following schedule:
Probationary Firefighter on a regular basis Review weekly. Initial and date in blue or black ink.
Officer on Duty Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink. Company Commander Review monthly. Initial and date in red ink.
Chief Officers Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink.
12) BC STUDENTS A Battalion Chief operating at the scene of a track fire in a subway tunnel has ordered the use of a “Light Train”. Choose a correct choice regarding the use of a “Light Train”. (AUC 207 Add.7)
A. If possible, a communications link with the FD Unit on the “Light Train” should be established prior to authorizing its use. B. Progress reports from the “Light Train” shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 20 minutes.
C. If deemed necessary the Chief in Charge may board the “Light Train”. Another Chief should be special called to coordinate operations.
D. The officer of the unit boarding a “Light Train” shall direct the Chauffeur to respond to the location where the unit will disembark the train.
The CIC must assure a communications link with the FD Unit on the "Light Train" before authorizing its use. If a communications link cannot be established, the "Light Train" is not to be used.
The possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the "Light Train" shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes.
Apparatus of the unit who boarded the train should remain at its original location until, and if, directed to another location by the CIC.
1) A Lieutenant conducting drill on the description of old law tenement buildings would be incorrect in which statement? (2.1)
A. They were built before 4/12/1901, are 3 to 7 stories in height and are built with nonfireproof construction (Class 3).
B. They are 20 or 25 feet wide and 50 to 80 feet deep.
C. OLTs with 4 windows per floor and no front fire escape usually indicates two “railroad flats” per floor with a rear fire escape.
D. When the building has four windows per floor and a front fire escape, it always indicates three or four apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear.
When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape (Figure 3). "Railroad flats" are those apartments which extend from the front of the building to the rear. There are usually two of these apartments on each floor. This does not necessarily apply to a corner building.
2) The conversation turns to features found in New Law Tenement buildings built between 4/12/1901 and 1916. How many of the statements made were correct?
1. They are generally 6 or 7 stories high, 35’-50’ wide and 85’ in depth.
2. The entrance to the cellar is located inside the building, usually beneath the interior stairway.
3.The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced.
4. There are 5 to 6 apartments per floor.
5. The 2nd means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. 6. The fire escape is more generally found in these buildings.
7. .All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped every 2 stories.
2-B (1, 3, 4, 5)
Generally six or seven stories high.
35' to 50' wide.
85' in depth.
Five to six apartments per floor. The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced
The entrance to the cellar is by way of exterior stairs.
The interior stairs are fireproof and enclosed in partitions of fireproof construction. Apartment doors are constructed of fire resistant materials.
The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The fire escape is more generally found in these buildings.
All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped at each story.
Steel "I" beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn't span the enlarged floor areas. These steel beams generally were supported by masonry walls.
3) New Law Tenement buildings built between 1916 and 1929 have much larger floor areas, some as large as 150’x200’. Choose a correct feature regarding these buildings. (2.3)
A. To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were broken up into areas of 3,000 square feet or less.
B. Between some apartments there are brick or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the horizontal spread of fire. These dividing walls go as high as the underside of the roof boards.
C. Unprotected steel beams are used to support some of the wood floor joists. These beams are supported by vertical steel columns, which run the height of the building.
D. Each apartment has its own individual dumbwaiter shaft. These shafts terminate on the roof in a bulkhead with a skylight on top.
NEW LAW TENEMENTS BUILT BETWEEN 1916 AND 1929 (Figure 5)
They had a much larger floor area, e.g. 150' x 200'.
To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were broken up into areas of 2,500 square feet or less. This means that between some apartments there are brick or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the horizontal spread of fire. However, these dividing walls only go as high as the ceiling of the top floor. This results in a very large undivided cockloft area. Fire can, and often does, spread throughout this large cockloft area.
Unprotected steel beams are used to support some of the wood floor joists. These steel beams are supported by vertical steel columns which run the height of the building.
Wooden floor joists (beams) run horizontally from brick wall to a steel girder or from a steel girder to a steel girder.
There are dumbwaiter shafts located in the apartments. In most cases, 2 apartments share 1 dumbwaiter. They terminate on the roof in a bulkhead with a skylight on top.
4) Non-Fireproof multiple dwellings built after 4/18/1929 were no longer called “tenements” and became known as “Apartment Houses”. Choose the incorrect choice below regard these buildings. (2.4)
A. The size of the area within these buildings to be enclosed by fire walls in 2,500 square feet. This is larger than the area of an OLT, and several of these areas may be found under one roof.
B. Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards. After 1940, to the top of the roof boards.
C. It is not unusual to find a non-fireproof multiple dwelling seven, eight or 9 stories in height with no standpipe when the building is built on a grade.
D. Some of the newer buildings have non-storage garages built below. A sprinkler system may or may not be required.
The size of the area to be enclosed by fire walls is 3,000 square feet. This is larger than the area of an OLT, and it should be realized that there are several of these areas under one roof of later built multiple dwellings.
5) Captain Lawrence and her engine are drilling on engine operations at non-fireproof multiple dwelling fires. Which point made during the drill was incorrect? (3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.4, 3.2.6)
A. All engine companies and squad companies (assigned as engines) shall locate, test and confirm a positive water source (hydrant, drafting, etc.)
B. Exercise caution when using the front suction inlet so as not to block out arriving ladder apparatus.
C. The primary purpose of the first line is to protect the primary egress for occupants evacuating the building and then to confine and extinguish the fire.
D. The first line should always be brought into the fire building to protect the interior stairs and/or to extinguish the fire.
3.2.2 In most cases, the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire. The purpose of this line is to protect the primary means of egress for occupants evacuating the building and to confine and extinguish the fire. An exception to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when flame is issuing from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape. In this case, the first line may be operated from the street to protect people on the fire escape. A second line should be promptly stretched to the interior of the building. If the entrance door to the building is self-closing and equipped with a locking device, the first member entering the building should use a chock, rug or other means of preventing the door from locking and thereby delaying other members trying to enter the building.