CO CLASS #4 - Week of 101418 FFP – Private Dwellings Chap. #6, T.B. – Foam – Add's & Evolutions, ERP – Add #2 Chemical, Safety Bull. #57, 61, 66 & 70Instructor DC Dave Sims.pdf Flashcards Preview

Fire Officer Fall 2018 > CO CLASS #4 - Week of 101418 FFP – Private Dwellings Chap. #6, T.B. – Foam – Add's & Evolutions, ERP – Add #2 Chemical, Safety Bull. #57, 61, 66 & 70Instructor DC Dave Sims.pdf > Flashcards

Flashcards in CO CLASS #4 - Week of 101418 FFP – Private Dwellings Chap. #6, T.B. – Foam – Add's & Evolutions, ERP – Add #2 Chemical, Safety Bull. #57, 61, 66 & 70Instructor DC Dave Sims.pdf Deck (56)
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1
Q
1. Ladder Company 2 has responded to an alarm in the New York City Subway System. Upon arrival there are numerous patients exhibiting symptoms of respiratory distress, pupil contraction, vomiting and muscle twitching. There is a fruity odor in the air. A possible cause of this can be the release of which type of chemical agent? 
EMERGENCY RESPONSE PLAN ADD. #2 (2.1)
a. Sarin (nerve agent)
b. Mustard (blister agent)
c. Phosgene (choking agent)
d. Hydrogen Cyanide (pulmonary agent)
A
  1. A

2.1 Nerve Agents (Organophosphates)
A. Examples: Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), VX
B. Distinctive odor: Fruit
C. Outward Signs of Exposure: respiratory distress, convulsions, S-L-U-D-G-E-M: Salivation, Lacrimation (tearing), Urination, Defecation, GI distress, Emesis (vomiting), Muscle Twitching/ Miosis (contraction of pupils)

2
Q
  1. A newly promoted lieutenant would be incorrect to identify which of the following chemical agents with its associated odor? (2.1 - 2.4)
    a. Tabun, Sarin, Soman, VX - Fruit
    b. Phosgene, Chlorine – Grass, Chlorine
    c. Hydrogen Cyanide – Ammonia
    d. Lewisite, Mustard – Garlic
A
  1. C

2.3 Blood (Pulmonary) Agents
A. Examples: hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride
B. Distinctive odor: burnt almonds
C. Outward signs of exposure: victims gasping for air, convulsions

2.4 Choking Agents
A. Examples: chlorine, ammonia, phosgene
B. Distinctive odor: chlorine or grass
C. Outward signs of exposure: victims gasping for air, eye irritation

3
Q
  1. Engine Company 48 is 10-84 at a CFR call for a sick person in a below grade subway station. Indicators that members should be aware of that this may be more than a routine CFR call and a possible chemical attack would include which of the following? Indicate all that are correct. (3.1)
    a. Unusual odors
    b. Civilians displaying similar signs and symptoms such as pulmonary and/or cardiac distress, skin lesions, numerous fatalities with no apparent mechanism of injury or trauma
    c. Mist or vapor cloud
    d. Presence of suspicious cylinders, spray devices, powders, liquids or gels
A
  1. -A, B, C, D
  2. 1 Incident Recognition
  3. 1.1 Indicators of people or animals adversely affected by the release: civilians displaying similar signs and symptoms such as pulmonary distress, cardiac distress and/or skin lesions or numerous fatalities with no apparent cause of injury or trauma.

3.1.2 Other Outward Warning Signs
A. Presence of suspicious spray devices or cylinders
B. Unusual odors
C. Presence of suspicious powders, gels, liquids
D. Mists or vapor clouds

4
Q
  1. Lieutenant Baker has arrived first at an alarm for a suspicious package at a subway station in Queens. Upon arrival numerous civilians are self evacuating the below ground station and many are exhibiting signs of exposure to a nerve agent. Suspecting this may be a chemical attack, the lieutenant would be incorrect if she were to perform/realize which of the following? (3.3, 4.2.1 - 4.2.8)
    a. Transmit signal 10-80 with the appropriate code
    b. Operate downwind of any suspected chemical release
    c. Be aware of secondary devices and multiple release points. Protection from a secondary device shall take priority over the establishment of a command post or staging area
    d. Ensure members avoid contact with puddles, liquids, vapors and mists
A
  1. B

4. 2.6 Operate upwind of chemical release

5
Q
  1. Battalion Chief Murray is asked by a lieutenant operating at a chemical release what the proper code to transmit would be at an incident in which there was a confirmed chemical attack with six civilians requiring decontamination. BC Murray wisely answered: (Comm Manual Chapter 8)
    a. 10-80 no code
    b. 10-80 code 1
    c. 10-80 code 2
    d. 10-80 code 3
A
  1. B
6
Q
  1. You are a lieutenant working a 9x6 tour in a Decontamination Engine Company. While responding to a confirmed chemical attack underground, your chauffeur made the following points. Which one was not entirely correct? (4.3)
    a. Three zones will be established at this incident. An exclusion zone, a contamination reduction zone, and a support zone
    b. The incident command post shall be established in the support zone
    c. A safe refuge area (SRA) will be found in the contamination reduction zone
    d. All decontamination activities shall take place in the exclusion zone
A
  1. D

4.3.2 Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ)
A. Safe Refuge Area (SRA)
Safe Refuge Areas are positioned in the Contamination Reduction Zone outside the Hotline to evaluate the need for decontamination of those evacuating the Exclusion Zone.
B. Decontamination Areas

7
Q
  1. A truck company officer operating as the FAST unit at a chemical attack underground observed the following actions, one of which was incorrect. It can be found in choice: (4.5.3)
    a. An unaffected train was allowed to proceed past the station where the release occurred, after ensuring that the train’s HVAC system was on an operating
    b. All trains in the station and the station itself were evacuated
    c. The HVAC system in the station was shut off
    d. Sidewalk gratings were covered with tarps, sheets of plastic, rugs or other materials
A
  1. A

G. Shut down HVAC system of all trains in the vicinity of the contaminated area to prevent air intake of contaminants.

8
Q
  1. An FDNY unit arrives first for an alarm involving a chemical release in the New York City Subway. Upon looking down the stairway to the station, the officer notices numerous persons in distress exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with a nerve agent. The victims are both conscious and unconscious. A correct choice made by the officer in this situation is found in which answer? (4.5.4)
    a. Ordered members not to assist with self evacuating civilians, despite having all members wearing bunker gear and using SCBA
    b. Ordered the rescue of any non-ambulatory victims, provided that the members making the rescue attempt were properly utilizing their SCBA and PPE
    c. Ordered members not to enter the subway and operated in a defensive mode
    d. Ordered the rescue attempt of a visible person in distress, utilizing a minimum number of properly equipped personnel
A
  1. C

4.5.4 Strategic Operations
A. Defensive Mode
Members are NOT to enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive.
B. Evacuation
If civilians are self-evacuating, members shall assist evacuation using bunker gear and SCBA.
1. Ensure means of egress are enlarged by forcing/removing gates, fences, and other obstructions
2. Direct evacuees to Safe Refuge Area for decontamination assessment; use apparatus PA system, bullhorn, signs, barrier tape
C. Rescue
Rescue involves non-ambulatory or trapped victims. Members attempting rescue of civilians may require a higher level of protection.
Note: Trained personnel wearing appropriate PPE may be required to administer antidote during rescue.

9
Q
  1. The initial strategic and tactical operations at a chemical release will be incident driven, A Captain arriving at these types of incidents would be incorrect if he/she were to believe which statement? (5 – 5.5)
    a. If conditions are such that responders can perform a hazard assessment of the area, the first arriving ladder company may proceed into the area after analyzing the risks associated with entry
    b. Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed into the exclusion zone any further than the farthest dead victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of non-ambulatory victims
    c. If the dispersal device is still active, units shall make no attempt to stop the device
    d. Avoid contact with any suspected agent. Physical contact with contaminated victims is also to be avoided
A
  1. B
  2. 3 Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the farthest live victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
10
Q
  1. Ladder Company 191 has arrived first at a suspected chemical incident. Their officer ordered the following actions. A junior firefighter studying for the upcoming lieutenant’s test thought the boss was not entirely correct in which action? (6.1)
    a. He ordered a team formed of two firefighter and himself for victim evacuation and initial hazard assessment
    b. Because live victims were seen and heard in the station, he had the entry team perform a rapid assessment of the area and utilized a route that did not impede the victims evacuation
    c. He ordered the removal of any and all barriers to facilitate the evacuation of civilians
    d. When coming across an area with unresponsive victims, he indicated their exact position to the Incident Commander and continued the search for additional victims
A
  1. D

6.1 First Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1: Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
The First Arriving Ladder Company will form a team consisting of two firefighters supervised by the officer for victim evacuation and initial hazard assessment.
Members are NOT to enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive. If members come across an area with no responsive victims, indicating an immediate life threat to responders, they should transmit such information to the incident commander and retreat immediately to be decontaminated. Specialized units in proper PPE and metering devices should then be assigned to that area for assessment.

11
Q
  1. The second ladder company to arrive at a chemical attack is charged with certain duties. Members of this unit were correct in all actions they performed with which exception? (6.4 - 6.6)
    a. Direct ambulatory victims from the Safe Refuge Area (SRA) to the Emergency Gross Decontamination Area, if necessary
    b. Coordinate and limit site access, remaining outside the exclusion zone
    c. Define the initial exclusion zone utilizing yellow fire line tape
    d. Bring a stokes stretcher/sked, if available with a length of utility rope to drag non ambulatory victims to the Gross Decontamination Area, if necessary
A
  1. C

6. 6.1 Define initial Exclusion Zone with RED Haz-Mat barrier tape.

12
Q
  1. The unit charged with providing the Incident Commander with an estimate of the number of victims at an underground chemical attack is the: (7.1.7)
    a. Third Engine Company
    b. First Engine Company
    c. First Ladder Company
    d. Second Ladder Company
A
  1. B

First Arriving Engine Company

  1. 1.1 Stage the apparatus and equipment upwind and away from any potential sources of contamination such as subway entrances and sidewalk gratings, but near enough to begin Gross Decontamination of contaminated victims. When staging apparatus, position near the location of the access/egress point(s) of First Arriving Ladder Company performing assessment.
  2. 1.2 Locate a working hydrant and connect to it, establishing a positive water supply.
  3. 1.3 Don appropriate PPE.
  4. 1.4 Remain outside the subway system unless ordered by the IC.
  5. 1.5 Provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims in accordance with decontamination procedures.
  6. 1.6 Direct persons who have been decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points (CCPs) staffed by EMS for triage, treatment and transport.
  7. 1.7 Provide estimate of number of victims to Incident Commander.
  8. 1.8 Inform Second Arriving Ladder Company and Incident Commander if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
13
Q
  1. Engine Company 201 has arrived first at a suspected chemical attack in a subway station. Members of this well trained unit realize that they should perform all of the following with which exception? (7.1)
    a. Do not hook up to a working hydrant due to the volatility of the incident and the need to move out of the exclusion zone should the incident expand
    b. Remain outside the subway system unless ordered by the incident commander
    c. Inform the IC and second arriving ladder company officer if victims collapse on their way to the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area
    d. Provide emergency gross decontamination for ambulatory victims of the attack
A
  1. A

7. 1.2 Locate a working hydrant and connect to it, establishing a positive water supply.

14
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief in command of an incident where numerous persons are in distress at an underground subway station. Civilians are exiting the station exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with the release of an unknown chemical. One of the members has stated that there is an odor of geraniums emanating from the station’s stairwell. You realize that this odor would be consistent with an attack by: (Add. 2, pg.18)
    a. Tabun
    b. Lewisite
    c. VX
    d. Phosgene
A
  1. B

N: Fishy, musty odor
S: Garlic, mustard odor
L: Odor of geraniums
Color: clear, yellow-brown

15
Q
  1. An officer operating at a chemical attack underground would know that the only chemical agent which is lighter than air is: (Add 2, pg. 18)
    a. Phosgene
    b. Sulfur mustard
    c. Hydrogen Cyanide
    d. VX
A
  1. C

HCN: Gas

16
Q
  1. Exposure to chemical agents will always result in immediate signs and symptoms, ranging from seconds to minutes. (Add. 2 Pg. 18)
    a. Agree
    b. Disagree
A
  1. B

Mustard - Hours

17
Q
  1. A lieutenant was instructing members in regard to the use of a charged line at fires in vacant buildings. He made the following statements. In which one should he be corrected? (SB 57, CS 1)
    a. A charged line may be used as a lifeline to provide direction out of areas of poor visibility
    b. No unit should operate alone in a vacant building
    c. Utilize a charged line to pinpoint your position by operating it into a window from a fire escape
    d. A charged line may be used to push smoke away so you can see or be seen
A
  1. C

5. 1.3 To pinpoint your location by operating it out of a window or from the fire escape.

18
Q
  1. Members from a study group in Staten Island were discussing procedures that should be utilized when operating at fires involving electrical equipment, particularly when Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) is involved. They brought up four points, one of which requires correction. (SB 57, CS 4)
    a. It is permissible to burn a piece of PVC electrical cable during company drill in order to acquaint the members with its characteristic odor
    b. When a member is coughing due to inhaling PVC fumes, immediately donning a facepiece and breathing purified air via the SCBA usually alleviates the coughing
    c. Polyvinyl Chloride gives off an irritating odor similar to Chlorine, when burned
    d. Members operating at fires involving electrical equipment shall use breathing apparatus until the officer in command declares the area completely free of toxic smoke (including overhaul)
A
  1. B
  2. There seems to be a delayed physical reaction when a light haze of PVC is inhaled. Members started to cough and had difficulty in stopping. Putting the mask facepieces on did not relieve the coughing spells.
19
Q
  1. A heavy fire condition in a vacant rowframe building, particularly in vacants where the building on either side has been demolished, may be subject to sudden and catastrophic collapse. Some of the conditions which would cause the collapse of this type of frame building may be found in all but which answer? (SB 57, CS 5)
    a. Advanced age and previous fires within the building
    b. Lack of structural support from adjoining buildings that had previously been demolished
    c. Prolonged use of the tower ladder stream
    d. Extensive brick nogging adding to the dead weight load in front and rear walls
A
  1. D
20
Q
  1. Members operating in an old law tenement in lower Manhattan notice sparking from a light fixture despite the electrical service being confirmed “OFF” by another unit. Members encountering this type of condition should realize that this type of condition can be caused by: (Indicate all that are correct) (SB 57, CS 6)
    a. An open ground, which can cause any metal in the area to become charged resulting in a shock and\or fire
    b. The electricity is being supplied by an adjoining building through common wiring
    c. The Con Edison circuit back to a manhole is open or broken and the house ground circuit is open or broken
    d. Members shall not attempt electrical repairs or alterations to these types of circuits
A
  1. D

5. Extensive brick nogging adding to the dead weight load in the side walls.

21
Q
  1. Tower ladder 58 is operating at a 2nd alarm in the Bronx. Observing the operation, a member desiring to become a future lieutenant with the FDNY had the following thoughts. Which one was not entirely correct? (SB 57, CS 7)
    a. The area beneath an operating tower ladder shall be declared a danger zone and be secured with tape, ropes, or barricades. This area shall be respected by all FD personnel
    b. Whenever the basket comes to rest close to a parapet or roof, prior to raising the boom, the basket must first be retracted
    c. What may have been an acceptable weight during the raising operation, may develop into an unacceptable weight for lowering
    d. In an emergency the pedestal firefighter can take over the controls to provide a safe operation
A
  1. B
  2. Whenever the basket comes to rest close to a parapet or roof, prior to retracting the boom, the basket must be raised.
    This raising, prior to moving boom away from the building and retracting basket, will avoid any contact of basket with portions of the building.
22
Q
  1. Deputy Chief Brennan is operating at a 4th alarm at a large church fire. Four tower ladders are being placed into operation at this “surround and drown” operation. Chief Brennan would be correct to chew out three of the officers in charge of these tower ladders, because the only company operating safely can be found in which answer below? (SB 57, CS 11)
    a. Tower ladder 96 is operating a large caliber stream with only their inboard outriggers lowered
    b. Tower ladder 97’s boom is in motion with no member on the pedestal. There are two members in the basket
    c. Tower ladder 98 decided to abort their operation. The LCC left all jacks and outriggers properly placed
    d. Due to the lack of space on this narrow street, tower ladder 99 is operating with their jacks down. There is no room for their outriggers to be lowered
A
  1. C
  2. If a member commences to set up a tower ladder apparatus for an operation and then
    decides to abort the operation, the member must either:
    A. Properly place all outriggers and jacks for operation.
    B. Return all outriggers and jacks to the pre-setup position.
23
Q
  1. Units in Queens are operating in a hotel for a smoke condition on the first floor of the building. It is a hot and humid night. A probationary firefighter who has military experience has made the lieutenant aware that he suspects this smoke condition is being caused by a smoke grenade. In regard to this type of smoke condition, the lieutenant should be aware of all of the following except: (SB 57, CS9)
    a. The color and amount of smoke is no indication of the hazard involved
    b. Although HC is not toxic, (grained aluminum, zinc oxide, and hexachloroethane) heavy exposure to this type of smoke in an enclosed space can be fatal
    c. HC smoke has a sweetish, acrid odor
    d. The higher the humidity, the less dense the smoke production from an HC grenade will be
A
  1. D

The more humid the air the more dense the HC smoke.

24
Q
  1. After celebrating their 100 year centennial, the officer of Engine Company 228 notices a large crack in the side wall of the firehouse which appears to be traveling. He feels this is an immediate situation and because the members are aware of the Emergency Action Plan for all FDNY facilities, the officer should expect the following, with which exception? (SB 61)
    a. All members report to the apparatus floor via normal egress routes
    b. Under no circumstances shall any attempt shall be made to move the apparatus from quarters
    c. Cause the housewatchman or other member to notify the dispatcher via phone, voice alarm or street box
    d. Ascertain that all members are accounted for and moved outside to a safe location
A
  1. B
  2. 3 The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall ascertain that all personnel are accounted for and shall ensure that all personnel move to a safe location outside. Apparatus stored in the facility shall, if safety permits, be moved to a safe location outside the building.
25
Q
  1. The emergency action plan for all firehouse is reviewed by the officer on duty with personnel during the times indicated below except: (SB 67 7.1)
    a. Annually in February
    b. Initially when the plan is developed
    c. When new personnel are assigned
    d. Whenever the plan is changed
A
  1. A

7.1 The Officer/Supervisor on duty within each facility shall review the plan with personnel
at the following times:
7.1.1 Initially, when the plan is developed;
7.1.2 Whenever the plan is changed;
7.1.3 When new personnel are assigned;
7.1.4 Quarterly, during the first week of January, April, July and October of each year

26
Q
  1. Ladder Company 1, arriving for a fire at a lower Manhattan construction site, discovered the fire involves the wooden forms used for the shoring and forming of recently poured concrete. As they climb the stairs to the fire floor, a student studying for the next lieutenant’s test made the following statements. His officer should correct which one? (SB 66)
    a. The fire load in this type of building is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs stripped from a cured floor. This lumber is usually found on the floor below the most recently poured floor
    b. Problems with structural failure will not usually occur on the temporary storage floor. The problem would be a fast moving fire, with large open vertical and horizontal areas
    c. The structural stability of the floor below the most recently poured floor should be considered sound
    d. If units observe studs placed approximately eight feet apart as they proceed upward in the building, it can be assumed these floors are in the advanced stages of curing and should not be a problem if exposed to fire
A
  1. A

This lumber is usually found stored on the floor which is two levels below the most recently poured floor and will serve as the forms for the next floor to be poured.

27
Q
  1. A Chief Officer is trying to decide whether to institute an interior attack in a building under construction where recently poured concrete and its associated wood forms are being utilized. There is no supervisor or foreman present. The chief should assume that the concrete was poured with how many hours of her unit’s arrival? (SB 66)
    a. 72
    b. 48
    c. 36
    d. 24
A
  1. D

Obtaining this information is often difficult, and if available, not always accurate. Unless there is a
responsible person on the job site, such as a construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman and he states exactly the time that the concrete was poured, arriving units should assume that it was sometime within the prior 24 hours.

28
Q
  1. A good officer uses critiques as a valuable tool for training and relearning. You are an engine company office about to critique a particularly difficult 10-75 at which your unit operated first due. You would be correct to remember all but which of the following? (SB 70)
    a. The critique should take place at the scene or in quarters
    b. The senior firefighter on duty should lead the discussion
    c. All criticism should be constructive. No one should suffer unnecessary embarrassment
    d. The fire or emergency is not over until all members of the unit have learned all that can be learned from the incident
A
  1. B

The company officer should lead the discussion, i.e., the critique. He/she might begin by stating what he/she saw, thought and did. Then the firefighters should state their own observations and actions. Remember: all criticism should be constructive, because critiques are intended to be training exercises. Although mistakes should be discussed, the company officer must be particularly careful that no one suffers unnecessary embarrassment.

29
Q
  1. A senior firefighter supervising a proby made the following statements while the proby was recharging the unit’s 2 ½ gallon AFFF extinguisher. The proby realized that the senior firefighter was not entirely correct in which statement? (Add. 2, sec 2.2, 2.5, 4, 5)
    a. Since the extinguisher has a reach of 35-40 feet, AFFF can be discharged from a distance
    b. It is not necessary to apply AFFF against the backboard or side of a burning tank to form a film on the oil’s surface.
    c. It can be applied gently on the surface by placing a finger over the nozzle
    d. The AFFF extinguisher is inspected each tour
A
  1. D
4. DAILY INSPECTION
 Damage or corrosion
 Condition of the cap and collar threads
 Serviceability of the gasket
 Air pressure (100 PSI)
30
Q
  1. An AFFF extinguisher not used within ___ months shall be emptied, refilled and recharged? (Add. 2, Sec. 5)
    a. 3 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 9 months
    d. 0ne year
A
  1. D

Note: If an extinguisher is not fully expended, the remaining solution can be held in reserve in case of re-ignition. Empty extinguishers or extinguishers that are not fully expended must be recharged upon return to quarters. An extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be emptied, refilled and recharged.

31
Q
  1. A lieutenant candidate would recognize that all of the following are correct in regard to the foam extinguisher except: (Add. 2 sec. 1. 2, 4, 5)
    a. It can be filled with either AFFF or AR-AFFF, whichever is available
    b. Freezes at 32 degrees
    c. Should be charged to 100 PSI
    d. Use 10 ounces of foam concentrate when recharging
A
  1. A

 Slowly add 10 ounces of 3% AFFF concentrate. (Do not mix one type of concentrate with another).

32
Q
  1. Engine 13 is about to place a foam handline into operation to assist in covering a fuel spill. Because the ECC of this unit has just graduated as valedictorian from Chauffeur School, the officer knows will not have to explain to the chauffeur that the only place to properly position the foam eductor is where? (Add. 3, Sec. 2.1)
    a. Halfway between the nozzle and pumper outlet
    b. One length from the pickup bucket
    c. At the pumper outlet
    d. Two lengths from the nozzle
A
  1. C

2. 1 The eductor is to be operated at the pumper outlet only and is not to be operated in-line.

33
Q
  1. The 125 gpm foam eductor is equipped with a Go Gauge. During a foam operation, a firefighter should be aware that there is a problem in the system if the Go Gauge needle is in which position? (Add. 3, 1.4)
    a. Red
    b. Yellow
    c. Green
    d. Black
A
  1. A

 The go-gauge needle should be in the green position. If the needle is in the red, a problem exists and foam is not being produced at the desired percentage.

34
Q
  1. A ladder company officer working overtime in an engine company has just concluded a foam operation where the 125 GPM foam eductor were utilized. The nozzle and line should now be flushed with fresh water for how long? (Add. 3, 1.4, pg. 4)
    a. 5 minutes
    b. 10 minutes
    c. 15 minutes
    d. Until clean water is flowing through the nozzle
A
  1. D

 When foam operations are completed, the line and nozzle shall be flushed out until clean water has flowed through the nozzle. At that time, the nozzle shall be shut down and the chauffer will go to idle on the pumper, reduce pressure at the outlet and press the red flush button on the eductor. Pressing the red button on the eductor back flushes the eductor and pickup tube. This shall be done until fresh clean water is flowing through the pickup tube. When the equipment is flushed out, the eductor can be packed away in its case and be ready for a future foam operation.

35
Q
  1. During a foam operation, the members of Engine 13 started stretching a foam handline towards a burning fuel spill. Proper actions this unit performed can found in which answer? (Evol. 1, 2.2, 2.4)
    a. If stretching 2 ½” hose, a maximum of 6 lengths to the nozzle
    b. If stretching 1 ¾” hose, a maximum of 10 lengths to the nozzle
    c. The ECC provided 200 PSI at the eductor
    d. The nozzle firefighter opened and closed the foam nozzle intermittently as conditions dictated
A
  1. C

2.2 Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet only.
 1 ¾” hose - maximum stretch is six (6) lengths to the nozzle.
 2 ½” hose - maximum stretch is ten (10) lengths to the nozzle.

 Upon opening the nozzle, foam solution will immediately flow from the nozzle. Avoid opening and closing the nozzle as this interrupts the educting process and causes an intermittent flow of foam.

36
Q
  1. Arriving at a three million gallon fuel tank fire at a tank farm on Staten Island, the officer of Tower Ladder 100 is ordered by the Incident Commander to prepare to utilize a Modified Angus Foam Cannon attached to the tower ladder in order to extinguish the fire. The officer should order/realize all of the following, with which exception at this fire? (Evol. 3, 2.2, 2.5, 2.6)
    a. Tower ladder member should be sent to the Satellite Unit to obtain and attach the 1000 gpm Modified Angus Foam Cannon to the tower ladder
    b. The tower ladder shall be pointed away from the fire until foam operations are started
    c. The tower ladder basket shall be unstaffed during this operation. Movement shall be controlled at the pedestal
    d. When the foam operation is to begin, the tower ladder officer will issue the order to start water.
A
  1. D

2.6 When the foam operation is to begin, the Chief in Charge will issue the order to start water. After water is started, the operator of the FIMM pumper will begin proportioning foam at 3% into the water flow.
 At 3%, the Modified Angus Foam Cannon with a flow of 1000 GPM will use
approximately 30 gallons of concentrate per minute.
 At 3%, the Akron Master Stream Foam Nozzle with a flow of 500 GPM will use
approximately 15 gallons of concentrate per minute.

37
Q
  1. Members are operating the 125 gpm foam eductor and nozzle at a hydrocarbon fire with an alcohol content. At fires of this type, the nozzle should be operated in which position? (Add. 3, First bullet, Pg. 4)
    a. Seated position
    b. Extended position
A
  1. B

 During operation the nozzle can be operated with the tip in either the seated position or the extended position. When the cone is operated in the seated position, a foam blanket is produced. When the cone is used in the extended position, an aerated foam
blanket is produced. The aerated position produces a longer lasting foam blanket and should be used on hydrocarbon fires with an alcohol content.

38
Q
  1. The objectives of the FDNY in the extinguishment of fires in vacant buildings is to keep injuries to our members to a minimum while giving due regard to life and extension hazards. Concerning vacant buildings, which statement is incorrect? (1.3)
    a. Only building which are of doubtful stability shall be marked
    b. Markings shall be painted in lime yellow reflective paint
    c. The square should be approximately 18” x 18”
    d. Lines to be 2” wide
A
  1. A

1. 3.1 All vacant buildings must be identified and marked with the following symbol:

39
Q
  1. You are a lieutenant who has just arrived at a fire in a vacant four story old law tenement. The most important aspect in determining the initial attack strategy can be found in which choice? (1.1.3, 1.5.1, 2.2.1, 2.2.3)
    a. Life hazard and safety of the members
    b. Personal injury hazard to firefighters
    c. The structural stability of the building
    d. Protection of life
A
  1. C

2.2.1 The structural stability of the vacant building or parts of the building will be the most important aspect determining the initial attack strategy i.e., interior or
exterior. Since vacant buildings possess inherent features conducive to rapid fire spread, both vertically and horizontally, possible collapse, and extension to
exposures, the quick application of water is necessary for timely control and extinguishment. The rapid spread of an uncontrolled fire from a room, to the apartment, to an entire building is very evident in vacant building fires.

40
Q
  1. The officer in command of the first to arrive unit at a fire in a vacant building may have to decide whether or not to initiate an interior attack. Which one of the following should have the least amount of influence on his/her decision? (1.4.1)
    a. Indicated or known life presence in the building
    b. Extent and location of the fire
    c. Weather conditions
    d. Number of units arriving on the initial alarm
A
  1. C

Determination of method of attack, exterior or interior, may have to be made by the first arriving officer. As in any fire situation, a size-up must be made.
1.4.1 General considerations:
A. Any known or indicated presence of life in the building.
B. Location and extent of the fire.
C. Exposure problems.
D. Number of units responding to initial alarm.

41
Q
  1. While a building may appear to be vacant, certain indicators may be available to tell the first arriving units that it may be occupied. These indicators may be found in which choices? (Multiple answers, 1.3.7)
    a. Curtains, window shades, window gates, plants
    b. Lights on in some apartments
    c. Electric extension wires strung from utility poles or backyards of adjoining windows through windows into an apparently vacant building
    d. Holes or signs of forced entry in a sealed building
A
  1. All

1.3.7 Indications of tenants in an apparent vacant building:
A. Lights in windows of some apartments.
B. Curtains, window shades, plants, window gates.
C. Electric extension wires strung from utility pole, or through backyard of
adjoining building into windows of an apparently vacant building.
D. Holes or signs of forced entry in sealed building.

42
Q
  1. Size up considerations by the officer in command of a fire in a vacant building should be the same as those in an occupied building. This order of priorities is best shown in which choice? (2.2)
    a. Life, extinguishment, confinement, exposures
    b. Life, exposures, extinguishment, confinement
    c. Life, extinguishment, exposures, confinement
    d. Life, exposures, confinement, extinguishment
A
  1. D
  2. 2 Proper size-up is most important for the officer in command. In execution of the fire attack plan, the same order of priorities apply as in fire fighting in occupied buildings, i.e., life, exposures, confinement and extinguishment.
43
Q
  1. Members operating in burning vacant buildings must be aware that the fires are often intentionally set and obstacles or traps may be placed to hinder firefighting efforts. Which statement is incorrect in respect to the types of hazards firefighters may confront in vacant buildings? (1.5.2)
    a. Landings supported by ¾” angle iron at the edges which may have deteriorated due to age or lack of maintenance, missing or broken stairs, steps or landings which may collapse under a members weight
    b. Heavy furniture used to block access to an apartment, Refrigerators place to fall on members entering the area
    c. Small containers of gasoline place or strung overhead which can fall and ignite while members are advancing
    d. Diesel fuel used as an accelerant which will cause the fire to burn rapidly at the beginning, but will burn out faster than a gasoline fed fire
A
  1. D

A. Diesel fuel spread on all floors of the building. A small initial fire may spread rapidly throughout, trapping members therein. Fires in vapors of diesel fuel oil develop slowly at the start, but progress rapidly as vapor
production intensifies. Heat developed will be for a longer duration than that involving gasoline, igniting more of the combustible materials in the area, and producing a fire of rapid spread and greater magnitude.

44
Q
  1. It is Saturday night October 20th at 0400 hours. You are a lieutenant in Engine 72 who has just arrived with your unit at a serious fire in a 20’ x 40’ vacant tenement. Exposure two is an occupied three story multiple dwelling, exposure three is unknown and exposure 4 is a Class 1 150’ x 100’ four story public school. The fire building is heavily involved and the first ladder company is going to be delayed. At fires of this type, which would it be incorrect of you to consider? (2.2.2, 2.2.3)
    a. Take into account the six sides of the fire (four sides at the level of the fire, as well as above and below)
    b. If no life is endangered in the exposures, place the stream in a position where it can protect the most amount of property
    c. Position the first hoseline where it can provide the most direct attack on the fire
    d. Place the first hoseline between the fire and the most severe life exposure
A
  1. C
45
Q
  1. Tower ladder 98 is ordered by the incident commander to place their tower ladder into operation to extinguish a fully involved vacant multiple dwelling. The best access for the apparatus is a lot on the exposure 4 side of the building. The lieutenant of this unit was incorrect when he had which thought at this fire? (4.1)
    a. He surveyed the lot with the LCC to determine the condition of the lot and if it will support the weight of the apparatus
    b. He ordered the apparatus positioned to cover two sides of the building
    c. He insured the boom was operated at right angles to the chassis, particularly at lower elevations
    d. He ordered shoring placed beneath the jacks and tormentors of the apparatus to stabilize the tower ladder
A
  1. C

The boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations. It should be operated at
narrow angles, over the front or rear of the apparatus. At times, only a portion of the TL may have to be placed in the lot to obtain the desired coverage.

46
Q
  1. An engine company officer operating in a vacant building would be correct if she were to consider all the following except: (3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.1.6. 3.1.8)
    a. If it is evident more than one hoseline will be needed and a backstretch is to be made, the officer should order a second hoseline dropped on front of the fire building before the apparatus proceeds to the hydrant. This line will be stretched by another unit
    b. The officer, nozzle, backup and door (if available) firefighters all are required in the immediate fire area. The control firefighter can be available for relief or assistance if necessary
    c. Tower ladder pipes should be supplied by the largest diameter hose available. Water shall be controlled at the pumper
    d. Consideration should be given to stretching a 2 ½” handline with solid stream nozzles into exposed buildings for its greater discharge and reach
A
  1. B
  2. 1.6 Usually only the officer and two members are needed for advancing the line into the immediate fire area. Other members should remain outside, readily available for relief or any immediate assistance required.
47
Q
  1. Battalion Chief LaPolla has just arrived at a fire in a vacant three story commercial building on 63rd street. Where should BC LaPolla establish his command post? (5.1)
    a. Across the street from the fire building, outside the collapse zone
    b. On the sidewalk, Exposure 2 or 4 side of the fire building, outside of the collapse zone
    c. As close as possible to the Battalion Vehicle, to improve communications
    d. In the courtyard, if one is available
A
  1. A
48
Q
  1. Generally the only life hazard in a vacant building is that of the operating forces. Consider the following statements and indicate the one that is incorrect (4.2.1, 4.7, 6.12, 8.1)
    a. Generally there is no need for VES from the fire escape
    b. Vacant buildings should be searched as soon as possible, while the fire is being extinguished
    c. The building should be continuously monitored for structural stability
    d. The primary emphasis on vacant buildings is an exterior attack
A
  1. B

4.2.1 Since vacant buildings have low victim potential, they should be searched within the limits of safety after building conditions have been evaluated and the fire has
been largely extinguished.

49
Q
  1. Over the past several decades, lightweight construction features have become prevalent throughout the City of New York. Firefighters must be aware of these features, particularly at fires in private dwellings. Concerning fires in private dwellings built with lightweight features, it would be incorrect to state which of the following? (1.6, 1.7, 1.9, 1.11)
    a. Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight features
    b. Immediate notification to the Incident Commander is critical when this type of construction is discovered by any member
    c. In buildings of lightweight construction where fire extends from the content to the structural components, collapse generally occurs within 20-30 minutes
    d. It is mandatory that the eCIDS program be utilized when buildings of lightweight construction are identified
A
  1. C
  2. 6 For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration. At these types of buildings, depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be an hour. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within 20 minutes.
50
Q
  1. There are many different types of lightweight systems in use in private dwellings. From the four major systems used in this type of construction, choose the only correct statement. (3.2-3.5)
    a. Lightweight parallel chord wood trusses are gang nailed together. The gang nails are the weakest point of connection
    b. Laminated wood I-Beams are treated with a fire retardant material, and will burn slowly once the ignition temperature is reached
    c. Metal C-Joist are made of cold pressed steel and designed to absorb heat. They generally will not fail rapidly when exposed to fire and/or high heat
    d. The composite truss will react better to fire conditions than other lightweight (wood or metal) trusses and is not prone to rapid failure
A
  1. A

3.3.2 These I-beams are pre-engineered, and may come with openings in the web to accommodate utilities. In other instances, builders will bore holes in the web for plumbing, electrical lines, and HVAC ductwork, thus compromising its strength. A fire-retardant material sprayed on the beam will tend to dry out the wood over
time, making it brittle and further reducing its strength. Once the ignition temperature has been reached during a fire, a laminated wood I-beam will burn rapidly. The sheet metal brackets holding the beams in place may also fail when exposed to fire or high heat. (Figure 7)

  1. 4.2 Metal C-Joists may come with pre-drilled holes for plumbing and electrical lines. (Figure 8) A newer type of C-Joist, with design characteristics similar to lightweight parallel chord wood truss, has larger openings that allows for the easier running of utilities, and the potential for fire and heat spread is significantly
    greater. (Figure 9) When exposed to fire and/or high heat, these lightweight steel joists will lose strength and fail rapidly.

3.5.1 Under fire conditions, the composite truss will react the same as other lightweight (wood or metal) trusses, they will lose strength and fail rapidly (Figure 10)
.

51
Q
  1. Engine Company 162 has arrived first for a fire in a private dwelling. There is a heavy fire and smoke condition on the first floor, yet the ladder company members on the floor above the fire are reporting little to no smoke. The officer of this unit realizes that this is an indication of which type of construction and condition? (3.4.3)
    a. A trussloft with fire in the ceiling
    b. Lightweight parallel wood trusses supporting a wooden floor
    c. Metal C-Joist construction. Collapse is not a concern
    d. Concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q decking) supported by C-Joists and may lead to early collapse
A
  1. D

3.4.3 A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor or in the cellar accompanied by little or no smoke condition on the floor or floors above may be an indication of a
concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists. The additional dead load may lead to early floor collapse; caution should be used at fires in buildings with this type of construction.

52
Q
  1. Because lightweight construction is being more commonly found in private dwellings within New York City, it would be responsible of an officer in the FDNY to be aware of which general operational guideline when operating at fires of this type? (4.1.7, 4.1.8, 4.1.12, 4.1.13)
    a. The primary emphasis for all fires in buildings under construction which are made with lightweight materials is that of an exterior attack
    b. When fire is found in a horizontal void, the cockloft and/or attic space should be promptly checked for extension within the limits of safety
    c. The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of the building may be an indication of a fire in the trussloft
    d. During overhaul members should operate from the ends of the structurally damaged areas directly above or below the length of the joist
A
  1. C
  2. 1.7 Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack. Exterior streams should be positioned and operated from safe areas outside the collapse zone.
  3. 1.8 When fire is found in a vertical void, the cockloft/attic space should be promptly checked for extension within the limits of safety.
  4. 1.13 During overhaul, only the minimum number of firefighters necessary to complete the task should be used. Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the hose stream. Members should not operate directly above or below the structurally damaged area, including the entire length of the joist.
53
Q
  1. Battalion Chief Hawley is the Incident Commander at a fire in a PD constructed of lightweight material. Hawley made the following decisions at this fire, one of which required correction. Which one was it? (4.2.2, 4.2.3)
    a. He immediately ordered the response of an extra engine company
    b. He ordered the second line to the floor above the fire to address a potential life hazard
    c. Because of the actions taken in choice “B” he had a third hoseline positioned as a backup line
    d. Because the fire could not be quickly knocked down by the first hoseline, an exterior attack was considered
A
  1. D

4.2.3 When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with the two hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered. The operating
personnel inside the building must be limited so that quick egress is not impeded.

54
Q
  1. When advancing a handline in a private dwelling constructed of lightweight material, a sharp engine office should ensure that the nozzle firefighter utilizes which method of advance? (4.2.6)
    a. Leg forward
    b. Duckwalk
    c. Kneeling
    d. Crawl
A
  1. A
  2. 2.6 Nozzle FFs should use the leg forward method due to the potential of fire and heat weakening the floor system and causing a collapse.
55
Q
  1. The roof firefighter from a Brooklyn ladder company is operating on the roof of a two story flat roof private dwelling of lightweight construction. Reports received via handie talkie indicate that fire has not entered the cockloft. The firefighter would be wrong if he/she were now to perform which action? (4.3.8, 4.3.10)
    a. Inspect the HVAC ducts for any unusual heat
    b. Cut an inspection hole in the roof
    c. Vent the top floor windows, and skylights if present
    d. Check the sides and rear of the building for extension and persons in distress
A
  1. B

4.3.8 Cutting the roof and pushing down the ceiling could expose the cockloft area to additional heat and fire from the top floor. In addition, a saw cut could sever a structural member causing the failure of one or more trusses/joists. Therefore, under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of
lightweight construction.

56
Q
  1. Ladder company tactics are critical to the success of the operation at fires in private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials. A ladder company officer responding to this type of fire would be incorrect if he/she were to believe: (4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.3.3, 5.1)
    a. When lightweight construction is suspected, the first arriving ladder company shall make an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area to determine the type of support system present. This critical task shall be done immediately upon arrival
    b. If the fire is located on the first floor or cellar and conditions prevent visual inspection of the type of construction, an examination could be made in a similar attached exposure, this task is required to be performed by the first ladder company to arrive
    c. Before entering any room that was involved in fire, one or more inspection holes shall be made in the ceiling to check for fire extension.
    d. The best time to gather information in regard to the support features of lightweight construction is during the construction phase
A
  1. B

4.3.2 When fire is located in the cellar or the first floor and conditions prevent visual identification of the type of construction, an examination could be made in a
similar attached exposure. This inspection shall be assigned by the IC to an available unit.