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Amy ACVPM Study > Food Safety > Flashcards

Food Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What is the temperature and time for pasteurization of milk at high temperature Short Time Method?

A

161 F for 15 seconds

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2
Q

What is the temperature and time for pasteurization of milk (or cream) at Ultra Pasteurization Method?

A

280F for 2 seconds

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3
Q

What is the temperature and time for pasteurization of milk in the Vat Pasteurization Method?

A

145F for 30 minutes

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4
Q

What is the temperature and time for pasteurization of Egg Nog?

A

155F for 30 minutes

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5
Q

What is the most important organism (the reason pasteurization exists) that must be destroyed in pasteurization?

A

Coxiella Burnetti

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6
Q

What is the temperature and time for pasteurization of milk using Higher Heat Shorter Time Method?

A

191-212 F for 1-0.01 seconds

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7
Q

What are the 3 common pork pathogens that begin with T (Triple T - Smyle - BC)?

A

Trichinella spiralis (nematode/roundworm)
Tenia solium (cestode/tapeworm)
Toxoplasma Gondii (Protozoan)

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8
Q

What are the common pork pathogens in the Smyle portion of the pneumonic?

A

Salmonella (gram negative bacteria)
MRSA (gram positive bacteria)
Yersinia entercolitica (gram negative bacteria)
Listeria Monocytogenes (gram positive bacteria)
Hepatitis E (virus)

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9
Q

What are the common pork pathogens in the BC portion of the pneumonic?

A

Brucella suis (gram negative bacteria)
Camphylobacter (gram negative bacteria)

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10
Q

What are the top 9 food allergens?

A
  1. Milk
  2. Eggs
  3. Fish (Bass, Flounder, Cod)
  4. Shellfish (Crab, Lobster, Shrimp)
  5. Tree Nuts (Almonds, Pecans, Walnuts)
  6. Peanuts
  7. Soybeans
  8. Wheat
  9. Sesame Seeds
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11
Q

True or False: Even proteins from any of the food allergens is considered adulterated with allergen.

A

True

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12
Q

What type of bacteria are in cheese?

A

Gram +
Facultative Anaerobes

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13
Q

What are the most common bacterial agents found in cheese?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes
Enterococcus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Bacillus Ceres
Clostridium
(EAT LESS BC)

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14
Q

What are the characteristics of potentially hazardous foods (FATTOM)?

A

F = Food high in protein
A = Acidity - pH 4.6 - 7.5
T = Time = 2h, 2-4h and 4 or more
T = Temperature = 41 - 140 F
O = Oxygen = Anaerobic vs. Aerobic
M = Moisture = 0.85- 0.87 (amount of water not bound to food)

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15
Q

How did the 2018 Farm Bill Change Cannabis Regulation?

A

Hemp is no longer part of the controlled substance act. Must contain no more than 0.3% THC.

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of the food borne virus Hepatitis A?

A

Incubation = 28-50 days
Vehicle = Water, Ice, Milk, Oysters, Fresh produce
Disease it Causes = Infectious Hepatitis

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of the food borne Norwalk Like Viruses?

A

Incubation = 1-2 days
Vehicle = Water (Virus is Chlorine Resistant), Ice, Shellfish
Disease it Causes = Viral Gastroenteritis

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of the food borne virus Rotavirus?

A

Incubation = 1-2 days
Vehicle = Feco-oral prone foods, water. fomites
Disease it Causes = Viral Gastroenteritis

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19
Q

What are the steps of the FSIS Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point Approach (HACCP)?

A
  1. Conduct Hazard Analysis
  2. Determine Critical Control Points
  3. Establish Critical Limits
  4. Establish Monitoring Procedures
  5. Establish Corrective Actions
  6. Establish Records & Documentation
  7. Establish Verification Procedures
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20
Q

What agency enforces the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?

A

FSIS

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21
Q

What are the requirements of the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?

A

Proper treatment of humane handling of all animals slaughtered in USDA plants

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22
Q

What group of animals are not covered by the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?

A

Birds

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23
Q

What temperature should cold foods stay?

A

Less than 40F

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24
Q

What temperature should hot foods stay?

A

Greater than 140F

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25
Q

At what temperature should shell eggs be kept?

A

45F

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26
Q

What time limit is advised for foods to be thrown away if not kept at temperature?

A

Throw away at 1 hour

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27
Q

What foods are excluded from the 1 hour rule for throwing away foods?

A
  1. Air cooled HB egg with shell
  2. Pasteurized, intact new shell egg
  3. Food in hermetic seal
  4. Products assessed at no growth due to AW, pH or both
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28
Q

What is meant by the Water Activity of food or AW?

A

Measure of the unbound, free water molecules in the food that is necessary for microbial survival and growth.

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29
Q

Water Activity increases or decreases with increased temperature?

A

Increases

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30
Q

Foods with what AW provide microbial (bacteria) growth?

A

> or = 0.95

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31
Q

Foods at what AW will not provide ideal conditions for microbial (bacteria) growth?

A

0.85 or less

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32
Q

Foods at what AW inhibit the growth of bacteria, yeast and mold?

A

< 0.6

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33
Q

What part of food made with cultured cells does the FDA oversee?

A

Cell collection, cell growth, cell differentiation premarket and consultation on production

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34
Q

What part of food made with cultured cells does USDA-FSIS oversee?

A

Harvesting stage of the cell-culturing process, further production and labeling.

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35
Q

What are the 5 safety concerns of cultured meat?

A
  1. Source of cells
  2. Matrix
  3. Stability
  4. Processing aids unique to cell culture
  5. Microbiological attachments
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36
Q

What animals or animal cells (domestic or imported) does the USDA-FSIS oversee?

A
  1. Cattle
  2. Sheep
  3. Swine
  4. Goats
  5. Fish (siluriformes/catfish)
  6. Fowl
    Federal Meat Inspection Act or Poultry Products Inspection Act
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37
Q

What animals or animal cells (domestic or imported) does the FDA oversee?

A
  1. Other seafoods than catfish
  2. Game meat
  3. Animal foods
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38
Q

What are the three routes to get Animal Food Ingredient Approval?

A
  1. Feed Additive Petition Approval for a Federal Regulation
  2. Generally Recognized as Safe
  3. AAFCO Ingredient Definition Under State Control
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39
Q

What does the Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetics Act Establish?

A

Quality standards for food, drug, medical devices and cosmetics

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40
Q

What are the prohibited acts in the FFDCA?

A
  1. Adulterating or misbranding (or transport of these products)
  2. Refusal to permit access or copying any record
  3. Refusal to permit entry or inspection
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41
Q

What are the food regulations of the FFDCA?

A

Gives HHS the authority to define and establish quality standards for food.

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42
Q

What does the FFDCA require of OTC drug manufacturers?

A

Requires them to prove they are effective and safe

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43
Q

What does the Food Quality Protection Act Govern?

A

The use of pesticides in food cultivation.

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44
Q

What animals are defined as poultry?

A

Chicken, Turkey, Ostrich, Emu, Rhea, Cassowaries, waterfowl and gamebirds (except pigeons and dove)

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45
Q

What is the 3 pronged approach of the National Poultry Improvement Plan?

A
  1. Certifying Breeding Stock
  2. Bird Performance
  3. The elimination of bacillary white diarrhea (Salmonella pullorum)
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46
Q

What diseases are covered by the Poultry Improvement Plan?

A

Avian Flu
S. pullorum
S. gallinarium
S. enterica var. enteritidis
Mycoplasma gallisuepticum
M. synovia
M. melagridis

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47
Q

What are Specified Risk Materials (SRM)?

A

Materials banned from all animal feeds, pet foods, fertilizers, and cattle slaughtering

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48
Q

What is the most important SRM?

A

Distal Ilium of cattle of all ages

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49
Q

What are all of the SRM materials?

A

Skull, brain, trigeminal ganglia, eyes, tonsils spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia of cattle 30 months or older

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50
Q

What is the time to illness and vehicle for Bacillus cereus?

A

6-16 hours
Rice Products, Starchy foods (Spore)

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51
Q

What is the time to illness and vehicle for Clostridium Botulinum?

A

12-36 hours
Improperly canned food (SPORE)

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52
Q

What is the time to illness and vehicle for Staphylococcus Aureus?

A

2-4 hours
Humans, custards, meats, reheats (stable at a boil)

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53
Q

List not allowable ELDU drugs in Food Animals

A

Chloramphenicol
Clenbuterol
DES
Fluoroquinolones
Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
Medicated Feeds
Nitromidazoles
Nitrofurans

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54
Q

What is Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD)?

A

FARAD provides FREE scientific-based services to veterinary practitioners that assist in the prevention of drug residues in animal-derived human foods.

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55
Q

What does the Animal Medical Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA) do?

A

Permits veterinarians to prescribe extra-label uses of certain approved new animal drugs and approved human drugs for animals under certain conditions. (VCPR is key for any new drugs)

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56
Q

List the Drugs that are Restricted ELDU in Food Animals

A
  • Amantadine and Neuraminidase Inhibitors (Birds and Poultry)
  • Cephalosporins (Except Cephapirin) ONLY Treatment Use (Except Minor Species)
  • Gentian Violet
  • Indexed Drugs (Some allowed in Minor Speceis)
  • Phenylbutazone (not in female dairy cows>20 months)
  • Sulfonamides (prohibited in lactating dairy cows with exception)
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57
Q

List the Drugs that Have Special Restrictions for Grade A Dairy Operations

A

Drugs Not Used or Stored (Pasteurization Milk Ordinance)
- Non-Medical Grade DMSO
- Non- Medical Grade Dipyrone
- Non - Medical Grade Colloidal Silver
(Can use bacitracin and monensin)

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58
Q

How long does it take Ciguatoxin to cause signs and what is the vehicle/disease?

A
  • 6 hours
  • Marine Fin Fish
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59
Q

How long does it take Saxitoxins to cause signs and what are the vehicles/diseases?

A
  • 2-24 hours for paralytic shellfish poisoning
  • 1-3 hours for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning
  • 2-24 hours for amnestic shellfish poisoning
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60
Q

How long does it take Scombroid (histamine) to to cause signs and what is the vehicle/disease?

A

0-2 hours
- Scombroid toxin (Tuna/Mackerel not chilled properly when caught)

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61
Q

How long does it take aflatoxin to cause signs and what is the vehicle/disease?

A

Varies on time
- Treenuts, peanuts and all other seeds

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62
Q

When does the symptoms from Ascaris lumbricoides present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

2 months
Food or water contaminated with primate feces.

63
Q

When does the symptoms from Anisakiasis worm present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

7-14 days
Marine Fish
Sushi

64
Q

When does the symptoms from Cryptosporidium parvum present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-10 days
Food/Water/P2P/Chorine Resistant

65
Q

When does the symptoms from Cylosporia cayetanensis present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-14 days
Food/Water/Fresh Produce

66
Q

When does the symptoms from Entamoeba histolytica present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-4 Weeks
Amoebiasis/Food/Water/P2P

67
Q

When does the symptoms from Giardia lambia present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-2 Weeks
Giardiasis Food/Water

68
Q

When does the symptoms from Toxoplasma gondii present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

5-23 Days
Cat feces, poorly cooked meat (lamb, pork, venison)

69
Q

When does the symptoms from Trichinella spiralis present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

9 days
Undercooked pork, bear, boar

70
Q

When does the symptoms from E. coli 0157:H7 (Shiga toxin 1 & 2) present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

2-4 Days - Enterohemorrhagia and HUS
Raw/Undercooked ground beef/raw milk/Alfalfa sprouts/salami/game meat/water/unpasteurized juices

71
Q

When does the symptoms from Brucella species present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

5-21 Days
Undulant Fever/Raw Milk

72
Q

When does the symptoms from Camphylobacter jejuni present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

2-5 Days
Enteritis/Poultry, Pork, Raw Milk, Water, Beef

73
Q

When does the symptoms from Listeria monocytogenes present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

3-21 Days
Listeriosis (neuro signs)/raw milk, contaminated milk products, soil

74
Q

When does the symptoms from Yersinia Enterocolitica present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

2-3 Days
Yersiniosis/Lamb, raw milk, pork, beef

75
Q

When does the symptoms from Salmonella Typhi present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-2 Weeks
Oysters, night soil vegetables, Fecal-oral, contaminated water

76
Q

When does the symptoms from Salmonella Typhimurium present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

12-24 hours
Salmonellosis/Poultry, eggs, fruit, veggies, milk, fecal

77
Q

When does the symptoms from Shigella Sonnei or Flexneri present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

1-7 Days
Shigellosis (Dysentery)/Contaminated water, salads and vegetables

78
Q

When does the symptoms from Vibrio Cholera present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

Hours - Days
Cholera/Contaminated water, raw food, shellfish

79
Q

When does the symptoms from Vibrio vulnificus present and from what vehicle/causes what disease?

A

16 Hours
Gastroenteritis/seafood (mostly Oysters)

80
Q

What is the purpose of a veterinary feed directive?

A

Eliminate the use of antibiotics for production purposes (judicious use)

81
Q

What does a veterinary feed directive require?

A

VCPR

82
Q

What is the definition of a food borne illness outbreak?

A

2 or more persons experiencing a similar illness after ingestion of a common food or a different food in a common place

83
Q

What are the steps of a food borne illness investigation?

A
  1. Confirm existence of an outbreak or epidemic
  2. Confirm diagnosis
  3. Determine the number of cases
  4. Orient the data in terms of time, person and place
  5. Develop a hypothesis
  6. Compare the hypothesis with the established facts
  7. Execute control and preventive measurements
  8. Write a report
84
Q

What is the most often diagnosed food borne illness?

A

Salmonella

85
Q

What is the most common enteric disease?

A

Norwalk Virus

86
Q

What food borne illness has the highest infection rate?

A

Camphylobacter

87
Q

What is the attack rate in a food borne investigation?

A

The number of people at risk who are sick/Total number of people at risk x 100

88
Q

What is the Food-Specific Attack Rate?

A

Number of people who ate a certain food and are sick/Total number of people who ate that food X 100

89
Q

What is the Food - Specific Attack Rate Ratio?

A

Attack Rate of Those Who Ate a Specific Food/The Attack Rate for Those Who Didn’t

90
Q

Food Borne Investigation where 70% of the people who ate sushi got sick and 61% of the people did not, what is the Specific Attack Rate Ratio?

A

70%/61% = 1.5

Ratio of 1 = No increased risk
Ratio of > 1 = Increased risk
Ratio of < 1 = Decreased risk

91
Q

What is the cooking temperature of Whole Cuts of Meat (prevent Trichinellosis)?

A

145F (not poultry or wild game) - rest 3 minutes

92
Q

What is the cooking temperature of Ground Meat (prevent Trichinellosis)?

A

160F (not poultry or wild game) - no rest

93
Q

What is the cooking temperature of Wild Game Meat - ground and whole cuts (prevent Trichinellosis)?

A

160F

94
Q

What are the important Taenia species for human health?

A

Saginata - Beef
Solium - Pork
Asiatica - Asian Pork

95
Q

What are the conditions that can condemn an entire carcass for TB?

A
  1. Generalized lesions
  2. Fever prior and active lesion on post
  3. Associated cachexia
  4. TB lesion in muscle, IM tissue, bone , joint or abdominal organ (except GI) or LN (except GI)
  5. Extensive lesions in the thorax or abdomen cavities
  6. Lesions are multiple, acute and progressive
  7. When character of the lesions is not indicative that it is localized
96
Q

True or False: Swine with localized cysticercosis lesions pass for cooking.

A

True

97
Q

Under what TB conditions do cattle carcasses pass?

A

1) Not a reactor and no lesions - pass without restriction
2) Portions may pass or pass for cooking
3) Localized and not numerous - unaffected, pass for cooking
4) Positive reactor with no lesions - pass for cooking

98
Q

Under what TB conditions do swine carcasses pass?

A

1) No lesions or local lesions - pass without restriction
2) More spread but not diffuse - pass for cooking clear parts

99
Q

Under what TB conditions do Goat, Sheep or Equine carcasses pass?

A

1) No lesion - without restriction
2) Local lesion - cooking clear parts

100
Q

What is the standard bacterial plate count in raw milk?

A

Up to 100, 000 cells/mL

101
Q

What is the standard somatic cell count in raw milk?

A

Up to 750, 000 somatic cells/mL

102
Q

What is the total bacterial count in raw milk?

A

Total bacteria 30, 000/mL

103
Q

What is the level that the total bacteria not to exceed in Pasteurized Milk for Grade A Use?

A

less than 100,000 CFU/ml for raw and must be below 20,000 CFU/ml after pasteurization

104
Q

What is the level that the total bacteria not to exceed in comingled milk (raw and pasteurized for grade A)?

A

300, 000/mL

105
Q

What is the level of somatic cells not to exceed in milk Pasteurized for Grade A Use?

A

750, 000/mL

106
Q

What is the total bacterial count allowed in Grade A pasteurized milk?

A

20,000/mL

107
Q

What is the total coliform bacterial count allowed in Grade A pasteurized milk?

A

10/mL

108
Q

What is the Bacillus stearothermophilus zone in raw milk?

A

< 16 mm

109
Q

What level of Inhibitory substances can be in Grade A pasteurized milk?

A

NO drugs and < 10mm for inhibitory substances

110
Q

What are the characteristics of Scombrotoxin poisoning?

A
  • Poor handling and delayed chilling of fish after harvest
  • Histamine is produced through decarboxylation of histidine
  • Toxin is produced in association with Lactobacillus, clostridial and proteus species
  • Tuna and mackerel are typical
111
Q

True or False: Seafood consumption is a source of Cholera and Typhoid.

A

True

112
Q

True or False: Clostridium botulinum type E is associated with fish and fish products.

A

True

113
Q

What amount of Irradiation of Foods is required to kill spores?

A

10-50 KGy

114
Q

True or False: Increased oxygenation of foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation.

A

True

115
Q

What is the most resistant to destruction by ionizing radiation?

A

Clostridium botulinum (DRD of 1-3.3 KGy

116
Q

What is Pulse Net?

A

Pulse-field gel electrophoresis and whole genome sequencing

117
Q

What are the 3 kinds of Botulism Infections?

A
  1. Wound (also vibrio vilnificans can also infect wounds)
  2. Infant
  3. Food borne
118
Q

What agents are involved with Foodnet?

A

Campylobacter, Cyclospora, Listeria, Salmonella, Shiga toxin- producing STEC E coli 0157 and non- 0157, Shigella, Vibrio, Yersinia

119
Q

What are the 5 most common reasons for cow carcass condemnation?

A

1) Malignant lymphoma
2) Pneumonia
3) Septicemia
4) Epithelioma
5) Peritonitis

120
Q

What are the 3 most common reasons for poultry carcass condemnation?

A

1) One definitive TB lesion
2) One definitive leukosis lesion
3) 2 or more tumors (1 = trim and pass)

121
Q

PulseNet is made up of federal, regional, state, and local laboratories to identify bacteria to detect outbreaks. What laboratory methods do they use?

A

Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis and whole genome sequencing

122
Q

Name 3 organisms that can be found in raw milk.

A

Brucella, Campylobacter, Cryptosporidium, E. coli, Listeria, and Salmonella.

123
Q

There are several well-described types of epi curves. Name 2 of them.

A

point source, continuous common source, propagated source, and intermittent source.

124
Q

What are the 3 kinds of botulism infections?

A

Food, Wound, Infant

125
Q

Name 2 common foodborne pathogens that can also cause infections via open wounds.

A

Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, Vibrio vulnificans

126
Q

Eating undercooked game meat, such as boar or bear, puts a person at risk for what parasitic disease?

A

Trichinosis is a food-borne disease caused by a microscopic parasite called Trichinella. People can get this disease by eating raw or undercooked meat from animals infected with the parasite. Often these infected meats come from wild game, such as bear, or pork products.

127
Q

Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network (FoodNet) is a collaborative program between the CDC, 10 state health departments, USDA-FSIS and FDA. For what organisms does it conduct surveillance?

A

FoodNet has conducted population-based surveillance for laboratory-diagnosed infections caused by Campylobacter, Listeria, Salmonella, Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) O157, Shigella, Vibrio, and Yersinia since 1996; Cyclospora since 1997; and STEC non-O157 since 2000. FoodNet also conducted surveillance for Cryptosporidium from 1997 through 2017. FoodNet began to collect information on infections identified by culture-independent methods in 2009 for STEC and Campylobacter and in 2011 for Listeria, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Vibrio.

128
Q

What are the Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy specified risk materials for cattle 30 months and older? For all cattle, regardless of age?

A

The skull, brain, trigeminal ganglia, eyes, palatine tonsils, spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia (DRG) of cattle aged 30 months or older, as well as the distal ileum of cattle of all ages.

129
Q

Name one recent outbreak food source and organism

A

E. coli O157:H7 in mix of leafy greens: organic spinach, mizuna, kale, and chard

130
Q

Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and an antibiotic test using Bacillus stearothermophilus zone of less than _______mm.
a. 1,000,000 and 16
b. 1,000,000 and 20
c. 750,000 and 16
d. 750,000 and 20

A

c. 750,000 and 16

131
Q

Pasteurized milk products cannot exceed __________ bacteria per ml and coliforms not to exceed _____ per ml.
a. 100,000 and 100
b. 100,000 and 10
c. 20,000 and 100
d. 20,000 and 10

A

d. 20,000 and 10

132
Q

Salmonella enteritidis is usually implicated with which type of food?
a. Beef carcasses
b. Shell eggs
c. Ready to eat meat products
d. Green vegetables

A

b. Shell eggs

133
Q

Which type of Clostridium botulinum causes human botulism?
a. A, B, E, F
b. C and D
c. All of the above

A

a. A, B, E, F

134
Q

Which of the following statements concerning RB51 vaccine for brucellosis is FALSE?
a. Currently only approved in cattle
b. Can cause disease in humans if auto-inoculated
c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests
d. Not approved for use in bison

A

c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests

135
Q

The ionizing radiation not used to preserve foods is:
a. electron beams
b. X-rays.
c. gamma rays
d. beta rays

A

d. beta rays

136
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor of the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?
A. pH
B. fat particle size
C. amount and type of soluble protein
D. amount of emulsion
E. emulsion viscosity

A

D. amount of emulsion

137
Q

The microorganism most resistant to destruction by ionizing radiation is:
A. PA 3679 spores
B. Clostridium botulinum spores
C. Salmonella spp
D. Clostridium perfringens spores
E. Bacillus anthracis spores

A

B. Clostridium botulinum spores

138
Q

What brings about the completion of rigor mortis?
A. Exsanguination
B. Depletion of creatinine phosphate
C. Depletion of glycogen
D. Degradation of the z-line structure
E. Lactic acid accumulation

A

B. Depletion of creatinine phosphate

139
Q

The Codex Alimentarius is which one of the following:
a. A code of nutritional standards for domestic livestock species developed by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, World Health Organization (WHO).
b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice, guidelines, and recommendations for food.
c. A set of standards, code of practice, guidelines, and recommendations developed by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO) for food.
d. A code of human nutritional standards developed by the UN/WHO/FAO for use in developing nations.
e. A set of animal health regulations developed by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO)

A

b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice, guidelines, and recommendations for food.

140
Q

The symptoms of Bacillus cereus “diarrhea” type of illness resembles_____while the “emetic” type resembles __________.
a. Streptococcus, Staphylococcus
b. Campylobacter, Cholera
c. Staphylococcus, Yersinia
d. Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus
e. Staphylococcus, Clostridium perfringens

A

d. Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus

141
Q

According to the FDA, anasakiasis is best prevented by killing the larva. This can be accomplished by:
a. Cooking fish to a temperature of 145F
b. Freeze to –31F for 15 hours
c. Freeze to –4F for 7 days
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

142
Q

What are common bacterial organisms found in raw milk?

A

Brucella, Campylobacter, Cryptosporidium, E. coli, Listeria, and Salmonella.

143
Q

According to present day standards, the most reliable indication that a pasteurizer is operating efficiently would be to:
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
b. show that the pasteurizer reduces the total plate count of the raw milk 99.44%
c. install U.S. Bureau of Standards certified thermocouples in the pasteurizer and show that a temperature of 145°F is maintained for 30 minutes
d. show that no coliform bacteria are detectable in the pasteurized milk
e. inoculate the raw milk with the tubercle bacilli and show that they cannot be isolated from the pasteurized milk

A

a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer

144
Q

The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is: (choose all that apply)
a. Electron beam
b. Alpha rays
c. X- Rays
d. Gamma Rays
e. Beta rays

A

a. Electron beam
c. X-Rays
d. Gamma Rays

145
Q

A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing a strange tingling and numbness of the lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:

a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
b. Tetrodotoxin or saxitoxin
c. Mullet toxicosis
d. Clostridium type E toxin
e. Oyster poisoning

A

a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin

146
Q

Which of the following are considered adulterants by USDA FSIS? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Salmonella spp.
c. STEC
d. Campylobacter jejuni

A

a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Salmonella spp.
c. STEC

147
Q

True or False: Symptoms of Salmonella poisoning occur within 2-6 hours of food ingestion.

A

False
6-72 Hours

148
Q

Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and milk should be cooled to ___ deg F within ____ of milking.
a. 1,000,000, 60, 30 min
b. 1,000,000, 45, 2 hours
c. 750,000, 60, 30 min
d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours

A

d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours

149
Q

Perishable foods should not be allowed to stand at room temperature for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours

A

b. 2 hours

150
Q

Perishable foods should not be left out in warm temperatures (85 deg F or greater) for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 4 hours

A

a. 1 hour

151
Q

FDA and USDA approved irradiation for meat products. The approved and/or proposed dosage ranges for red meat and poultry for the purposes of reducing bacterial pathogens is in the dosage range of:
a. 0.005-0.03 kGy
b. 0.15-0.65 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy radurization (destroys spoilage organisms)
d. 5.5-9.0 kGy
e. 25-35 kGy

A

c. 1.5-4.5 kGy radurization (destroys spoilage organisms)

152
Q

A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing a strange tingling and numbness of the lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
b. Tetrodotoxin or saxitoxin
c. Mullet toxicosis
d. Clostridium type E toxin
e. Oyster poisoning

A

a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin

153
Q

Eggs should be stored at what temperature?
a. 50 F
b. 55 F
c. 60 F
d. 40 F
e. 45 F

A

d. 40 F

154
Q

FDA and USDA approved irradiation for meat products. The approved and/or proposed dosage ranges for red meat and poultry for the purposes of reducing bacterial pathogens is in the dosage range of:
a. 0.005-0.03 kGy
b. 0.15-0.65 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy
d. 5.5-9.0 kGy
e. 25-35 kGy

A

c. 1.5-4.5 kGy

Amy ACVPM Study (5 decks)

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