Public Health Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
What does it mean to be a category A bioterrorism agent?
A
Easy to transmit, increased mortality, major public impact, public panic and requires special action
2
Q
What are the 6 components of the National Preparedness System?
A
1) Identify and assessing risk
2) Estimating Compatibility Requirements
3) Building and Sustaining Capabilities
4) Planning to deliver capabilities
5) Validating Capabilities
6) Reviewing and Updating Capabilities (resources and plans)
3
Q
What are the APHIS operational program units?
A
- Animal Core
- Biotechnology & Regulatory Services
- International Services & Trade Support Team
- Plant Protection & Quarantine
- Veterinary Services
- Wildlife Services
4
Q
What are the APHIS management support services?
A
- Emergency & Regulatory Support Services
- Legislative & Public Affairs
- Marketing & Regulatory Programs (Business Services)
- Native American Working Group
- Policy and Program Development
5
Q
What are the APHIS Offices?
A
- Civil Rights
- Diversity & Inclusion
6
Q
List the Category A Bioterrorism Agents?
A
- Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
- Botulism (Clostridium Botulinum Toxin)
- Plaque (Yersinia pestis)
- Small Pox (Variola major)
- Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
- Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (Filovirus - Ebola, Marburg & Arenaviruses - Lassa, Machupo)
7
Q
What does it mean to be a Category B Bioterrorism Agents (Enhanced Surveillance Required)?
A
Moderate ability to transmit, moderate morbidity and mortality
8
Q
What are the Category B Bioterrorism Agents (Enhanced Surveillance Required)?
A
- Brucellosis species
- Epsilon toxin of C. perfringens
- Food Safety Threats (Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli O157:H7
- Glanders (Burkholderia mallei)
- Melioidosis (Burkholderia pseudo mallei)
- Psittacosis (Clamydia Psittaci)
- Q Fever (Coxiella burnetii)
- Ricin Toxin (Castor Beans)
- Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B
- Typhus Fever (Rickettsia prowazekii)
- Viral Encephalitis (Alphaviruses - EEE, VEE, WEE)
- Water Safety Threats (Vibrio cholera, Cryptosporidium parvum)
9
Q
What is the definition of a Bioterrorism Agent Category C?
A
Emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination. Potential for increased morbidity and mortality and major health impact (Examples: Nipah Virus - Paramyxoviridae, Henipavirus or Hantavirus - Hantaviridae - Bunyavirales)
10
Q
What does the animal welfare act regulate?
A
The treatment of animals in research (teaching and testing), exhibition, transport and dealers (pet stores)
11
Q
What species does the animal welfare act include?
A
Dog, Cat, Primate, Guinea Pig, Hamster, Rabbit, Warm blooded Animals
12
Q
What species does the animal welfare act exclude?
A
Birds, Rats, Mice (research), Horses (not used for research), Livestock
13
Q
What agency regulates Meat Products (Meat, Poultry and Egg Products)?
A
USDA - FSIS
14
Q
What agency regulates all Seafood Products?
A
FDA - Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
15
Q
Who regulates insect repellents?
A
EPA
16
Q
Who regulates Oven Cleaners?
A
Consumer Product & Safety Commission (CPSC)
17
Q
Who regulates smoke detectors?
A
CPSC
18
Q
Who regulates X-Ray Generators, Laser, MRI, Microwaves?
A
FDA
19
Q
Who regulates TV sets, over the counter antacids, human vaccines and plasma?
A
FDA
20
Q
Who regulates TV advertising for over the counter drugs?
A
FTC
21
Q
Who regulates RX drug advertising?
A
FDA
22
Q
Who regulates all drugs and human vaccines?
A
FDA
23
Q
Who regulates baby pacifiers?
A
CPSC (unless health claims)
24
Q
Who regulates foot contact articles and diagnostic tools (I.e. eye charts)?
A
FDA
25
Who regulates illegal drugs?
DEA (unless used investigational)
26
Who regulates hair dryers?
CPSC
27
Who regulates labels on alcohol?
ATF
28
Who regulates meat products (swine, cattle, sheep, goats and horses)?
USDA
29
Who regulates meat products other that swine, cattle, sheep, goats and horses?
FDA (example Rabbit)
30
Who regulates home canning equipment?
CPSC
31
Who regulates FDA product storage and FDA products produces on export?
FDA
32
Who regulates soap?
CPSC
33
Who regulates the transport of psittacine birds?
FDA
34
Who regulates pet foods?
FDA
35
Who regulates public drinking water safety?
EPA (Bottled FDA)
36
Who regulates childproofing products?
CPSC
37
Who regulates tamper-resistant objects?
FDA
38
Who regulates containers around FDA products?
FDA
39
Who regulates animal grooming products?
Not FDA
40
Who regulates animal tests/diagnostics?
USDA/CVB
41
What government departments did the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 Create?
NIOSH and OSHA
42
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 originates in what department?
Labor
43
What does the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 do?
Requires Employers to provide workers a place of employment free from recognized hazards to safety and health. These include:
1) Exposure to toxic chemicals
2) Excessive noise levels
3) Mechanical dangers
4) Heat or cold stress
5) Unsanitary conditions
44
When does FEMA respond?
1) Situations that overcome capacity of states or tribes
2) Governer's request to President
3) Joint Federal/State damage assessments (determine the extent of need)
4) Presidental declaration
45
What are the components of a VCPR?
1) Vet assumes responsibility for patient health
2) Owner/client agrees to comply
3) Vet has sufficient knowledge of animal to make a general diagnosis
4) Vet assumes responsibility for follow-up care, including adverse reactions or treatment failures
5) Vet maintains patient records
46
What is the Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD)?
FARAD is a university-based national program that serves as the primary source for scientifically-based recommendations regarding safe withdrawal intervals of drugs and chemicals in food-producing animals.
47
What are the WHO criteria for characterization and prioritization of antimicrobials important to human health?
1) Critically Important Antibiotic (sole or only therapy available)
2) Highly Important Antibiotic (treatment of infections caused by bacteria that may be transmitted to humans from non-human sources or may acquire resistance from non-human sources
3) Important Antibiotics (Evidence of transmission of resistant bacteria or resistance genes from non-humans)
48
What are the National Response Framework (NRF) lead agencies?
FEMA, DHS, HHS, EPA, USDA
49
What is emergency support function 6 and what agency is in charge of them?
Mass care, emergency assistance, housing and human services (DHS-FEMA) - Pet evacuation and sheltering
50
What is emergency support function 8 and what agency is in charge of them?
Public Health and Medical Services (HHS) - National veterinary response teams, zoonosis, food safety (DOD-FDA-MOU)
51
What is emergency support function 9 and what agency is in charge of them?
Urban search and rescue (DHS-FEMA) - Veterinary care of working dogs
52
What is emergency support function 10 and what agency is in charge of them?
Oil and Hazard Materials response (EPA) - vet care of contaminated animals, contaminated food (inspection and lab support)
53
What is emergency support function 11 and what agency is in charge of them?
Agriculture and Natural resources (USDA) - domestic animals & poultry (DOD - USDA APHIS MOU), food safety for meat, poultry and eggs (USDA - FSIS)
54
What are the steps of the Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza Response Process (USDA-FSIS)?
1) Detect (Report to Vet or USDA)
2) Quarantine (Case manager and contact neighboring farms)
3) Appraise (Flock inventory - act compensation)
4) Depopulate (24 hours of first HPAI detection)
5) Compensate (must certify biosecurity plan and then compensation for birds and clean up)
6) Manage Disposal (USDA help dispose of safely, compensating, burial, landfill, rendering, incineration)
7) Eliminate Virus (clean, disinfect)
8) Test (Keep site empty for 21 days while USDA tests environment)
9) Restock (release from quarantine)
10) Maintain biosecurity (highest standards)
55
What does the acronym ESF stand for?
Emergency Support Function
56
What does the acronym NRF stand for?
National Response Framework
57
What does the acronym ICS stand for?
Incident Command System
58
What does the acronym NIMS stand for?
National Incident Management System
59
What does the acronym FIOPS stand for?
Federal Interagency Operations Plans
60
What does the acronym FEMA stand for?
Federal Emergency Management Agency
61
What is the sequence of the Incident Response?
Incident - Local Response - Local Mutual Aid - State Response - State Declaration - National Guard - State to State Aid - Federal Assets - Federal Military Assets
62
What is the individual disaster recovery response?
1) Contact your local emergency manager (immediate needs - food & shelter)
2) Contact insurance agent to file damage claims
3) Take care of self & family first (not property)
4) Be aware of safety issues
(Countermeasures are Response, Research and Recovery)
63
What agency do the letters NIEHS represent?
National Institutes of Environmental Health and Safety
64
What are the focus areas of the World Organization of Animal Health (formerly OIE)?
1) Laboratory Expertise
2) Training and Education
3) Animal Health Management
4) Animal Production
5) Veterinary Products (Efforts to prevent resistance)
6) Wildlife Health and Biodiversity
65
What are the agencies involved in Food Net?
CDC, 10 States, USDA-FSIS, FDA
66
What are the foodborne agents involved in the Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network (Food Net)?
1) Campylobacter
2) Cryptosporidium
3) Cyclospora
4) Listeria
5) Salmonella
6) Shiga toxin - producing E. Coli (STEC) 0157 and non- 0157
7) Shigella
8) Vibrio
9) Yersinia
67
What are the acts that govern the FSIS?
1) Federal meat inspection act (FMIA) 1906
2) Agricultural Marketing Act (AMA) 1946
3) Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA)
4) Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA)
5) Humane Methods of Livestock Slaughter Act (1958)
68
Who are the Incident Command Staff?
Incident Commander (Command Staff - public information officer, safety officer, liaison officer) and General Staff (Operations section chief, planning section chief, logistics section chief, finance/administration section chief)
69
What are the 7 major FDA animal species?
Horses, Dogs, Cats, Cattle, Pigs, Turkeys and Chickens
70
What are the birds considered livestock by APHIS?
Chickens, Doves, Ducks, Geese, Guinea Fowl, Partridges, Pea Fowl, Pheasants, Pigeons, Quail, Swans, Turkeys
71
What are the FDA Recall Classes?
Class 1 - All products that could cause serious injury or death
Class 2 - Serious injury or temporary illness
Class 3 - Unlikely to injure, but violate regulations
72
What is the headquarter location of World Organization of Animal Health (OIE)?
Paris
73
What is the headquarter location of the CDC?
Atlanta
74
What is the headquarter location of the WHO?
Geneva
75
What is the headquarter location of the Food Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO)?
Rome
76
What are the FAD (Reportable Diseases) that effect multiple species?
Brucellosis melitensis
Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
Foot and Mouth Disease
Heartwater
Japanese Encephalitis
New World Screw Worm (cochliomyia hominivorax)
Old World Screw Worm (chrysomya bezziana)
Rift Valley Fever
Rinderpest
Surra (Trypanosoma evansi)
Vesicular Stomatitis
77
What are the cattle FADs?
Bovine babesiosis
BSE
Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia
Hemorrhagic Septicemia
Lumpy Skin Disease
Trypanosomiasis (Tstse - transmitted)
Theileria
78
What are the sheep and goat FADs?
Contagious Caprine Pleuropneumonia
Nairobi Sheep Disease
Peste des petits ruminants
Sheep & Goat Pox
79
What are the equine FADs?
African Horse Sickness
Contagious Equine Metritis
Dourine
Equine Piroplasmosis
Glanders
VEE
80
What are the Swine FADs?
ASF
CSF
Nipah Virus Encephalitis
Porcine Cysticercosis
Swine Vesicular Disease
Teschovirus Encephalitis
81
What are the Avian FADs?
Duck Virus Hepatitis
Fowl Typhoid
HPAI
Newcastle
Turkey Rhinotracheitis
82
What are the Lagomorph FADs?
Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease
83
What are the Fish and Mollusk FADs?
There is a voluntary list
84
What are the crustacean FADs?
Taura Syndrome
White Spot Syndrome Virus
Yellowhead
Infectious hypodermal and hematopoietic necrosis
Crayfish plaque
Infectious mononecrosis
White tail disease
Acute hepatopancreatic necrosis
85
What are the current levels of protection of PPE masks?
N95 = 95% of particles (not oil resistant)
N99 = 99% of particles (not oil resistant)
R = Somewhat oil resistant
P = Strongly oil resistant
(NIOSH regulates the respirator and FDA Surgical)
86
What does the resource conservation and recovery act (1976)?
Public law that creates a framework for the proper management of hazardous and non-hazardous solid waste (developed by the EPA). (waste management law, regulations and EPA policy & guidance)
87
What is the official TB test for captive cervids?
Single cervical test with comparative cervical test as confirmatory (bovine and avian)
88
Where is the TB surveillance area?
Michigan and Minnesota
89
What is the Brucella Surveillance Area?
Greater Yellowstone ELK and Bison
90
What is the most common adulterants in cooked/ready to eat meat and poultry products?
Listeria and Salmonella
91
What is the most common adulterant in raw ground beef and raw beef products?
STEC
92
What is the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act (FALCPA)?
Requires retail and food service establishments to include on the label if it contains any of the 8 major allergens and sesame seeds.
93
What is at the center of the wheel of public health services?
Research/Equity
94
Define Type I hypersensitivity
Immediate mediated by IgE Ab (Anaphylaxis)
95
Define Type II hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic reaction by IgG or IgM Ab (anemia, blood transfusion reactions)
96
Define Type III hypersensitivity
Reaction mediated by soluble immune complexes (lupus, drug induced illness)
97
Define Type IV hypersensitivity
Delayed reaction mediated by cellular response (contact dermatitis)
98
Define Type V hypersentivity
Ab produced with property of stimulating specific cell targets causing organ tissue dysfunction
99
Which Diseases are Reportable in the US, but not forgien?
Pseudorabies
Bovine TB
Brucella abortus and suis
CWD
EIA
EVA
Scrapie
100
What are the APHIS Category 1 Animals for Accreditation?
All animals except: food and fiber species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, all other livestock species, and zoo animals that can transmit exotic animal diseases to livestock.
101
What are the APHIS Category 2 Animals for Accreditation?
All Animals including food and fiber species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, all other livestock species, and zoo animals that can transmit exotic animal diseases to livestock.
102
What are the 6 USDA APHIS Eradication Program Diseases?
Cattle Brucellosis
Swine Brucellosis
Bovine TB
Cervid TB
Pseudorabies
Scrapie
103
Which USDA Agencies (17 total) are involved in Veterinary Public Health?
1. Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS)
2. Agricultural Research Service (ARS)
3. Animal & Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)
4. Food Safety & Inspection Service (FSIS)
5. Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS)
6. National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS)
7. National Institute of Food & Agriculture (NIFA)
Other program supported by USDA is Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD)
104
What are the agencies in the Department of Heath & Human Services (8 are US Public Health and 3 Human Service)
1. Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)
2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
3. Food & Drug Administration (FDA)
4. Indian Health Services (IHS)
5. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
105
What are the 5 roles and functions of the Environmental Protection Agency?
1. Establish and enforce regulations
2. Offer grants
3. Study issues affecting the environment
4. Teach others about the environment
5. Assist homeland security
106
What is the mission of the US Fish and Wildlife Service (US FWS)?
Conserve, protect and enhance fish, wildlife and plants as well as their habitats. All wildlife (even parts) must be declared to them.
107
What is the definition of wildlife?
Any wild animal (alive or dead). Even if born and bred in captivity (products, eggs or offspring)
108
What is the bald eagle protection act? What year was it formed?
1940. No taking bald or golden eagles, including parts.
109
What is and what year was the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (Flora or fauna) (CITES)?
Monitors and regulates global trade in many species of animals and plants (permits). Ensure commercial demand doesn't threaten survival. 1975
110
What is and what year was the endangered species act?
1973. Provides a framework to conserve and protect endangered and threatened species and their habitats both domestically and abroad (NOAA and US FWS)
111
What is and what year was the Lacey Act?
1900. Prohibits accidental or intentional introduction of exotics or potentially injurious wildlife (can get permits for zoological, educational or medical/science.
112
What is and what year was the Marine Mammal Protection Act?
1972. Prevent marine mammal species and population stocks from declining beyond the point where they ceased to be significant functioning elements of the ecosystems of which they are a part.
NOAA Fisheries is responsible for the protection of whales, dolphins, porpoises, seals, and sea lions.
U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is responsible for the protection of walrus, manatees, sea otters, and polar bears.
113
What is and what year was the Migratory Bird Treaty Act?
1918. Makes it illegal to take, possess, import, export, transport, sell, purchase, barter, or offer for sale, purchase, or barter, any migratory bird, or the parts (feathers), nests, or eggs of such a bird except under the terms of a valid federal permit. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service issues permits for otherwise prohibited activities under the act.
114
What is and what year was the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act?
1997. Provides authority, guidelines and directives for the Service to improve the National Wildlife Refuge System
115
What is and what year was the Wild Bird Conservation Act?
1992. Populations of many species of exotic wild birds have declined dramatically due to habitat loss and the public's demand for pet birds.
The Wild Bird Conservation Act (“Act”) is federal legislation enacted by Congress on October 23, 1992. It is a conservation law providing a series of measures to conserve exotic birds. Pursuant to 16 USCS § 4903, the term exotic bird means:
Any live or dead member of the class Aves that is not indigenous to the 50 States or the District of Columbia, including any egg or offspring thereof and does not include:
domestic poultry, dead sport-hunted birds, dead museum specimens, dead scientific specimens, or products manufactured from such birds
116
Who has authority over African Rodents?
CDC. No civets (SARS/COVID) and no other rodents (Monkey Pox)
117
Who has authority over animal pesticides?
EPA (FDA for levels allowed on food)
118
What are the mission areas of the WOAH office of international epizooties?
1. Transparency
2. Scientific Information
3. International Solidarity
4. Sanitary Safety
119
What is the Stafford Act?
1) The Governor can request Federal Assistance is a disaster after state and local action has been initiated.
2) Presidential Declaration -may happen without request
a. Emergency Declaration (limited and usually before an incident)
b. Major Disaster Declaration - response and recovery after
ESF 6 - makes act applicable to pets and service animals
120
What are the planning Frameworks for the National Preparedness System?
Prevention, Protection, Mitigation, Response and Recovery
121
What organisms does the National poultry improvement plan (NPIP) monitor?
avian influenza (fowl plague) and those produced by S. pullorum (pullorum disease), S. gallinarum (fowl typhoid), S. enterica var. enteritidis, Mycoplasma gallisepticum (MG, chronic respiratory disease, and infectious sinusitis in turkeys), M. synoviae (MS, infectious synovitis), and M. meleagridis (MM, day-old airsacculitis).
122
The FDA’s Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet what standards?
a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Be truthfully labeled
c. Do not contain harmful substances
d. Be safe to eat
123
What are the current VS disease eradication programs?
Cattle and Swine Brucellosis
Bovine and Cervid TB
Pseudorabies
Scrapie (Prion Diseases)
124
Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under ASSESSMENT?
Monitor Health
Investigate and Diagnose
125
Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under POLICY DEVELOPMENT?
Inform, Educate, Empower
Develop Policies
Mobilize Community Partnerships
Utilize Legal and Regulatory Actions
126
Of the 10 essential Public Health Services which are under ASSURANCE?
Build and Maintain Infrastructure
Improve and Innovate
Build a Diverse and Skilled Workforce
Enable Equitable Access
127
8. According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species?
a. Turkey
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
g. Cat
h. Horse
b. Sheep
d. Goat
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
128
Which one or more of the following is considered a foreign animal disease in the United States?
a. Aujeszky’s disease
b. Bovine babesiosis
c. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
d. Equine viral arteritis
e. Bovine viral diarrhea
f. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
B. Bovine babesiosis
C. Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia
129
The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals?
a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
b. Privately-owned cat
c. Iguana for sale at the pet store
d. Goat raised for meat
e. Mouse in a research laboratory
a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
130
Which of the following is not a branch of the USDA?
a. Foreign Agricultural Service
b. Food and Nutrition Service
c. National Institute of Food and Agriculture
d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition
d. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition
131
Which one or more of the following organisms should only be studied and worked with within the confines of a BSL-4 laboratory?
a. Nipah virus
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Marburg virus
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
f. West Nile Virus
a. Nipah
d. Marburg
e. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
132
Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?
a. Chronic Wasting Disease
b. Swine Brucellosis
c. Rabies
d. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
e. Equine Infectious Anemia
f. Avian Influenza
c. Rabies
133
Parallel testing, as opposed to serial testing, is more likely to be used when which one or
more of the following are true:
a. Optimum specificity of the testing scheme is of utmost importance, even if it comes at the cost
of decreased sensitivity.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false
positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
d. You want the fewest false positives possible, even if that means you have more false
negatives.
e. You are more concerned about unnecessarily removing a disease-free (but test positive)
animal than allowing a truly diseased animal to evade detection.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
134
Which one or more of the following are not considered to be among the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA) six criteria air pollutants?
a. Lead
b. Atmospheric ozone
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide
e. Benzene
b. Atmospheric ozone (Atmospheric ozone = good so we don’t fry, Ground level ozone = bad, one of the six criteria air pollutants)
e. Benzene
135
3. As of January 1st, 2023 which U.S. States have not had confirmed detections of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) in commercial and/or backyard domestic bird flocks?
a. Florida
b. Washington
c. Arizona
d. Iowa
e. Hawaii
e. Hawaii
(Also, WV, LA and PR
136
3. Which one or more of the following is not part of the command staff within the Incident Command System (ICS) structure:
a) Liaison officer
b) Safety officer
c) Logistics chief
d) Public information officer
e) Operations chief
c. Logistics Chief
e. Operations Chief
137
Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?
a) Food Safety Modernization Act
b) Egg Products Inspection Act
c) Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
d) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
e) Poultry Products Inspection Act
b) Egg Products Inspection Act
c) Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
e) Poultry Products Inspection Act
138
Following agencies/departments fall under the USDA EXCEPT:
a. Food and Safety Inspection Service (FSIS)
b. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)
c. Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion (CNPP)
d. Rural Housing Service (RHS)
e. Agency for Toxic Substance and Diseases Registry (ATSDR)
e. Agency for Toxic Substance and Diseases Registry (ATSDR)
139
Under the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetics Act, new animal drugs are “unsafe” when the following applies.
a. There is no approved New Animal Drug Application (NADA) on file.
b. The drug is used in a manner that does not conform to the application..
c. When labeling is inconsistent with the application.
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
140
Which one or more of the following is a Category A bioterrorism agent?
a. Lassa virus
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Nipah virus
d. Ricin toxin
e. Botulinum toxin
f. Burkholderia pseudomallei
b. Yersinia pestis
e. Botulinum toxin
141
Which disease(s) have never been reported in the United States of America?
a. African Swine Fever
b. Classical Swine Fever
c. New World Screwworm
d. Heartwater
e. Foot and Mouth Disease
a. African Swine Fever
d. Heartwater
142
Which of the following is/are not among the U.S. Animal Health Program diseases?
a) Chronic Wasting Disease
b) Swine Brucellosis
c) Rabies
d) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
e) Equine Infectious Anemia
f) Avian Influenza
c. Rabies
143
Dr. Danelle works in Mosquito City and her veterinary clinic goes through hundreds of in-house, rapid Canine Heartworm antigen test kits every spring as they test patients prior to refilling heartworm preventatives. Which agency regulates these heartworm tests?
a) FDA CVM
b) USDA AMS
c) USDA CVB
d) FDA FSAN
c) USDA CVB
144
Amblyomma americanum is a vector for which one or more pathogens:
a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
f. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
a. Francisella tularensis
b. Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)
c. Heartland virus
e. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
145
Which one or more of the following is not an APHIS operational program unit?
a. Wildlife Services
b. International Services
c. Agricultural Marketing Service
d. Plant Protection and Quarantine
e. Agricultural Research Service
f. Biotechnology Regulatory Services
c. Agricultural Marketing Service
e. Agricultural Research Service
