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recall 2022 > Forensics > Flashcards

Forensics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the duration required for a diagnosis of Voyeuristic Disorder?

A

At least 6 months

Involves recurrent and intense sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity.

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2
Q

What is the gender prevalence of Voyeuristic Disorder?

A

More common in males (3:1)

Indicates a higher incidence of disorder among males compared to females.

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3
Q

What is the minimum age for a diagnosis of Voyeuristic Disorder?

A

Over 18

Individuals must be at least 18 years old to qualify for this diagnosis.

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4
Q

Define Exhibitionistic Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from exposure of one’s genitals to an unsuspecting person

This is manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviours and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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5
Q

What is the gender prevalence of Exhibitionistic Disorder?

A

More common in males than females

Suggests a higher occurrence in males.

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6
Q

Define Frotteuristic Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person

This is manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviours and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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7
Q

What is the gender prevalence of Frotteuristic Disorder?

A

More common in males than females

Indicates a higher incidence among males.

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8
Q

Define Sexual Masochism Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or made to suffer

This is manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviours and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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9
Q

Define Sexual Sadism Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another non-consenting person

This is manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviours and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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10
Q

Define Paedophilic Disorder.

A

Recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviours involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child

The individual must be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the victim.

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11
Q

What is the age limit for the child involved in Paedophilic Disorder?

A

Generally age 13 years or younger

Indicates the focus of the individual’s sexual urges.

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12
Q

Define Fetishistic Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the use of non-living objects or a specific focus on nongenital body part(s)

This must not be limited to cross-dressing articles or devices for tactile genital stimulation and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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13
Q

Define Transvestic Disorder.

A

Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from crossdressing

This is not the same as gender dysphoria and has no minimum age for diagnosis.

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14
Q

What distinguishes Transvestic Disorder from gender dysphoria?

A

No reported incongruence between experienced gender and assigned gender

Indicates that individuals with transvestic disorder do not experience gender dysphoria.

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15
Q

What is Other Specified Paraphilic Disorder used for?

A

Presentations of paraphilic disorder that do not fit into any other categories

Examples include zoophilia, scatologia, partialism, acrotomophilia, necrophilia, coprophilia, and klismaphilia.

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16
Q

Define Unspecified Paraphilic Disorder.

A

Captures paraphilic behaviours where there is clinical distress but does not meet full criteria

This allows for recognition of distressing behaviours that do not fit into specific categories.

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17
Q
A
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18
Q

What does HCR-20 stand for?

A

Historical-Clinical-Risk Management-20

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19
Q

How many items are included in the HCR-20?

A

20 items

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20
Q

What are the categories of variables included in the HCR-20?

A

10 historical variables, 5 clinical variables, 5 risk management factors

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21
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Risk of Sexual Violence Protocol (RSVP)?

A

Assessing risk of sexual violence

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22
Q

What type of assessment tool is the Spousal Assault Risk Assessment Guide (SARA)?

A

Structured Professional Judgment

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23
Q

How many items does the SARA consist of?

A

20 items

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24
Q

What is the focus of the Stalking Assessment and Management (SAM)?

A

Assessing risk of stalking behaviors

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25
What does SVR-20 stand for?
Sexual Violence Risk-20
26
What is the purpose of the SVR-20?
Characterizing an individual's risk of committing sexual violence
27
What does the Risk Matrix 2000 (RM2000) consist of?
3 scales: prediction scale for sexual offending, non-sexual violence by sex offenders, and a combination scale
28
What is the Static-99 used for?
Actuarial assessment of adult male sexual offenders
29
How many items are included in the Static-99?
10 items
30
What two previous assessment tools were combined to form the Static-99?
RRASOR and the Structured Anchored Clinical Judgment (SACJ- Min)
31
What does the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG) predict?
Risk of violence within a specific time frame following release
32
How many items are in the VRAG?
12 items
33
Which score is incorporated into the VRAG calculations of risk?
Hare PCL-R score
34
What is the purpose of the Sex Offender Risk Appraisal Guide (SORAG)?
Assessing risk of violent and sexual recidivism of previously convicted sex offenders
35
How many items are included in the SORAG?
14 items
36
What is the Hare's Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) primarily used for?
Assessing likely future recidivism and violent offending
37
How many items does the PCL-R contain?
20 items
38
What type of information is used to score the PCL-R?
Semi-structured interview and collateral information
39
What does RRASOR stand for?
Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism
40
How many items does the RRASOR have?
4 items
41
What are the items assessed by the RRASOR?
* Prior sexual arrests * Age * Ever targeted male victims * Whether any victims unrelated to the offender
42
43
What is a risk factor for the homicide of infants older than a day?
Younger infants more at risk ## Footnote Infants who are younger are statistically more vulnerable to homicide.
44
Which gender is more at risk for homicide among infants?
Boys more at risk than girls ## Footnote Gender differences indicate that male infants face higher risks.
45
What family-related factor increases the risk of infant homicide?
Family history of violence ## Footnote A background of violence in the family can contribute to higher risks.
46
What relationship factor can be a risk for infant homicide?
Violence in current relationships of perpetrator ## Footnote Ongoing violence in the perpetrator's relationships is a significant risk factor.
47
What past experiences can indicate a higher risk of infant homicide?
Evidence of past abuse or neglect of children ## Footnote Previous abuse or neglect can signal increased risk for future violence.
48
What mental health issues are associated with increased risk for infant homicide?
Personality disorder and/or depression ## Footnote Mental health conditions can be significant contributing factors to risk.
49
50
What is the PDQ-R?
The Personality Diagnostic Questionnaire-Revised (PDQ-R) is a self-reported screening tool for personality disorders.
51
How many questions does the PDQ-R contain?
100 true or false questions.
52
What criteria is the PDQ-R based on?
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV) criteria.
53
Which personality disorders does the PDQ-R cover?
All twelve DSM-IV personality disorders, including passive-aggressive and depressive personality disorders.
54
What is the SAPAS?
The Standardised Assessment of Personality - Abbreviated Scale, an eight-item screening questionnaire for personality disorder.
55
How is the SAPAS different from the PDQ-R?
It doesn't contain 100 questions and isn't specifically based on DSM-IV criteria.
56
What is the purpose of the SAPAS?
Designed to be brief and simple to administer.
57
What is the IPDE?
The International Personality Disorder Examination, a semi-structured clinical interview for assessing personality disorders.
58
Is the IPDE a self-report measure?
No, it is not a self-report measure.
59
What criteria does the IPDE assess?
Based on both ICD-10 and DSM-IV criteria.
60
What is the IIP-PD?
The Inventory of Interpersonal Problems - Personality Disorders.
61
Does the IIP-PD directly screen for personality disorders?
No, it measures interpersonal difficulties related to personality disorders.
62
What is the FFMRF?
The Five-Factor Model Rating Form, which rates individuals on five broad domains of personality.
63
What are the five broad domains of personality assessed by the FFMRF?
* Neuroticism * Extraversion * Openness to Experience * Agreeableness * Conscientiousness
64
Is the FFMRF a self-report screening tool for personality disorders?
No, it is not a self-report screening tool based on DSM-IV criteria.
65
What does the FFMRF provide information about?
It provides detailed information about an individual's personality traits.
66
Prichard Criteria
Must be able to instruct his solicitor and counsel Must understand the charge(s) Must be able to decide whether to plead guilty or not Must be able to follow court proceedings enough to make a proper defence Must know they can challenge a juror Must be able to give evidence in his or her own defence
67
68
What is insane automatism?
The act occurred due to a disease of the mind (e.g., epilepsy, brain injury) ## Footnote This aligns with the insanity defence under the McNaughten Rules and may result in a special verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity.
69
What can trigger a defence of insane automatism?
An underlying infirmity triggered by external stimuli ## Footnote For example, if the accused has diabetes, the type of automatism will depend on the internal or external stimuli.
70
What is hypoglycaemia and how is it classified?
Low blood sugar caused by excessive insulin intake, classified as 'sane automatism' ## Footnote It is considered sane automatism because it results from external stimuli.
71
What is hyperglycaemia and how is it classified?
High blood sugar caused by excessive levels of sugar in the blood, classified as 'insane automatism' ## Footnote It is considered insane automatism because it is caused by the body’s internal processes or underlying infirmity.
72
What is sane automatism?
The act occurred due to an external cause (e.g., head injury) ## Footnote This is a complete defence leading to an acquittal.
73
What is the key characteristic of sane automatism?
No underlying mental illness or long-term condition affecting the individual’s state of mind ## Footnote The individual may not be aware of their actions but does not have an underlying mental health issue.
74
What is somnambulism and how is it classified?
A temporary dissociative state occurring during non-REM sleep, classified as 'sane automatism' ## Footnote Sleepwalking episodes are usually short-lived and don't indicate any ongoing psychiatric disorder.
75
True or False: Insane automatism can result in a special verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity.
True
76
Fill in the blank: Hypoglycaemia is caused by excessive _______ intake.
insulin
77
Fill in the blank: Somnambulism is viewed as a temporary _______ state.
dissociative
78
The Gillick test refers to issues of consent in people under the age of 16.
79
80
The Bolam test concerns cases of medical negligence.
81
82
The Pritchard criteria refer to fitness to plead.
83
84
The Edwards and Gross criteria concern alcohol dependence.

recall 2022 (14 decks)

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