sept 2022 recall Flashcards
(339 cards)
1
Q
What causes Tc prolongation?
A
Hypocalcaemia causes Tc prolongation.
2
Q
What were the other options?
A
Other options were hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, etc.
3
Q
What is the correct answer?
A
Hypocalcaemia is the correct answer.
4
Q
What is one risk factor for long QTc?
A
Congenital long Q-T syndrome is a risk factor.
5
Q
Is being female a risk for prolonged QTc?
A
Female gender is a risk factor.
6
Q
Are extremes of age a risk for prolonged QTc?
A
Extremes of age are a risk factor.
7
Q
How do electrolytes affect QTc?
A
Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia are risks.
8
Q
Can liver disease cause prolonged QTc?
A
Liver disease is a risk factor.
9
Q
Does illicit drug use cause prolonged QTc?
A
Illicit stimulants are a risk factor.
10
Q
Do high drug dosages lengthen the Q-T?
A
High dosages can cause a lengthened Q-T interval.
11
Q
How does exertion affect QTc?
A
High physical exertion/agitation is a risk.
12
Q
Can rapid drug infusion cause prolonged QTc?
A
Rapid infusion of teratogenic drugs is a risk.
13
Q
What does a jittery, crying baby suggest?
A
Maternal heroin or cocaine use is suggested.
14
Q
What was Sarah’s newborn’s presentation?
A
Irritable, restless, tremulous, inconsolable crying.
15
Q
Which substance did the mother most likely use?
A
Heroin is the most likely substance.
16
Q
When does heroin withdrawal present in newborns?
A
Within 24 hours of birth with short-acting opioids.
17
Q
What are signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns?
A
Excessive crying, tremors, increased muscle tone/reflexes.
18
Q
Are withdrawal presentations seen with other drugs?
A
Similar presentations are seen with other drugs.
19
Q
Is alcohol/cannabis withdrawal frequent in newborns?
A
Withdrawal is less frequent with alcohol/cannabis.
20
Q
What are symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome?
A
Microcephaly, growth retardation, and low weight are symptoms.
21
Q
What was the baby’s weight?
A
The baby’s weight was 2kg.
22
Q
What risk is associated with valproate?
A
Increased risk of congenital and major malformations.
23
Q
How many exposed children have malformations?
A
Up to 11% of exposed children have malformations.
24
Q
Name some valproate-related malformations.
A
Cleft lip/palate, neural tube, heart, and radial defects are examples.
25
Does valproate impact development?
Valproate causes developmental delay.
26
How does valproate affect speech?
Difficulty with speech/language.
27
What cognitive issue can valproate cause?
Lower intellectual ability is a risk.
28
What behavioral issue is linked to valproate?
Autism risk increases with valproate use.
29
What are clinical features of FASD?
Microcephaly, abnormal features, growth deficits, and intellectual issues are features.
30
Does FASD cause behavioral problems?
Hyperactivity and sleep problems are behavioral problems.
31
What neonatal syndrome does stimulant use cause?
Neonatal withdrawal syndrome is associated with stimulant use.
32
What are symptoms of stimulant withdrawal?
Agitation, vomiting, and tachypnoea are symptoms.
33
What is the safest antidepressant for breastfeeding?
Sertraline is the safest antidepressant.
34
What was the other option in the question?
Escitalopram was another option.
35
Is lithium okay during breastfeeding?
Lithium is contraindicated during breastfeeding.
36
What should be monitored in infants with lithium exposure?
Serum concentration and blood count.
37
How much maternal lithium is in breast milk?
40-50% of maternal serum level.
38
What is the infant's serum range?
Infant serum level is 5%-200% of maternal level.
39
Why is serum lithium high in newborns?
Diminished renal clearance raises it.
40
Are SSRIs and tricyclics generally safe?
Yes, generally safe except doxepin.
41
Which SSRI has a lower milk/plasma ratio?
Paroxetine has a lower milk/plasma ratio.
42
Was fluoxetine detected in infants?
No, not detected in infant plasma.
43
What are the preferred tricyclic antidepressants?
Amitriptyline and Imipramine are preferred.
44
Do clomipramine and nortriptyline have infant effects?
No adverse effects in infants reported.
45
Is maternal/milk concentration the same with tricyclics?
Yes, maternal plasma/breast milk is the same.
46
What can doxepin metabolite cause?
N-desmethyldoxepine may cause severe drowsiness and respiratory depression.
47
What mood stabilizer should be avoided when breastfeeding?
Lithium should be avoided.
48
What is an SSRI that is best avoided in nursing mothers?
Paroxetine is best avoided.
49
What older antidepressant could be used if insisted?
Amitriptyline could be used.
50
Which is more common, bulimia or anorexia?
Bulimia is more common than anorexia.
51
Is the prevalence of anorexia & bulimia equal?
No, prevalence is not equal.
52
How does prevalence vary in developed countries?
There is increased variation.
53
Is eating disorder diagnosis stable?
No, stability of diagnosis is poor.
54
What is the prevalence of bulimia?
Bulimia prevalence is around 2%.
55
What is the prevalence of anorexia?
Anorexia prevalence is around 0.5% to 1%.
56
Is anorexia more common in lower social classes?
No, anorexia is not excessively represented in lower classes.
57
Which eating disorder generally starts later?
Bulimia generally starts later than anorexia.
58
What was once the belief about anorexia and class?
Once thought more common in higher classes.
59
Can anorexia affect all social classes?
Yes, it can affect all social classes.
60
What might explain the rise in low/middle-income countries?
Cultural traditions associated with industrialization and urbanization.
61
What might trigger eating disorders in susceptible people?
Strict dieting and exercise with Western influence.
62
What validates a test using a prior validated measure?
Concurrent validity validates the test.
63
What assesses consistency between raters?
Inter-rater reliability assesses consistency.
64
What is good test re-test reliability?
Signifies internal validity/stable measurements over time.
65
What does concurrent validity measure?
How well a test correlates with an already validated one.
66
What is predictive validity?
Testing subjects and comparing results in the future.
67
What does construct validity measure?
Measures if a scale/test measures the construct.
68
Is F2 feedback lining up with F1 predictive validity?
Yes, predictive validity.
69
What type of reliability did the F1 feedback have?
Inter-rater reliability.
70
How do radiologists' findings demonstrate reliability?
Inter-rater reliability.
71
How is a new depression questionnaire assessed?
Concurrent validity.
72
What treats alcohol withdrawal with liver failure?
Oxazepam is used.
73
Why was John admitted to the hospital?
Confusion and decompensated liver disease.
74
What was John's main diagnosis?
Cirrhosis and alcohol dependence.
75
What is the usual first choice medication for alcohol withdrawal?
Chlordiazepoxide is the usual first choice.
76
When do you use lorazepam or oxazepam?
Patients with cirrhosis or advanced liver disease.
77
Why do you use lorazepam in liver disease?
Shorter half-life and availability IM.
78
Why is oxazepam preferred in this setting?
No active metabolites, shorter half-life.
79
When is disulfiram appropriate?
Not appropriate in acute withdrawal.
80
What is best to prevent delirium tremens with hepatic insufficiency?
Oxazepam is the best choice.
81
Why use oxazepam with hepatic insufficiency?
Only undergoes phase 2 metabolism.
82
What is the preferred drug for detoxification in COPD and liver disease?
Oxazepam is the preferred drug.
83
Why are shorter benzos favored?
Avoid over-sedation with liver disease and COPD.
84
What are the risks with shorter-acting benzos?
Greater risk of breakthrough seizures and misuse.
85
Which drug acts on both GABA-A and NMDA receptors?
Ketamine acts on both receptors.
86
What type of antagonist is ketamine?
NMDA antagonist is the correct answer.
87
What does ketamine do with glutamate?
It has effects on glutamate.
88
What does ketamine bind to on NMDA receptors?
Binds to the PCP site of the NMDA receptor.
89
What does ketamine cause downstream?
Downstream glutamate release and consequent stimulation of other receptors.
90
What is ketamine approved as?
An anesthetic, and also used in treatment-resistant depression.
91
What psychotic effects can ketamine have?
Can cause psychosis similar to schizophrenia.
92
What is a main defense in Borderline according to ICD?
Idealization/devaluation is the main defense.
93
What does Klein's depressive position relate to?
Learning to cope with ambivalence.
94
What are the main defenses in early life?
Projection and introjection are the main defenses.
95
What is persecutory anxiety?
Fear of attack from the 'bad mother'.
96
What is the paranoid schizoid position?
Splitting all aspects into good and bad elements.
97
What concerns arise as views are integrated?
Concern about harming or destroying the mother.
98
How is the mother viewed in the depressive position?
Ambivalently as having both positive and negative aspects.
99
What is an Alzheimer’s finding on CT?
Hippocampal atrophy is an Alzheimer’s finding.
100
What is a must for causation according to Susser?
Time order is an essential criterion.
101
What is an essential criterion according to Susser?
Direction is an essential criterion.
102
What are the three essential elements?
Association, Time order, and Direction.
103
What can explain the direct attribution between A and B?
Confounders.
104
What are the five additional elements?
Strength, specificity, consistency, predictive performance, and coherence.
105
What are the ECG changes with Clozapine-induced tachycardia & high troponin?
Saddle-type elevations, T inversion.
106
What are the ECG findings in anorexia with diuretics/laxative abuse?
ST segment depression with U waves from hypokalaemia.
107
What’s the ECG finding with donepezil increased to 10mg and hypotension?
Sinus bradycardia.
108
What favors schizophrenia over autism?
Near-normal development.
109
What has been added as a modifier to ASD in DSM-5?
Catatonia.
110
What is likely in the first case?
This person is likely presenting with Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
111
What is likely in the second case?
The young man may have Autism.
112
What is likely in the third case?
The third case may be presenting with mania.
113
Who are the victims of female homicide with psychosis?
Victims are mostly age <16.
114
What percent of perpetrators of child homicide with mental illness have a psychotic disorder?
50% of perpetrators have a psychotic disorder.
115
Who is more likely to kill their children?
Fathers are significantly more likely to kill their children than mothers.
116
What do you call it when a parent kills a child and commits suicide?
Filicide-suicide.
117
What age group is associated with the highest risk of female homicide?
30-39.
118
What kind of cost is sick leave?
Sick leave is an indirect cost.
119
What is considered as an indirect cost?
Cost of sick absence.
120
What are indirect costs?
Costs due to loss of productivity.
121
What kind of cost is the cost of a drug?
Direct cost.
122
What kind of cost is a reader in PCR?
Direct cost.
123
What kind of costs are pain and stigma?
Pain and stigma are intangible costs.
124
What kind of costs are pain and stigma?
Intangible costs.
125
What are key features of Pick's Disease?
No insight, decline in cognitive functions.
126
What dysphasia is associated with FTD?
Primary motor dysphasia.
127
How do you calculate positive likelihood ratio?
Sensitivity / (1 - specificity).
128
How do you calculate negative likelihood ratio?
(1 - sensitivity) / specificity.
129
What is the positive likelihood ratio answer in this context?
Answer is 4.
130
What visual tool assists in planning activities for autistic children?
Now and then cards.
131
What is intensive interaction based on?
'Body-language' based approach.
132
What is the purpose of Now and Next cards?
To display planned activities in symbols.
133
What does Positive behavioral support do?
Develop understanding of challenging behavior.
134
What should be used when a mother visiting agitates a patient?
Social stories should be used.
135
What do social stories help understand?
Helps understand situations that are personal to them.
136
What do social stories often include?
The child is included in the narrative.
137
How to imitate a child with body signs?
Intensive interaction techniques.
138
Which gene is involved in early Alzheimer's in Down Syndrome?
Amyloid is involved.
139
What risk is increased in DS for developing Alzheimer’s?
Increased family history.
140
What age do most develop Alzheimer’s pathology?
Almost all adults by the age of 40.
141
How long before cognitive impairment does pathology develop?
Approximately 15-20 years before cognitive decline.
142
What gene dosage is necessary in trisomy 21?
An increased dosage of APP (amyloid precursor protein).
143
What else increases the risk of early decline?
APOE E4 allele.
144
What should be used in the first trimester mixed state?
Quetiapine.
145
What should be considered with long periods without relapse?
Switching to a safer drug/withdrawing treatment.
146
Is any mood stabilizer clearly safe?
No mood stabilizer is clearly safe.
147
What is recommended instead of a mood stabilizer?
Mood-stabilizing antipsychotics.
148
What else can be considered in pregnancy?
ECT can be considered in pregnancy.
149
Why is quetiapine considered safer?
Has a relatively low rate of crossing the placenta.
150
What antipsychotics are safe in breastfeeding?
Olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone.
151
What should be done first with TD on flupentixol/procyclidine?
Lower procyclidine.
152
Which electrolyte disturbance is most worrying in anorexia?
Potassium is the most worrying electrolyte.
153
What are endocrine changes in anorexia?
Low LH, FSH, oestradiol, T3, and low normal T4.
154
What endocrine change is there with cortisol?
Mild increase in plasma cortisol.
155
What endocrine change is there with growth hormone?
Raised growth hormone concentrations.
156
What type of imbalance occurs with vomiting?
Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia.
157
What type of imbalance occurs with laxative misuse?
Metabolic acidosis, hyponatremia, hypokalemia.
158
What happens when there is poor renal blood flow?
Base deficit and acidosis develop rapidly.
159
When does refeeding syndrome usually occur?
Usually within 4 days of starting feeding.
160
What electrolyte disorder is seen in refeeding syndrome?
Hypophosphatemia.
161
What causes refeeding syndrome effects?
Sudden shift from fat to carb metabolism.
162
Which antidepressant is used for 8-year-olds?
Fluoxetine.
163
Does lithium increase the risk of cognitive impairment following ECT?
Yes, lithium increases the risk.
164
Is cognitive impairment more common in males following ECT?
No, not more common in males.
165
Does unilateral ECT cause more cognitive impairment?
No, not more cognitive impairment.
166
What does the Royal College of Psychiatrists note about ECT?
Cognitive effects limit the wider use of ECT.
167
Which ECT is more effective but causes more impairment?
Bilateral ECT is more effective but causes more impairment.
168
How does right unilateral electrode placement help?
May minimize episodic and autobiographical memory deficits.
169
What effect does higher dose unilateral ECT have?
Greater efficacy, increased cognitive impairment.
170
Does continuation ECT have adverse memory outcomes?
No adverse memory outcomes.
171
What is the risk of ECT with lithium?
12-fold higher odds of delirium than ECT alone.
172
What element is used in motivational interviewing?
Cognitive dissonance amplification.
173
What are the key elements of motivational interviewing (DEARS)?
* Developing discrepancy
* Empathy
* Avoid arguments
* Rolling with resistance
* Supporting self-efficacy
174
What might short stature, freckles, and Lisch nodules indicate?
Neurofibromatosis.
175
Which antipsychotic is suitable for eGFR <25?
Olanzapine.
176
Which antipsychotics should be avoided in renal impairment?
* Sulpiride
* Amisulpride
177
Which agents should be avoided due to anticholinergic effects?
Highly anticholinergic agents like clozapine and chlorpromazine.
178
What are recommended choices in renal impairment?
* Haloperidol
* Olanzapine
179
What is the mood stabilizer of choice in hepatic impairment?
Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice.
180
What is the second choice for a mood stabilizer in hepatic impairment?
Gabapentin.
181
What mood stabilizers are contraindicated in severe liver disease?
* Sodium valproate
* Lamotrigine
182
What type of benzodiazepines to use in liver disease?
Short-acting benzos like lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam.
183
What is the most common early onset dementia?
Alzheimer’s.
184
What is the second most common degenerative disease before 64?
Vascular dementia.
185
What dementia scale is used for non-English speakers?
RUDAS is used.
186
Why calculate odds instead of RR in case control studies?
No new cases.
187
What treats visual hallucinations in Parkinson's?
Rivastigmine.
188
What should be used for psychotic symptoms in Parkinson's?
Quetiapine/Clozapine.
189
What should be used for psychotic symptoms with cognitive impairment in Parkinson's?
Rivastigmine.
190
What defects are seen with maternal valproate?
* Cleft palate
* Cardiac
* Developmental delay
191
What is the strongest factor in repeat sexual offending?
Sexual deviancy and antisocial traits.
192
What is the most strongly associated with recidivism?
Deviant sexual interests.
193
What other factor is a strong predictor of recidivism?
Antisocial orientation/lifestyle instability.
194
Is lack of empathy for the victim a strong predictor of reoffending?
No, lack of empathy for one's victims is not strongly associated with recidivism.
195
What is most likely in offenders who demonstrate lack of guilt with sexual deviance?
Most likely to sexually reoffend.
196
What do offenders who sexually assault strangers show?
Show more general criminal behavior.
197
Which is most likely to cause physical dependence, alprazolam or methamphetamine?
Alprazolam.
198
What’s the most likely newborn effect of paroxetine?
Irritability.
199
What are mild discontinuation symptoms?
* Agitation
* Irritability
200
Which drugs have a high risk of discontinuation?
* Paroxetine
* Venlafaxine
201
What are the specific cardiac malformations seen with paroxetine?
Particularly after high-dose, first-trimester exposure.
202
Which SSRI may increase the risk of pulmonary hypertension?
SSRIs may increase the risk of pulmonary hypertension.
203
Which SSRI should be considered in pregnant women with depression?
Sertraline (least placental exposure).
204
What can be used when Aripiprazole didn't work in a diabetic retinopathy patient?
Amisulpride.
205
What can be caused by Citalopram and diphenhydramine?
QTc prolongation.
206
When do uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal symptoms begin?
Starts in 4-12 hours after the last drink.
207
When do mild alcohol symptoms usually begin?
Within 3-12 hours of the last drink.
208
When do symptoms peak?
At 24-48 hours.
209
How long may symptoms last?
Up to 14 days.
210
When do seizures usually start?
Within 12-18 hours of the last drink.
211
When does delirium tremens usually start?
3-4 days after the last drink.
212
What is the mortality rate if untreated?
10-20% if untreated.
213
What is the cut-off age of ADHD in ICD-11/DSM-5?
12.
214
What is the first line for dementia with hallucinations?
Risperidone.
215
What is the first option in dementia with challenging behavior?
Behavioral management.
216
When is Risperidone used in this setting?
After memantine.
217
What improvement is Rivastigmine associated with?
Moderate improvement in dementia with Parkinson's Disease.
218
What is an unwanted effect of Rivastigmine?
Nausea, tremor.
219
When is Memantine used?
When there are side effects with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
220
What is the issue when a patient hears a sound but doesn't understand it?
Subcortical sensory dysphasia.
221
What type of speech is jargon dysphasia?
Fluent with no syntax or grammar.
222
What's the dysphasia when you can't repeat but understand everything?
Conduction aphasia.
223
What is a strength of the meta-analysis on Agomelatine?
Includes unpublished studies.
224
What is said about Agomelatine's effectiveness?
Likely an effective antidepressant.
225
What literature sources can be used for agomelatine meta-analysis?
* Psychinfo
* Google Scholar
* Medline
226
Which database is used for observational healthcare studies?
MEDLINE.
227
What does PsychINFO deal with?
Psychology.
228
What does CINAHL cover?
Nursing and allied mental health.
229
What does CENTRAL have?
Articles from a wide range of sources, controlled trials.
230
Where is occupational therapist practice data?
CINAHL.
231
Where are guidelines on adolescent depression?
NICE.
232
Where would you find information on treatment of cardiac failure?
Cochrane reviews.
233
Where would you find the psychoanalytical viewpoint in the 1870s?
PsycINFO.
234
Where can a recent drug trial be located?
PubMed.
235
Where can you find information on novel language development research?
SIGLE.
236
What in a forest plot represents the largest effect size?
Biggest square.
237
How many studies favor clozapine over conventional?
4.
238
How many studies show statistically significant benefit of conventional antipsychotics over clozapine?
0.
239
What is the first step with acute confusion, normal CT/Bloods, no fever?
Urine drug screen.
240
What is the likely diagnosis with fever, confusion, memory impairment?
Herpes simplex encephalitis.
241
What are CSF findings in HSE?
* Raised white cells
* Increased protein
* Normal glucose
242
What type of graph is being described?
Scatter plot.
243
What does an R of 0.7 indicate on a scatter plot?
Strong positive correlation.
244
What test is used on a scatter plot?
Pearson's.
245
What association does one forest plot indicate between age and disorders?
Older-aged patients have more disorders.
246
What findings in HSE indicate?
Raised white cells, increased protein, normal glucose
247
What type of graph is being described?
Scatter plot
248
What does an R of 0.7 indicate on a scatter plot?
Strong positive correlation
249
What test is used on a scatter plot?
Pearson's
250
What association does one forest plot indicate between age and disorders?
Older-aged patients have more mental health disorders
251
Which relatives are more likely to have a creative profession?
Parents
252
What substance acts as a full agonist, causing paranoia?
Synthetic cannabinoid
253
What receptors are associated with anandamide?
Cannabis
254
What is the endogenous agonist at the cannabinoid receptor?
Anandamide
255
How is cannabis usage?
From infrequent to heavy daily usage
256
How many psychoactive cannabinoids are there?
At least 60
257
What is the most important cannabinoid?
THC
258
What are the two types of cannabinoid receptors?
* Central (CB1) * Peripheral (CB2)
259
What does anandamide do?
Lowers pressure, decreases activity, relieves pain
260
How are patients grouped by ages 35-50, 50-60?
Ordinal data is used for age groups
261
What type of data is risk assessment (done or not)?
Dichotomous data is used for risk assessment
262
What type of data are unordered categories, like birthplace?
Nominal data has unordered categories
263
What data has ordered categories, like heart failure classes?
Ordinal data has ordered categories
264
What type of data is limited to whole numbers, like asthma attacks?
Discrete data has limited whole number values
265
What data can take any value within a range, like weight?
Continuous data can take any value within a range
266
What data has two values, such as gender?
Binomial data has two possible values
267
What type of measurement has meaningful differences between values (e.g., temperature)?
Interval measurement has meaningful differences
268
What measurement has meaningful ratios and a non-arbitrary zero (e.g., weight)?
Ratio measurement has meaningful ratios
269
What test compares categorical data (ECT, stroke presence)?
Chi-square is used for categorical data comparison
270
When using a t-test, if data is less than 5, what test can be used?
Fisher's test may be used
271
What distribution has values equally dispersed around the mean?
Parametric distributions have values dispersed equally around the mean
272
What distribution has skewed data?
Non-parametric data is skewed
273
What is the square root of the variance?
Standard deviation is the square root of variance
274
What measures how close the sample mean is to the population mean?
Standard error of the mean measures sample mean proximity
275
What is needed to ensure equal sizes for study groups?
Block randomization ensures equal study group sizes
276
What is a researcher doing when dividing groups by age?
Stratification divides groups based on age
277
What is placing the next patient in the smaller group?
Minimization places the next patient in the smaller group
278
What correlation coefficient indicates a strong correlation?
An r-value of -1 indicates a strong correlation
279
What statistical approach includes all patients, even dropouts, in an RCT analysis?
ITT (Intention-to-Treat) includes all patients
280
What medication should be given to a patient who is hypotensive and bradycardic?
Naloxone should be administered
281
What is dangerous driving most commonly linked to?
Dementia is most common with dangerous driving
282
What diagnosis is linked to dangerous driving as stated by the DVLA?
Vascular dementia is linked to dangerous driving
283
What offense is common in people with intellectual disabilities?
Sexual offenses are common in intellectual disability
284
What crime is least associated with Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
Shoplifting is rarely associated with OCD
285
What crime is most common in those with drug dependence, per NTORS?
Shoplifting is the most common crime with drug dependence
286
What syndrome features a very noisy child, severe LD, and hypertelorism?
Cri du chat syndrome features these symptoms
287
What gene is associated with Rett syndrome?
MECP2 gene is linked with Rett syndrome
288
What test doesn't require a normal distribution?
Mann-Whitney U test doesn't need normal distribution
289
What DBT pre-treatment stage addresses self-harm?
Pre-treatment stage addresses therapeutic commitment
290
What drug lowers ECT dose?
Clozapine may lower ECT dose
291
What is the suicide risk one year post self-harm?
Suicide risk is 1/100 one year after self-harm
292
What comorbidity is most common in children with OCD?
Depression is the most common comorbidity in OCD
293
What is the most common comorbidity with GAD?
Major depressive disorder is often comorbid with GAD
294
What comorbidity is common in children?
Depression is a common comorbid condition in children
295
What’s the most common comorbidity of OCD in adults?
Major depression is the most common comorbidity with OCD in adults
296
What is diagnostic overshadowing in LD?
Attributing mental health issues to existing LD is diagnostic overshadowing
297
What intoxicant is linked with laughing, giggling, relaxed mood?
Cannabis often causes these symptoms
298
What drug causes increased energy and decreased sleep?
Cocaine is a short-acting full agonist
299
What to do for relapsed depression after olanzapine stopped?
Restart olanzapine
300
What is a patient on Selegiline with dementia most likely to have?
Likely Parkinson’s dementia from selegiline use
301
Patient with memory loss, high BP, infarcts on MRI indicates?
Binswanger's disease is indicated
302
What important thing is missing after re-audit?
Implementation of change is missing
303
Man with speech/gait issues, nystagmus, family history of MI death likely has?
Friedreich's ataxia is likely
304
What is the most common number in a data set?
The mode is the most frequent number
305
Infanticide is most common in which mental health condition?
Psychosis is most common
306
What to use to avoid bias in a case-control study?
Case-control studies can explore multiple risk factors
307
What study uses money incentives to encourage medication compliance?
A randomized controlled trial (RCT)
308
What randomization method is used for GP surgeries?
Cluster randomization
309
What is a research study of prevalence at a specific point?
A cross-sectional study
310
Anorexia diagnosis in children; what's first-line treatment?
Family therapy is first-line treatment
311
What cognitive distortion is represented by 'I knew he had bad intentions'?
Mind reading is the cognitive distortion
312
What cognitive distortion is represented by 'He only said it because he corrected the slide'?
Discounting the positives/Selective abstraction is the distortion
313
What cognitive distortion is represented by 'I had a nice meal so I will be obese'?
Overgeneralizing is the distortion
314
What cognitive distortion is represented by 'An A doesn’t mean I’m intelligent'?
Minimization is the cognitive distortion
315
When differentiating MCI and dementia, what is useful to assess?
Collateral info on daily functioning is useful
316
What is most likely to occur after a traumatic brain injury?
Depression is most common after a traumatic brain injury
317
What is a risk factor for Autism?
A low APGAR score is a risk factor for autism
318
What does a negative test not having a disease indicate?
Negative Predictive Value
319
What is a suitable treatment for mild depression in children?
Digital CBT
320
What is necessary for testamentary capacity?
Knowing property value is needed for testamentary capacity
321
Parkinson's patient has low mood, what's the first step?
Blood tests to rule out organic cause
322
What is a risk factor for body dysmorphic disorder?
Risk of self-harm and suicide
323
What is a major risk factor for ADHD in children?
Maternal smoking
324
Which is the strongest risk factor for autism?
Genetic loading
325
What tools assess study quality in systematic reviews?
CASP tools assess the quality of studies
326
What does interpersonal therapy focus on in depression?
Interpersonal therapy focuses on grief and loss
327
Which is most common in autism, comorbid social anxiety?
More severe ASD is associated with more anxiety
328
What indicates factitious disorder?
Good knowledge of disease symptomatology
329
What's the most common drug linked to motivational syndrome?
Cannabis is often linked to this syndrome
330
What is the first step when Clozapine is not working?
Check clozapine compliance first
331
What antipsychotic for first-episode psychosis with heart problems?
Aripiprazole is a good option
332
What's the best universal prevention for alcohol dependence?
Education and increased prices for alcohol
333
What benefit-cost ratio indicates higher benefit?
Men had higher benefit in the study
334
What is a poor prognostic factor for FEP?
Long duration of untreated psychosis
335
What does the recovery model focus on?
Assessing a patient's strengths
336
What is the correct response to a new drug lowering mortality, not remission?
Prevalence increases
337
What is the best test when comparing ECT and TMS?
ECT is more effective than rTMS
338
What is the remission rate of ECT in resistant depression?
Remission rate is 60-80%
339
A test is negative, but the patient has the disease, what is this called?
This is a false negative test
