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5. COAS > Full Detailed Questions > Flashcards

Full Detailed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Airbus Golden Rules

A

FUUT

Fly Navigate Communicate

Use the appropriate level of automation

Understand your FMAs

Take over if things don’t go as expected

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2
Q

Pitch Power Datums

250 kts clean

Gdot clean

F1 S

F2F

Vapp gear down
Gw-5 good for?

A

62% and 3*

55% and 5

55% and 7

55% and 8

GW -5 2.5/3*

220 kts clean. 180kts F1. Vapp conf fulle

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3
Q

Stability Criteria

A

1200fpm

15* son

+/- 1 Dot GS and LOC

-5/+10 vapp

Landing config

Unless
Circling 400Ft for aob and within 30*

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4
Q

To inhibit

LDG inhibit active?

A

80kts - 1500ft

800ft - ground

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5
Q

Low

Med

Max

Decel lights

Rate and when active

What triggers. And when is RTO active

A

4 secs. 1.7m/s

2 secs. 3 m/s

Immediate. Max

Ground spoiler deflection

72kts

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6
Q

Low vis. Vis and minima

Cat 1 and Cat 1 LTS minima

CAT 2

CAT 3A

CAT 3b with

CAT 3b without
With and without rollout

A

200’ 550m and 450m

100’ 300m

50’ 200m

<50 75m

NO 75m

All 75m (125m no rollout)

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7
Q

When auto land light active

What happens below 100’

5 (+1) conditions to set off the light and when active

A

200ft

Alert height failures -> continue

Both aps (1 ap 200’-100’)

Loc 200-> 15’ 1/4 dot

Gs 200-> 100’ 1/4 for

15’ rad alt discrepancies

Long land new msns

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8
Q

What vis if not low vis qualified

Taxi recommendations x 3

A

150m

Taxi slow 10kts

Use hdgs

No checks

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9
Q

Customer Charter

A

SOAMO

Safety first no compromise

On your side

A big smile

Make it easy

Open and upfront

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10
Q

Predictive wind shear

When is it active

How far does it scan

A

PWS switch in auto

LDG Active 2300 - 50ft

TO Inhibit 100kts to 50ft

Scans 5NM and +1500ft

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11
Q

Reactive Windshear

When active

What a/c conditions must be satisfied and why

A

3s after TO to 1300ft

1300ft down to 50ft

Must be CONF 1+ (landing/to config)

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12
Q

EGPWS MODES

5 modes

A

EELUG

Excessive ROD

Excessive terrain closure

Loss of altitude after takeoff

Unsafe terrain clearance not in LDG conf

Glideslope

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13
Q

EGPWS Map

Red Colour

Yellow Colour

Green Colour range

What is the reference altitude

A

Red - Ref alt +2000’

Yellow - Ref alt 2000’-500’ (250’ gear down)

Green - Ref alt 500’ (250’ gear down) to 2000’

Ref alt ax alt or ax alt in 30s if aircraft is descending st greater than 1000fpm

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14
Q

Hydraulics Diagram

A

Draw it

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15
Q

3 Calls to make to ATC with reference to fuel

What they mean

A

Minimum fuel - if there is any delay you may have to
Divert

Pan aircraft may land below final

Mayday. Aircraft will
Land below final reserve

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16
Q

Full Fuel LOFT

A

Centre tank starts for 2 mins

Stops with slats selected

Takeoff on Inner wing

Wait until 500kg from onside tank emptied then centre tank pump
On due IDG return

Once empty runs for
5 mins

Then inner wings down to 750kg (first)

Open transfer valves to feed into inner from
Outer

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17
Q

Fuel capacity

Approx and accurate

Outer

Inner

Centre

A320
What is A319 total

A

690

5573

6476

Total 19000

A319

18.7T

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18
Q

Takeoff alternate how far and what weather

Enroute alternates
A320 and 19

Over sea

Destination weather required

A

320nm suitable for land SE Or with any MEL and current weather

400nm. And 380nm

400nm

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19
Q

Planning minima table

A

CAT III/II/LTS - CAT1

CAT 1 - NPA inc LOC

NPA - minima +200’ and +1000m

Circling - circling

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20
Q

When do you require two alternates

When weather applicable

A

No wx forecast

weather below
Planning minima

Landing requires specific wind
Or state component

+- 1 he

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21
Q

Fuel System

A

Draw it

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22
Q

Why is Dispatch LDG calf in reference to x4

Factors for dry or wet

When must the criteria be satisfied

A

Actual landing distance ALD

Test pilot on smooth runway. Nil
Wind. ISA. brake pressed at landing

Dry 1,67
Wet 1.92

Before Dispatch must be satisfied for most favourable wind

Or runway expected with likely wind. If you can’t alternate must be able to satisfy

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23
Q

In flight landing

When used

Takes into account

What do we do to this figure

A

All factors of landing
Runway condition. Wind. Slope. Realistic flare

Factor it by 1.15

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24
Q

What is ASDA

What time delay does V1 account for

A

Length to take off and stop (includes stop way)

V speeds

V1 allows 1 sec from VEF to recognise and start first actions of reject

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25
Q

Brake temp numbers

Takeoff

Max

Difference

Difference between bogies

Other condition?

Where found

A

300 (150 with fans)

900 max

600 if greater than 150 difference

69 if greater than 150
Difference

200 average right left difference

Fuse plug melted

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26
Q

ANO definition of inflight

A

Application of takeoff power to end of landing roll

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27
Q

Reduced boarding what do you need

X7

What roll does extra FA TAKE

Who is responsible for which doors and which parts of cabin

A

A CM. a FD on FD

50
Pad per CC 3 CC min

A CM has performed safety briefing

No fueling or defueling

All sep searches complete

Electrical power

Last CC is the 4

CC1 responsible door 1l and r
CC2 responsible door 2l and r
CC3 present at overwings

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28
Q

When can you use reduced CC in flight

X5

A

Not out of crewed base

50 pax per CC not including sick FA

Limitations on 3*** Fa

Max 1 flight

Consult duty pilot

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29
Q

Critical surfaces

A

Leading edge

Slats and flaps

Top of wing

Ailerons

Rudder stabiliser

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30
Q

Allowed ice

A

Upper fuselage thin layer of hoar frost can still
Identify marlins and rivets and doesn’t interfere with ports and probes

3mm cold soak under wing

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31
Q

Engine run ups

When is this different and how

When do you always do one

A

70% for 30 secs every 30 mins

FZRA
70% don’t dwell every 10 mins

Before takeoff

Continue takeoff advise ATC

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32
Q

Nose check

What allowed

How removed x3

What to do if windscreen contaminated

A

No snow or ice

Use mechanical methods.

Or type 1

Or if really necessary type 4 with tags cloth. Then remove

If contaminated use windscreen wash with antifreeze

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33
Q

Minimum oil temp

A320

A320 NEO

A

-10

10

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34
Q

What makes a runway class as contaminated

What are the limitations

A

25% or more of runway

3mm of h20

Slush
snow or ice

Capt is PF

And check crosswind limits

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35
Q

Manual structure

A

Section 1
Organisation and responsibility

CFODAH

Crew health
FTLS
Operating procedures
Dangerous goods
Avsec
Handling of dangerous goods and occurrences

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36
Q

Explain speed tape

Normal and alternate

A

Explain

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37
Q

5 airbus protections

Normal

Alternate

Direct

A

Load
Bank
Pitch 30NU (25 in high aoa)
Conf full 25 (20 in high aoa
High speed
High AOa

Can be with or without speed stability low and high
Load factor

No protections

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38
Q

Approximate limits for unusual art law trigger

What has to happen to cause this

A

Double normal approx

125 bank
50 Pitch up
30 Pitcch down
0.9 440 kts
Aoa 30-40 up or 10 down

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39
Q

Ice accretion

What are the corrections conf F and 3

What speed limit minimum

Approx landing distance wet

What to do if combined with other failure for perf

A

Conf full 5
Conf 3 10

Gdot

Vis plus 10

1800m

Use Feb

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40
Q

If OEI what do you need to do to use WAI

When can you not do this

A

X bleed open

1 pack off

WAI On

Don’t do with eng fire pb pressrd

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41
Q

Beta target when active

Why config - why

When might you not get and why

A

Lowest aero config of flight controls

F1-3

35% difference in N1

At least 80% in highest

So when low flex you will not get bets target

42
Q

Bank angle markings

X5

A

67

45

33

20

10

43
Q

What is flare law for

A

Natural landing

50ft attitude memorised

At 30 ft progressive trim to 2* nose down over 8s so continuos back pressure required

44
Q

4 types of climb gradient and angle

A

Landing climb 3.2
Toga 10

Approach climb

Low vis cat 2 - 2.5
Normal 2.1

Final segment - 1.2
2nd segment 2.4

45
Q

4x OEBs and there number

A

38 Erroneous rad alt

41 Step 1A alternate predictions unreliable

46 none engagement of guidance modes

48 abnormal v alpha prot

46
Q

Ground speed mini

How does it work

A

Tries to maintain a constant ground speed/ energy state

So if you have a 10 knot headwind on ground

And a 30kt at 2000’ it adds 20 it’s to vapp at 2000’

47
Q

ANO

4 items what number and what do they consider

A

139 - not being drunk onboard plane

141 - Follow any lawful command of commander for safety of the aircraft

142 - pax acting disruptive abusive and or interfering with operations of crew

146 - any illness physical or mental don’t act as member of crew

48
Q

4 levels of disruptive pax

What actions this may entail

What do you do

A
  1. Disruptive non compliance (verbal)
  2. Physical disruptive (physical)
  3. Physical disruptive with weapons or attempt on exit door (weapon)
  4. Attempt on cockpit door or violence towards (possible hijack)

Keep door closed for rest of the flight

If possible get the passport

Inform ALO if you want to cancel return he will do it

49
Q

4 x repair intervals

A

A no time
B 3
C 10
D 120 days

50
Q

3 levels of warning what order and what signals from aircraft

A

3 master warning and audio

2 master caution and audio

1 ECAM no audio

ADV as well

51
Q

What does LAND ASAP

Red

Amber

Immediate landing mean?

A

Land at nearest airfield that a safe approach and landing can be made

Land at nearest suitable airfield

Land anywhere tailwind, ditch etc.. If necessary

52
Q

Autopilot engagement heights

And landing

A

5s after take off and 100’ blocked by fmgs logic

Above 100’ on go around

53
Q

Minimum disengagement heights

For 4x approaches

All other flight

A

Cat 1 - 160’

Cat 2 - 80’

NPA - minimum

500’
Circling - circling height minus 100’

54
Q

What is a red flag event

A

An event that if not corrected could cause loss of life or damage to an easyJet asset

If you think you have a red flag event you must contact duty pilot to se if he agrees

If he does then do an asr and tick the red flag event.

55
Q

Implications of Fuel leak

A

Must divert

Keep cross bleed closed

No reverse on landing

If leak continues shutdown the engine on leak side

Check fuel flow as this is a positive confirmation of an engine fuel feed leak

Don’t pick a CAT 3B alternate as you will be on one engine and you might want fire trucks to look at you

56
Q

Implications of bomb on board

A

Must be on the ground in 30 minutes

Must inform pax atc and CC sensitively

Fly fast

If bomb found evacuate

57
Q

Supplementary procedures

E.g. MEL or QRH

On the ground

Who does what for engine start related?

Who does what in what manner for all others?

A

Read all procedure together then PM reads and PF does the items for engine start

All other cases PM read and does the actions

Ref FCTM

58
Q

Guarded switches etc.

When does it apply

What is also included

A

Some selectors or pushbuttons (including the ENG MASTER switch, FIRE pushbutton, IR, IDG and, in general, all guarded switches) must be crosschecked by both the PF and PM

Ref fctm

Unless on the ground

59
Q

When do we not need a

Destination Alternate?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Flight < 6 hours
  • Vis 5 km +
  • Ceiling 2,000 feet, or Circling + 500 feet if greater
  • Two Separate Runways
60
Q

When can we consider

Runways to be separated?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
  • If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.
61
Q

When do we require two

destination alternates?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3

A
  • If desination weather is unavailable.
  • If destination is below planning minima for ETA +/- 1 hour.
  • Landing not assured at destination as landing depends on:
  1. Specific Wind Component, or,
  2. Runway State.
62
Q

When planning for an alternate,

the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO

that the weather will be below limits.

Can this alternate be used?

A

YES

PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded

63
Q

What is the planning minima

for a

Take-off Alternate?

A
  • At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
  • Any limitation related to:
  • One Engine Inop, or
  • Dispatch under MEL

Shall be taken into consideration

64
Q

Within what distance must a

Take-off alternate be?

A
  • 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop crz speed.
  • 320 nm
65
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A
  • A319 - 380 nm
  • A320 - 400 nm
66
Q

What is the planning minima

for a destination alternate

if only a NPA

is available?

A
  • MDA + 200 feet
  • RVR + 1,000 m
67
Q

How long is a TEMPO forecast

expected to last?

A
  • Individually less than one hour each episode.
  • In aggreagate less than half of the period specified.
68
Q

How much extra fuel should be

carried for LVPs?

A
  • Half an hour
  • About 1,000 kg
69
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel?

A
  • 30 minutes holding fuel
  • 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate
  • ISA Conditions
  • Expected Weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.
70
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel,

what are the maximum lnding weight

considerations to base your tanker

figure around?

A

MLW - (1% OF MLW)

  • A320 LW = MLW - 660 kg = 65,340 kg
  • A319 LW = MLW - 610 kg = 60,390 kg
71
Q

When should you not tanker fuel?

A
  • When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
  • When you expect to land on a performance limited runway.
72
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A
  • 5% of trip fuel, or
  • 5 minutes holding
    • 1,500 feet
    • above destination aerodrome
    • ISA conditions.
73
Q

What is contingency fuel for?

A
  • Unforseen circumstances:
    • Unfavourable FL
    • Unfavourable Track
    • Unfavourable Unforecast Wind
74
Q

What is the minimum RFF category for

Departure, Destination &

Alternates?

A
  • Departure/Destination:
    • 4 (Temp Downgrade < 72 hours)
  • Alternates:
    • Non-UK: 4
    • UK : 5
75
Q

When can we continue to fly to destination knowing

that we will get there below CNR?

A
  • Landing Assured at Destination
  • EAT or Maximum Delay Known
76
Q

What are the RVSM requirements

with regard to aircraft equipment.

A
  • 2 ADRs
  • 2 PFDs
  • 1 AP
  • 1 FCU
  • 1 FWC
  • 1 Transponder with Mode S

Primary altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.

77
Q

What are the limitations of

LMCs when

applied to an easyJet

Loadsheet?

A

New Loadsheet required if:

  • +10 or -20 Pax

New Perf Calculation if:

  • Positive LMC & TOGA take-off planned
  • Positive LMC >250 kg

MACTOW changed by >2%.

78
Q

What is the minimum

oil quantity?

A

9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.

79
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine Anti-Ice?

A
  • 1 kg/min
  • 2 kg/min in the hold
80
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine + Wing Anti-Ice?

A
  • 2 kg/min
  • 3 kg/min in the hold
81
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Taxiing:

Single Engine & Two Engine Taxi?

A
  • Single Engine: 7 kg/min
  • Two Engines: 10 kg/min.
82
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

APU usage?

A
  • 2 kg/min ( 120 kg/ hour )
83
Q

Fuel Planning:

What are the adjustements to be applied

to the OFP fuel

at the planning stage for

increased or reduced mileage?

A
  • Reduction of mileage: 4 kg/nm
  • Increase in mileage: 5 kg/nm
84
Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

A
  • If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
  • Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
85
Q

When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?

A
  • Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
  • < 3 hours rest: Max extension is NIL
  • 3 to 10 hours rest: Max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
86
Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

A
  • 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
  • 1 year: 900 hours
87
Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

A
  • 7 Consecutive Days: 55 hours
    • (Can be extended to 60 hours due to unforseen delays.)
  • 14 Consecutive Days: 95 hours
  • 28 Consecutive Days: 190 hours
88
Q

How many hours can you go into

discretion to extend an FDP?

A
  • 2 Hours
  • 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
89
Q

When must a discretion report be filed?

A
  • Discretion > 2 hours
  • Reduced rest > 1 hour
  • Exceedance of Cumulative Limits on Flying.
90
Q

By how much can you reduce a rest period?

A
  • Home Base:
    • Maximum 1 hour, but
      • Not less than 12 hours rest; Flight Deck
      • Not less than 11 hours rest; Cabin Crew.
  • Away from base:
    • minimum requirement is that allocated room be available for a minimum of 10 hours.
91
Q

What are the First Officer

Handling Limitations?

A
  • Maximum Cross Wind: 20 knots
  • No planned tailwind for *** FO
  • No Flap 3 landing for *** FO
    • Unless required by an emergency procedure.
  • No FO takeoff if VIS < 400m
  • No Contaminated RWY
  • No Windshear
  • Minimum Runway width 45m
  • Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000m.
92
Q

What is the Procedure for reporting a

Bird Strike?

A
  • Inform ATC at the time of the incident.
  • Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
93
Q

When may Flex not be

used for Takeoff?

A
  • Contaminated RWY.
  • Windshear reported.
94
Q

What is the minimum RVR for Takeoff?

What if you’re not LVO qualified?

What visual segment is required?

A
  • 125m
  • 150m if not LVO qulaified
  • 90m visual segment required.
    • This is an a/c design requirement.
    • All A320 family compliant.
95
Q

Is the third segment RVR required for

takeoff or landing?

A
  • Only if relevant, i.e.;
    • Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the takeoff case (ADS< 2/3 TODT to be certain.)
    • Less than 60 knots in the Landing Roll (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
96
Q

Do you need RVRs for takeoff in LVPs?

or, is met VIS OK?

A
  • Yes, you need RVRs in the LVO takeoff case.
  • RVR derived from a conversion from Met VIS is only allowed for LANDING & if the RVR required is >800m.
97
Q

When do LVPs come into force?

A
  • RVR < 600m
  • Ceiling < 200 feet
98
Q

How many Infants may be carried onboard?

A
  • 2 per accompanying adult.
99
Q

Circling Approach.

When must you disconnect the AP?

A
  • 100 feet below the MDA.
100
Q

The Dispatcher informs you that

Human Remains are being carried.

Can you Carry them?

What about Ashes?

A
  • No.
  • Unless Ashes:
    • Suitable Container
    • Death Certificate
    • Cremation Certificate
    • Hand Luggage Only.
101
Q

What are the criteria for carrying

Musical Instruments?

& Specifically Cellos?

A
  • Small musical instruments should be stowed in the overhead locker.
  • Where not practical to combine musical instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed.
  • Larger Instruments eg Cellos:
    • Seat to be purchased
    • Window Seat
    • Not a restricted Seat
    • Centre of mass < 30 cm above top of seat cushion.
    • Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment.)
102
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher,

can we carry him?

A

No

5. COAS (10 decks)

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