Tech interview questions Flashcards
(270 cards)
1
Q
When is the energy warning inhibited?
A
F - Flaps 1 or 0
A - Alpha Floor
T - TOGA
G - GPWS alert
R - Dual RA failure
A - Altitude above 2000’ RA and below 100’ RA
N - Normal law not active
2
Q
Function of the FADEC
A
S - Start sequencing
E - Engine limits based on TLA
M - Metering
I - Indications
3
Q
When are PWS alerts inhibited?
A
- During Takeoff above 100 knots until 50ft AGL during
- During approach from 50ft. until 60kts.
4
Q
What is available in the cockpit during Emer Electrical Configuration?
A
RMP 1
5
Q
What are the 8 phases of flights for the MCDU and when does it transition?
A
Preflight - engine start
Takeoff - TO power
Climb - Accel Alt
Cruise - TOC
Descent - descent within 200nm from destination
Approach - when APPR armed or decel point
GA - TOGA
Done - on ground for 30 seconds, engines shutdown
6
Q
How long does the Battery last on ADRIU 1?
A
40-45 minutes
7
Q
If during engine start with p. brake on, the ac starts to move, what are the actions?
A
Release the P. Brake handle to restore norm braking with pedals
8
Q
When does autoskid stop?
A
20 knots
9
Q
If on the alt braking sys, what is required in order to maintain Anti-Skid?
A
1 channel of the BSCU
10
Q
If simul failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?
A
Level 3 warning first
Level 2, then Level 1
11
Q
When does the AC leave A. FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?
A
Reaching lower AoA
TOGA LK
12
Q
When does the Landing memo appear and disappear?
A
<2000 agl
GA if not above 2200 =>appears <800 during appr
Disappears at 80 kts
13
Q
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle?
A
Bleed demands
App Config
High Engine or IDG temps
14
Q
If LGCIU 1 fails, will the lights still work?
A
Yes, as long as it is still powered
15
Q
What will cause a Fire Warning?
A
Both loops A and B send fire signal
One loop sends signal and other has failed
Breaks occur in both loops within 5 s of each other
Test performed
16
Q
If the STS pb is pressed with no Status, what is displayed?
A
NORMAL
for 5 seconds
17
Q
When would you perform quick alignment of the ADIRS and how long does it take?
A
If the FMGC position is >5nm off
30 seconds
18
Q
Max NW/S with tiller
A
75 degrees of cntr
19
Q
How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight
A
Press and hold the A/THR disc for 15 seconds.
You lost A. FLOOR.
Can not restore
20
Q
How can the crew verify the parking brake is set
A
ECAM PARKING BRK
Triple indicator
21
Q
When to abort an AUTO start?
A
L - Loss of upper and/or lower screen
E - Loss of Electrical power
E - ECAM mesage
T - Tailpipe fire
22
Q
What would prevent the wx display on the ND?
A
Mode selector in PLAN
TERR ON
23
Q
What is the function of the 2 LGCIUs?
A
O - Operation
S - Sequencing
I - Indications for LD GR
M - Monitoring
S - Signals On ground or In flight
24
Q
When will the auto retration system op?
A
CONF 1+F
210 knts
auto retract to 0
25
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed, when...
Ground spoilers armed
Both mains on grd
both levers at or below CLB
26
What effect does setting the p. brake have on other braking modes?
All other braking modes deactivated and anti-skid is deactivated
27
When does auto pitch trim freeze?
Manual pitch trim order from pilot
\<50ft
load factor \<0.5
High Speed Protection
28
What does illumination of the ATC fail indicate?
Only the selected transponder has failed
29
What is the signif of selecting the NAV key on the RMP?
The FMGS cannot auto-tune
RMP controls VOR/ILS
NAV key on RMP has no effect
Normal radio comm is avail
30
When useing the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
Reduces at 40kts until 0 at 140kts
31
Can you takeoff with HOT brakes?
Yes, IF ECAM during TO roll at pilot's discretion.
Delay retraction until cooled.
32
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the GREEN system?
Landing Gear
Slats AND Flaps
33
Info from ILS 1 is displayed where?
CA PFD
FO ND
34
What happens when you press the FIRE pb?
8 items
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Deactivates the IDG
Closes the pack flow control valve
Closes the engine bleed valve
Cuts off FADEC power supply
35
When will grnd spoilers ALWAYS deploy?
At least 1 lever to IDLE REV
36
How is appr idle different on the NEO?
CEO:
Flaps extended
NEO:
CONF 3 or FULL when LDG GR down
37
What happens with the A/skid and N/W STRG is switched OFF?
Loss of NWS
Braking on the YELLOW
A/SKID deactivated
38
When is A. FLOOR protection active
T.O. until 100 AGL on landing
39
What shoudl the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?
Match the TLA with ENG output
40
When would you be in DIRECT LAW?
3 - Triple IR failure
2 - Dual RA failure
1 - L/G down in ALT
41
What happens when you disengage the A/THR with the pb?
Thrust lock, and single chime every 5 seconds
42
ENG Start FAULT light
H - HP fuel valve disagreement
A - Auto start abort
S - Start valve fault
43
What is the power source of the FADEC?
Alternator \>10%
If ALT fails - AC elec power
44
When does the blue pump start?
After first engine start
45
When is a STATUS page displayed?
After failure on SD and all items cleared
Reappear when slats extended
46
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
Slats and Flaps half speed
47
What does the cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO?
Steady:
Auto dry cranking about to begin and timer indicates the time left until begins
Pulsing:
Auto dry crank in progress
48
What would occur if the A/skid & NW/S switch were selected OFF?
NW/S lost
Anti-skid deactived
YELLOW supplies brakes
49
Pros of landing FULL flaps
Reduced landing distance
Reduced Tailstrike risk
Better GA performance (20 only)
Faster Decel to Vapp
Slower Vapp
Easier on tire
50
If no hyd power is avail, what is the impact on the THS?
Requires GRN or YELLOW to function!
51
What are the Normal Law Protections?
B - Bank angle protection (=)
P - Pitch angle protection (=)
L - Load factor protection
A - Angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) S - Speed protection (=)
52
When is windshear detection functional?
1300 - 50 AGL (TO and landing)
CONF 1 or greater
53
What 3 things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?
1. GREEN press removed
2. Gear doors opened
3. Uplocks released
54
What would cause a ADIRU fault?
Measure - inputted position error
Movement - off and on over 1 degree Lat or Long
Minute - 1 min left and still no position
Motion - AC moved during alignment
55
What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LK?
Push the disconnect A/THR pbs and move the lever to the CL detent
56
Flashing amber ILS on PFD means...
APPR mode armed, and ILS pb not selected
57
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
Flameout detection
Failure of EIU
Sun-idle or surge
Master switch cycled
Anti-ice on
Approach Idle
Max/FLEX power
58
What happens when you press the APU Fire pb?
8 items
Shuts down the APU
Silences the aural warning
Arms the squib
Closes the low-press fuel valve
Shuts off the APU fuel pump
Deactivates the APU Generator
Closes the APU bleed valve
Closes the X bleed valve
59
What warnings are NOT inhibited with the TO INHIBIT displayed?
A - APU fire
E - Engine fire
E - Eng failure
L - L+R Elev FAULT
F- FWC 1+2 FAULT
A - A/P OFF
C - CONFIG
E - Engine oil low press
60
When is the WX/TURB mode avail?
Range of 40 nm or less
61
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the YELLOW system?
Flaps
62
What is the thrust limiation with p. brake on
1.15 EPR
63
What is the thrust of the V2533?
32,500
64
When would you be in ALT LAW?
T - THS Jam
R - Multi Redundant system failures
A - Dual ADR (or IR) failure (OEB 48)
S - Sidestick failure
H - Dual Hydraulic Failure
65
What is the thrust of the V2527?
27,000
66
When does the engine bleed valves close?
A - APU Bleed ON
S – Start valved ON
O – Overpressure
L – Bleed Leak
O– Overheat
67
What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using TOGA on RWY without LOC?
MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)
68
What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the BLUE system?
Emergency Generator
Slats
69
What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using FLEX on RWY with LOC?
MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)
70
With the EWD on the lower screen, how do you get the SD info?
Press and hold the system buttons
Displayed for 30 seconds
71
What happens if 280kts and select gear down?
Safety valve inhibits hydraulics until 260 kts
72
What indication does the EWD provide for secondary failures?
\*
73
What width is a narrow runway?
98ft
74
What does the boxed STS indicate on the EWD?
The STATUS page holds messages other than Canceled cautions
Flashes after engine shutdown to alert mx of other messages
75
If the FCU fails, what mode and dis range should be expected on the ND?
ROSE NAV and 80 nm
76
TOD and Continue Des arrow are displayed in blue and white, difference?
TOD - White (never armed)
Continue Descent - Blue = FINAL APP engagement, where final descent will begin automatically
White=FINAL APP will not engage
77
What happens when you press EXP?
Climbs at Green Dot
Descends at 340kts (M.80)
78
LO and MED ABRAKES decel rates
LOW:
4 seconds at 5.6ft/s/s
MED:
2 seconds at 9.8ft/s/s
79
What are the FAC Functions?
Y - Yaw control (damping, turn coordination, rudder limiter, and rudder trim)
A - Airspeed protection computation
(Alpha prot. High/Low limits, maneuver speed low speed limits PFD speed scale)
W - windshear protection
L - Low energy warning protection (speed, speed, speed)
80
What is the thrust of the V2524?
23,500
81
When is Alpha Floor inhibited?
100.6 - \< 100 feet on approach / \> M .6 (647-on, NEO, 321s)
N - Non-Normal Law
E - EIU (engine interface unit) fails
E - Engine-out and slats/flaps ext
D - N1 degraded mode
F - FAC and opposite SFCC fails
F - Both FCU failure
F - Both FMGCs fail
82
When are the Wing Tip Brakes engaged?
R - Runaway
O - Overspeed
A - Asymmetry
M – Movement (un-commanded)
83
When will the FADEC abort an auto start?
Hot Start
Stalled Start
No IGN
84
What information comes from ADR computers?
B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - Angle of Attack
T - Temperature
S - Speed/ Mach
85
What does a FAULT on the ENG panel mean
Auto start ABORT
HP valve disagreement
86
What is the thrust of the PW1100?
27,000
87
Autobrakes LOW Decel rate
5.6 ft/s^2
88
When is RA TRK engaged?
30 feet after TO, it maintains your track vector on climb out
89
If there are any auto functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the auto logic
DMC 1 fails (or DMC 3 selected), DMC 2 drives the ECAM
90
What are the 6 steps for the obstacle driftdown?
1. MCT
2. A/THR OFF
3. Notify ATC
4. Decel to Green Dot
5. Cruise FL
6. ECAM actions
91
ELAC Functions
N - Normal Elevator, aileron, pitch and roll
A - Alternate Pitch
D - Direct pitch and roll
A - Abnormal attitude
A - Aileron Droop
A - Autopilot Orders
92
If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak...
CEO:
Run for 5 minutes, if stops...GO
NEO:
Abort
93
What are the limitations with a narrow runway?
May not:
inop NWS
inop one or more brakes
No Autoland
94
On the grnd, how can the A/THR be armed?
TOGA or FLEX
At least one FD ON
95
If icing conditions exist on ground, what is the run-up procedure for CEO and NEO?
CEO:
15 mins 50%
NEO:
30 mins 60%
96
The gnd spoilers retract:
When thrust set to idle after landing
When ONE lever above idle
After a rejected TO, when grnd spoilers DISARMED
Touch and GO, when one lever is advanced \> 20 degrees
97
Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the trim wheel in NORMAL LAW?
Can be turned manually
AP disconnects
98
What are the indic on the DU if a DMC has failed?
INVALID DATA
99
What information comes from the IR computers?
F - Flight path vector
A - Aircraft position
T - Track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Ground Speed
100
What are the available approach strategies?
APP NAV - RNAV, VOR
FPA - LOC
Selected-Selected - Like FPA but selecting TRK
101
What is Alpha Lock?
inhibits flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at high AoA and low AS
102
What are the four sensors for the ADRs?
```
Pitot probes (3)
Static Pressure Probes (6)
AoA sensors (3)
TAT probes (2)
```
103
What capabilities does the RADAR sys have?
Weather Avoidance
Turb detection
Terr Mapping
PWS
104
What does the Hydraulic Engine pump FAULT indicate?
P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
105
What does the Hydraulic Electric pump FAULT indicate?
P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
O - Overheated pump
106
When would perform a full alignment on the ADIRS and how long does it take?
First flight of day
Change of Flight Crew
GPS not available
except poor NAVAIR coverage
10 minutes
107
When are Speed Brakes inhibited?
S - SEC 1 and Sec 3 Failure
A - Alpha Prot or Alpha Floor
F - Flaps in configuration FULL (and configuration 3 for A321)
E - failure of one Elevator
T - TOGA on thrust levers
108
What types of failures are presented to the crew?
Independent - does not affect other systems
Primary
Secondary
109
What are the crosswind limitations for narrow runways?
Wet ...33 knots (gusts included)
Contaminated ... 10 knots (gusts included)
Icy ... not demonstrated
110
What redundancy doest he FADEC have?
Dual channels
111
When does the cont ign op?
Flameout detected
EIU fails
Surge
Master cycled
Eng anti-ice
App idle
MAX/FLEX power
112
Pros of landing flaps 3
Better:
Handling in strong crosswinds
Windshear escape performance
GA performance (19and 21)
Faster Vapp
Economical
Noise Reduction
Emissions Reduction
113
What does the Hydraulic PTU pump FAULT indicate?
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
114
When does the TO memo appear and disappear?
2 minutes after 2nd engine start
Removed after TO power
115
Colors of flight plans?
Active - cont green
Secondary - con white
Missed - con blue
Temp - dash yellow
Alt - dashed blue
116
When do you select TOGA during a TO?
Contaminated Runway
Windshear Warning
+/- 10 degrees of Ambient
Per Dispatch
Per SID (required climb rate)
117
What would the FMA indicate during TO if the A/THR didn't ARM and the runway has a LOC?
SRS, RWY
Continue TO and manually turn on A/THR at TRA
118
What does the Pack FAULT indicate?
P - Pack outlet overheat
C - Compressor outlet overheat
S - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
119
\*\*\*The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servo is available on each side when:
grnd spoilers fully ext
Flaps \> 0
Pitch \> 2.5 degrees
Flying manually
Normal Law
120
When selectingthe flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or \>, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?
CONF 1+F
Max of 215kts, but auto retract at 210 knts
121
What are the TO CONF warnings?
Slats and flaps not in TO Range
Pitched trim not in TO range, rud trim more than 3.5
Speed breaks not retracted
Side stick FAULT
Hot brakes
Door not closed
P. Brake on
Flex temp not set
122
When will the grnd spoilers auto retract?
IDLE and speed brake lever down
When at leaset 1 lever above IDLE
123
What happens at Alpha Prot?
A - AOA is commanded instead of load factor
S - Speed brake retracted
A - Autopilot disengages
P - Pitch trim up is inhibited.
124
Autobrakes MED Decel rate
9.8 ft/s^2
125
What is the scanned area of the predictive ws feature?
up to 5nm when below 1500 AGL
126
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
When slats are extended with landing gear down
On approach after glide slop capture
127
When is the side stick position indicator displayed?
After 1st engine start
Disappears after TO
128
What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?
Excessive LOC or GS deviation
Signal failure
RA differ by 15 ft
Both AP fail
129
What happens when the AP flys into a DISCON?
NAV mode becomes HDG/TRK mode
130
What happens when FLEX TEMP not entered?
A warning will be generated
Move to TOGA
131
If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action would you take?
An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. Procedure in the COM.
132
What is the normal mode of the FMGS?
Dual mode with one master and one slave
133
What does Activating the Appr do?
Allow thrust and speed target follow the flap schedule
Green Dot
S Speed
F Speed
F Speed
Vapp
GSmini is avail when managed speed
134
What are the 3 modes of the FMGC
Indep
Single
Dual
135
What are the functions of the FMGC?
Flight Guidance
Flight Management
136
What the components of the FMGS?
FMGC
MCDUs
FCU
FACs
137
What 2 conditions would cause an external horn?
ADRIUs on Battery Power
Avionics BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT
138
When should you consider a manual start?
Degraded bleed performance (hot or high AP)
Marginal performance of the ext or APU air
Tailwind \>10kts
After aborting because of:
Engine stall
EGT overtemp
N1 rotation
Hung Start
IGN A/B Fault
139
When will the start valve auto close?
43% CEO
55% NEO
140
What happens when the ENG MAN START pb is pressed?
Start Valve opens
Packs Close
FADEC power supply continues for 5 minutes
(NEO FADEC power is cut off)
141
How long will the auto start dry crank the engine?
CEO: 30 seconds
NEO: 2 minutes
142
What does the DISCH light mean?
Halon has been discharged by either pilot or by a FAULT
143
What do the priority valves on the hyd do?
Removes power from the heavy users to protect the flight controls
144
What can be done for LOW ACCUM pressure?
Inform mx
Turn BEACON ON
engage Yellow hyd pump
145
How is the BATT BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through DC tie connector
146
How is bleed leak dection differ on the NEO
If BMC fails on the NEO, overtemp protection is lost on that side.
147
Explain sources of the ELEC generation and their priorities.
G - Generators
E - External Power
A - APU
R - Ram Air Turbine
B - Batteries
148
In flight in normal ops, which generator has the higher load? why?
Generator 1.
- Supplies AC BUS 1 + DC BUS 1
- Galley and Cabin
149
What does the EMER GEN power?
AC ESS and DC ESS (via essential TR)
150
How long does it take the emergency generator take to come online?
What is powering the a/c in the meanwhile?
What is then powered in the flight deck?
- eight seconds
- Batteries
- PFD 1, ND 1, Upper DU, FMGC 1
(Pitch) (Power)
151
What is the purpose of GEN 1 Line?
Generator keeps running, but disconnects AC BUS 1.
It runs one fuel pump in each fuel tank.
Generator 2 takes the load of AC BUS 1 via the bus tie break
152
Under what circumstances will the RAT extend automatically?
Loss of AC BUS 1 +2
153
What is the difference between switching the Generator and IDG off?
IDG's can only be restored on the ground (guarded switch). Generators can be restored at any time.
IDG - Mechanical linkage between engine and generator.
154
What is the purpose of selecting the APU Master switch ON in the Removal of smoke checklist?
It connects the third motor of the outflow valve to the battery bus bar in order to control it.
155
Under what circumstances will the RAT extend automatically?
Loss of AC BUS 1 + 2
156
At what altitude can the APU be started in the Emergency Elec config? why?
25.000ft.
APU Battery Restart Limit in EMER ELEC.
157
Under normal ops, what altitude can the APU support electrical load and bleed demand?
Electrical demand = up to Max cruise
Electrical + Bleed Air = 22.500ft.
158
Name the sources of power for each of the hydraulic systems
Green = ENG 1 Pump
Blue = ELEC Pump + RAT
Yellow = ENG 2 Pump + Elec Pump + Hand pump
159
what services does the
- green
- yellow
- blue
system power?
Priority valves:
Green = L/G + Slats/Flaps
Blue = EMER GEN + Flaps
Yellow = Flaps
160
How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? Why?
Automatically pressured from
ENG 1 HP bleed air.
If the pressure becomes too low, it takes bleed air pressure from the crossbleed duct.
161
What is the purpose of the hydraulic priority valves?
Cut off hydraulic users to ensure functionality of the most important Flight control surfaces.
162
What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators?
It provides constant pressure by covering transient demands during normal operation.
163
Explain the purpose of the PTU.
Power transfer unit.
Transfers power between Green and Yellow system if the differential pressure becomes greater than 500psi
164
What is the normal system pressure of the three hydraulic systems?
3000psi.
165
What pressure would expect when the RAT is powering the blue system?
2500psi.
166
Explain the function of ground speed mini.
App = VLS + 1/3 HW component
167
How many motors drive the outflow valve? why?
Three. Two from the CPC and one from the APU
168
SMOKE REMOVAL C/L
In the emergency electrical configuration, what is the purpose of turning the generators back at three minutes or 2000ft AGL?
Restore generators to recover normal breaking and breaking performance.
If the generators are off for more than two minutes, then ADR 2+3 will not be recovered during flight (Direct law when gear down).
169
EGPWS memory item
AP OFF
FULL BACK STICK
TOGA
SPEED BRAKE ...RETRACTED
WINGS LEVEL
If safe, initiate a turn
170
Why would flaps not be at 0 on preflight?
Winter - FULL Snow/Ice on Flaps
Summer - CONF 1 \>40C Anti-Ice overheat
171
What would cause the GEN 1 line smoke light to illum?
Smoke in avionics bay
172
Galley and Cabin FAULT
Generator load \>100%
173
How do you get to Direct Law?
1 - Gear in ALT
2 - 2 RAs
3 - 3 ADIRUs
174
What's on the BLUE hyd?
E. Gen
Slats
175
FADEC functions
A - Auto Start Sequence
T - Thrust Reverser Control
T - Thrust Control Malfunction
E - Engine Limits
M - Manual Start Sequence
P - Power Management
T - Transmits engine data
E - Engine Stall Protection
D - Detection of failures
G - Gas Generator Control
F - Fuel Recirulation
C - cooling FADEC
176
What's on the YELLOW hyd?
Flaps
NW/S
Alt Braking
Engine 2 Reverser
177
When will pax masks auto deploy?
14,000 cabin pressure
178
What does the IR provide?
F - Flight Path Vector
A - Aircraft Position
T - AC track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Groundspeed
179
Cabin Press FAULT
Failure of both Cabin Pressure Controllers
ECAM, manual mode
180
What are the functions of the LGCIUs?
M - Monitoring
I - Indications
S - Sequencing
O - Operation
S - Signals other aircraft (ground or flight)
181
What do you do when A/THR fails?
ECAM actions
Switch to AP2
182
ENG FAULT light
H - HP fuel valve disagree
A - Aborted Start
S - Start Valve Fault
183
How does the pax O2 sys work?
Oxygen generators for 15 minutes
184
GEN FAULT
GCU failure
Open contactor
185
Side Stick Priority Light
--
186
When is the PTU inhibited?
Ground
Split Master Switches
+
NW/S discon
OR
P. Brake ON
40 seconds after Cargo Door
187
What powers the screens?
DMC 1 and 2
If fails "INVALID DATA"
188
How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated?
RESET control slide (not auto)
189
What does an ANTI-ICE FAULT mean?
Position of the VALVE DISAGREES with commanded position
190
Unrel A/S memory item
AP...OFF
FD...OFF
A/THR...OFF
PITCH/POWER
15/TOGA
10/CLB
5/CLB
Maintain CONF 3 or less
Speed brakes...retract
LDG Gear...UP
191
Lowest ALT for CAT 1 when AP with CAT 2 and 3 avail
80 ft
192
What does the FIRE pb do?
Silences Alarm
Arms Squibs
Closes LP fuel
Closes Hyd Fire shutoff
Disconnects IDG
Closes Packs
Closes ENG bleed
Cuts off FADEC power
193
What are the cabin press modes?
Automatic
Semi-automatic
Manual
194
What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cyl discharge?
Green disk on lower left side missing
195
What would be other indications of smoke in av bay?
ECAM warning
BLOWER FAULT
EXTRACT FAULT
196
Name the 5 GPWS modes
Excessive Terrain Closure
Excessive descent rate
Far below G/S
Sink rate in TO or GA
Excessive Terrain Closure when not in landing config
197
What's on the GREEN hyd?
Landing Gear
Normal Brakes
Flaps and Slats
Engine 1 Reverser
198
When would you press the FLAPS GPWS pb?
When directed by the ECAM, when landing
199
What are the ventilation configurations?
Open:
Inlet and Outlet Flaps OPEN
(on ground, hot skin)
Closed:
Inlet and Outlet Flaps CLOSED
SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS open
exits through outflow valve
(ground or in-flight, cold skin)
Intermediate:
Inlet CLOSED
Outlet SMALL FLAP open
(in-flight, hot skin)
FAULTs:
Inlet, Extract, Skin Exchange valves all close
Smoke Config:
Blower fan OFF
Extract fan ON
SKIN EXCHANGE BYPASS close
AC air introduced
200
When do the battery contactors close?
APU starting
Battery Charging
AC BUS 1&2 not powered and \<100kts
201
What does the DITCHING pb do?
Closes:
Cargo Isolation Valve
Avionics inlet and extract valves
RAM AIR
Pack Valves
OUTFLOW valve (if in AUTO)
202
What does the GEN1 line smoke pb do?
GEN 1 contacter opens
AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 (bus tie)
GEN 1 powers one fuel pump per wing tank
203
APU bleed FAULT
APU bleed leak
204
Why press LDG FLAPS 3
Avoid nuisance warnings
Allow landing Memo to be GREEN on Landing Checklist
205
Decel rates
9.8 (2 seconds) / 5.6 (4 seconds)
206
What does a RAT FAULT indicate?
AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered
Emergency Gen not supplying power
207
Batt min voltage
25.6V
208
What does the ADR provide?
B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - AoA
T - Temperature
209
Fuel Value FAULT
Low Pressure
210
211
When do we not need a
Destination Alternate?
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4
* Flight \< 6 hours
* Vis 5 km +
* Ceiling 2,000 feet, or Circling + 500 feet if greater
* Two Separate Runways
212
When can we consider
Runways to be separated?
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4
* Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
* If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.
213
When do we require two
destination alternates?
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3
* If desination weather is unavailable.
* If destination is below planning minima for ETA +/- 1 hour.
* Landing not assured at destination as landing depends on:
1. Specific Wind Component, or,
2. Runway State.
214
When planning for an alternate,
the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO
that the weather will be below limits.
Can this alternate be used?
YES
PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded
215
What is the planning minima
for a
Take-off Alternate?
* At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
* Any limitation related to:
* One Engine Inop, or
* Dispatch under MEL
Shall be taken into consideration
216
Within what distance must a
Take-off alternate be?
* 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop crz speed.
* 320 nm
217
Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?
* A319 - 380 nm
* A320 - 400 nm
218
What is the planning minima
for a destination alternate
if only a NPA
is available?
* MDA + 200 feet
* RVR + 1,000 m
219
How long is a TEMPO forecast
expected to last?
* Individually less than one hour each episode.
* In aggreagate less than half of the period specified.
220
How much extra fuel should be
carried for LVPs?
* Half an hour
* About 1,000 kg
221
What is Final Reserve Fuel?
* 30 minutes holding fuel
* 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate
* ISA Conditions
* Expected Weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.
222
If planning to tanker maximum fuel,
what are the maximum lnding weight
considerations to base your tanker
figure around?
MLW - (1% OF MLW)
* A320 LW = MLW - 660 kg = 65,340 kg
* A319 LW = MLW - 610 kg = 60,390 kg
223
When should you not tanker fuel?
* When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
* When you expect to land on a performance limited runway.
224
What is contingency fuel?
* 5% of trip fuel, or
* 5 minutes holding
* 1,500 feet
* above destination aerodrome
* ISA conditions.
225
What is contingency fuel for?
* Unforseen circumstances:
* Unfavourable FL
* Unfavourable Track
* Unfavourable Unforecast Wind
226
What is the minimum RFF category for
Departure, Destination &
Alternates?
* Departure/Destination:
* 4 (Temp Downgrade \< 72 hours)
* Alternates:
* Non-UK: 4
* UK : 5
227
When can we continue to fly to destination knowing
that we will get there below CNR?
* Landing Assured at Destination
* EAT or Maximum Delay Known
228
What are the RVSM requirements
with regard to aircraft equipment.
* 2 ADRs
* 2 PFDs
* 1 AP
* 1 FCU
* 1 FWC
* 1 Transponder with Mode S
Primary altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.
229
What are the limitations of
LMCs when
applied to an easyJet
Loadsheet?
New Loadsheet required if:
* +10 or -20 Pax
New Perf Calculation if:
* Positive LMC & TOGA take-off planned
* Positive LMC \>250 kg
MACTOW changed by \>2%.
230
What is the minimum
oil quantity?
9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.
231
Fuel Planning:
What is the fuel usage associated with
Engine Anti-Ice?
* 1 kg/min
* 2 kg/min in the hold
232
Fuel Planning:
What is the fuel usage associated with
Engine + Wing Anti-Ice?
* 2 kg/min
* 3 kg/min in the hold
233
Fuel Planning:
What is the fuel usage associated with
Taxiing:
Single Engine & Two Engine Taxi?
* Single Engine: 7 kg/min
* Two Engines: 10 kg/min.
234
Fuel Planning:
What is the fuel usage associated with
APU usage?
* 2 kg/min ( 120 kg/ hour )
235
Fuel Planning:
What are the adjustements to be applied
to the OFP fuel
at the planning stage for
increased or reduced mileage?
* Reduction of mileage: 4 kg/nm
* Increase in mileage: 5 kg/nm
236
When does positioning count as a sector?
* If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
* Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn't count as a sector.
237
When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?
* Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
* \< 3 hours rest: Max extension is NIL
* 3 to 10 hours rest: Max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
238
What are the absolute limits on flying hours?
* 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
* 1 year: 900 hours
239
What are the maximum duty hours?
* 7 Consecutive Days: 55 hours
* (Can be extended to 60 hours due to unforseen delays.)
* 14 Consecutive Days: 95 hours
* 28 Consecutive Days: 190 hours
240
How many hours can you go into
discretion to extend an FDP?
* 2 Hours
* 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
241
When must a discretion report be filed?
* Discretion \> 2 hours
* Reduced rest \> 1 hour
* Exceedance of Cumulative Limits on Flying.
242
By how much can you reduce a rest period?
* Home Base:
* Maximum 1 hour, but
* Not less than 12 hours rest; Flight Deck
* Not less than 11 hours rest; Cabin Crew.
* Away from base:
* minimum requirement is that allocated room be available for a minimum of 10 hours.
243
What are the First Officer
Handling Limitations?
* Maximum Cross Wind: 20 knots
* No planned tailwind for \*\*\* FO
* No Flap 3 landing for \*\*\* FO
* Unless required by an emergency procedure.
* No FO takeoff if VIS \< 400m
* No Contaminated RWY
* No Windshear
* Minimum Runway width 45m
* Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000m.
244
What is the Procedure for reporting a
Bird Strike?
* Inform ATC at the time of the incident.
* Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
245
When may Flex not be
used for Takeoff?
* Contaminated RWY.
* Windshear reported.
246
What is the minimum RVR for Takeoff?
What if you're not LVO qualified?
What visual segment is required?
* 125m
* 150m if not LVO qulaified
* 90m visual segment required.
* This is an a/c design requirement.
* All A320 family compliant.
247
Is the third segment RVR required for
takeoff or landing?
* Only if relevant, i.e.;
* Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the takeoff case (ADS\< 2/3 TODT to be certain.)
* Less than 60 knots in the Landing Roll (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
248
Do you need RVRs for takeoff in LVPs?
or, is met VIS OK?
* Yes, you need RVRs in the LVO takeoff case.
* RVR derived from a conversion from Met VIS is only allowed for LANDING & if the RVR required is \>800m.
249
When do LVPs come into force?
* RVR \< 600m
* Ceiling \< 200 feet
250
How many Infants may be carried onboard?
* 2 per accompanying adult.
251
Circling Approach.
When must you disconnect the AP?
* 100 feet below the MDA.
252
The Dispatcher informs you that
Human Remains are being carried.
Can you Carry them?
What about Ashes?
* No.
* Unless Ashes:
* Suitable Container
* Death Certificate
* Cremation Certificate
* Hand Luggage Only.
253
What are the criteria for carrying
Musical Instruments?
& Specifically Cellos?
* Small musical instruments should be stowed in the overhead locker.
* Where not practical to combine musical instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed.
* Larger Instruments eg Cellos:
* Seat to be purchased
* Window Seat
* Not a restricted Seat
* Centre of mass \< 30 cm above top of seat cushion.
* Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment.)
254
A passenger arrives on a stretcher,
can we carry him?
No
255
When do we not need a destination alternate?
- Flight time 2000ft
\*5km
\* Ceiling + 500ft
256
When do we require two destination alternates?
- When no WX information for dest available
- When WX below planning minima
- Landing performance requirements can not be assured at destination due dependence on specific wind component or runway state.
257
What WX must you take into account with regards to ceiling / RVR vs approach types?
RVR should be taken into account.
If non precision and circling, ceiling should also be taken into account.
258
When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a prob/temp that the weather will be below limits.
Can this alternate be used?
YES as a PROB TEMPO may be disregarded.
259
When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a TEMPO / PROB30/40 (both alone) that the weather will be below limits.
Can this alternate be used?
If transient / showery then it can be disregarded.
If it is persistent (e.g fog) then needs to be considered. Mean wind should be within limits but gusts can be disregarded
260
What is the planning minima for a take off alternate?
- Minimum for expected instrument approach
- Taking into account OEI & MEL items
- Within 1 hour flight time OEI (max 320)
- Increased landing minima if OVW
261
Alternate distances:
T/O Alt: 320
319 Dest: 380
320 Dest: 400
262
What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non precision approach is available?
MDA+ 200 / RVR + 1000
263
What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if Cat 2 approach available?
CAT 1
264
What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a circling approach is available?
Circling Minima
265
How long is a temp forecast expected to last for?
- Less than an hour
- If in aggregate, less than half the total period
266
What is FINAL RESERVE?
- Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed
- 1500ft overheard alternate
- ISA conditions. Weight expected at ALT
267
If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations?
MLW - 1% / MTOW - 1%
TANKER fuel accounts for certified max weights but CANNOT allow for T/O / LDG weight limitations due to runway / climb performance requirements.
268
When can you NOT tanker fuel?
- Contaminated / slippery runways
- Performance limited runways
269
For fuel planning purposes, what is associated fuel usage with EAI + WAI in climb / cruise & hold
CLIMB:
EAI: 1.1kg EAI + WAI = 2
Cruise:
EAI: 1 EAI + WAI 2
Hold:
EAI: 2 EAI + WAI: 3
270
What is contingency fuel:
Fuel to cover for unforeseen circumstances. Can be burnt after push back / engine start.
- 5% of panned trip (or remaining trip if re=plan)
- 5 mins holding, 1500ft, ISA, Dest Aerodrome
When STAT figures available, contingency will be the greater of STAT95 / STAT99 (select pairs) or 5 minutes.
