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5. COAS > Tech interview questions > Flashcards

Tech interview questions Flashcards

1
Q

When is the energy warning inhibited?

A

F - Flaps 1 or 0
A - Alpha Floor
T - TOGA
G - GPWS alert
R - Dual RA failure
A - Altitude above 2000’ RA and below 100’ RA
N - Normal law not active

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2
Q

Function of the FADEC

A

S - Start sequencing
E - Engine limits based on TLA
M - Metering
I - Indications

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3
Q

When are PWS alerts inhibited?

A
  • During Takeoff above 100 knots until 50ft AGL during
  • During approach from 50ft. until 60kts.
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4
Q

What is available in the cockpit during Emer Electrical Configuration?

A

RMP 1

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5
Q

What are the 8 phases of flights for the MCDU and when does it transition?

A

Preflight - engine start
Takeoff - TO power
Climb - Accel Alt
Cruise - TOC
Descent - descent within 200nm from destination
Approach - when APPR armed or decel point
GA - TOGA
Done - on ground for 30 seconds, engines shutdown

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6
Q

How long does the Battery last on ADRIU 1?

A

40-45 minutes

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7
Q

If during engine start with p. brake on, the ac starts to move, what are the actions?

A

Release the P. Brake handle to restore norm braking with pedals

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8
Q

When does autoskid stop?

A

20 knots

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9
Q

If on the alt braking sys, what is required in order to maintain Anti-Skid?

A

1 channel of the BSCU

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10
Q

If simul failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

Level 3 warning first
Level 2, then Level 1

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11
Q

When does the AC leave A. FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

A

Reaching lower AoA
TOGA LK

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12
Q

When does the Landing memo appear and disappear?

A

<2000 agl
GA if not above 2200 =>appears <800 during appr
Disappears at 80 kts

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13
Q

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle?

A

Bleed demands
App Config
High Engine or IDG temps

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14
Q

If LGCIU 1 fails, will the lights still work?

A

Yes, as long as it is still powered

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15
Q

What will cause a Fire Warning?

A

Both loops A and B send fire signal
One loop sends signal and other has failed
Breaks occur in both loops within 5 s of each other
Test performed

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16
Q

If the STS pb is pressed with no Status, what is displayed?

A

NORMAL
for 5 seconds

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17
Q

When would you perform quick alignment of the ADIRS and how long does it take?

A

If the FMGC position is >5nm off

30 seconds

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18
Q

Max NW/S with tiller

A

75 degrees of cntr

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19
Q

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight

A

Press and hold the A/THR disc for 15 seconds.
You lost A. FLOOR.
Can not restore

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20
Q

How can the crew verify the parking brake is set

A

ECAM PARKING BRK
Triple indicator

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21
Q

When to abort an AUTO start?

A

L - Loss of upper and/or lower screen
E - Loss of Electrical power
E - ECAM mesage
T - Tailpipe fire

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22
Q

What would prevent the wx display on the ND?

A

Mode selector in PLAN
TERR ON

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23
Q

What is the function of the 2 LGCIUs?

A

O - Operation

S - Sequencing
I - Indications for LD GR
M - Monitoring
S - Signals On ground or In flight

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24
Q

When will the auto retration system op?

A

CONF 1+F
210 knts

auto retract to 0

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25
Q

In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed, when…

A

Ground spoilers armed
Both mains on grd
both levers at or below CLB

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26
Q

What effect does setting the p. brake have on other braking modes?

A

All other braking modes deactivated and anti-skid is deactivated

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27
Q

When does auto pitch trim freeze?

A

Manual pitch trim order from pilot
<50ft
load factor <0.5
High Speed Protection

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28
Q

What does illumination of the ATC fail indicate?

A

Only the selected transponder has failed

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29
Q

What is the signif of selecting the NAV key on the RMP?

A

The FMGS cannot auto-tune
RMP controls VOR/ILS
NAV key on RMP has no effect
Normal radio comm is avail

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30
Q

When useing the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

A

Reduces at 40kts until 0 at 140kts

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31
Q

Can you takeoff with HOT brakes?

A

Yes, IF ECAM during TO roll at pilot’s discretion.
Delay retraction until cooled.

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32
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the GREEN system?

A

Landing Gear
Slats AND Flaps

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33
Q

Info from ILS 1 is displayed where?

A

CA PFD
FO ND

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34
Q

What happens when you press the FIRE pb?

A

8 items
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Closes the low pressure fuel valve
Deactivates the IDG
Closes the pack flow control valve
Closes the engine bleed valve
Cuts off FADEC power supply

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35
Q

When will grnd spoilers ALWAYS deploy?

A

At least 1 lever to IDLE REV

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36
Q

How is appr idle different on the NEO?

A

CEO:
Flaps extended

NEO:
CONF 3 or FULL when LDG GR down

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37
Q

What happens with the A/skid and N/W STRG is switched OFF?

A

Loss of NWS
Braking on the YELLOW
A/SKID deactivated

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38
Q

When is A. FLOOR protection active

A

T.O. until 100 AGL on landing

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39
Q

What shoudl the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Match the TLA with ENG output

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40
Q

When would you be in DIRECT LAW?

A

3 - Triple IR failure
2 - Dual RA failure
1 - L/G down in ALT

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41
Q

What happens when you disengage the A/THR with the pb?

A

Thrust lock, and single chime every 5 seconds

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42
Q

ENG Start FAULT light

A

H - HP fuel valve disagreement
A - Auto start abort
S - Start valve fault

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43
Q

What is the power source of the FADEC?

A

Alternator >10%
If ALT fails - AC elec power

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44
Q

When does the blue pump start?

A

After first engine start

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45
Q

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A

After failure on SD and all items cleared
Reappear when slats extended

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46
Q

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

A

Slats and Flaps half speed

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47
Q

What does the cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO?

A

Steady:
Auto dry cranking about to begin and timer indicates the time left until begins

Pulsing:
Auto dry crank in progress

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48
Q

What would occur if the A/skid & NW/S switch were selected OFF?

A

NW/S lost
Anti-skid deactived
YELLOW supplies brakes

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49
Q

Pros of landing FULL flaps

A

Reduced landing distance
Reduced Tailstrike risk
Better GA performance (20 only)
Faster Decel to Vapp
Slower Vapp
Easier on tire

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50
Q

If no hyd power is avail, what is the impact on the THS?

A

Requires GRN or YELLOW to function!

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51
Q

What are the Normal Law Protections?

A

B - Bank angle protection (=)
P - Pitch angle protection (=)
L - Load factor protection
A - Angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) S - Speed protection (=)

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52
Q

When is windshear detection functional?

A

1300 - 50 AGL (TO and landing)
CONF 1 or greater

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53
Q

What 3 things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?

A
  1. GREEN press removed
  2. Gear doors opened
  3. Uplocks released
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54
Q

What would cause a ADIRU fault?

A

Measure - inputted position error
Movement - off and on over 1 degree Lat or Long
Minute - 1 min left and still no position
Motion - AC moved during alignment

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55
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LK?

A

Push the disconnect A/THR pbs and move the lever to the CL detent

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56
Q

Flashing amber ILS on PFD means…

A

APPR mode armed, and ILS pb not selected

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57
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A

Flameout detection
Failure of EIU
Sun-idle or surge
Master switch cycled
Anti-ice on
Approach Idle
Max/FLEX power

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58
Q

What happens when you press the APU Fire pb?

A

8 items
Shuts down the APU
Silences the aural warning
Arms the squib
Closes the low-press fuel valve
Shuts off the APU fuel pump
Deactivates the APU Generator
Closes the APU bleed valve
Closes the X bleed valve

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59
Q

What warnings are NOT inhibited with the TO INHIBIT displayed?

A

A - APU fire

E - Engine fire
E - Eng failure
L - L+R Elev FAULT

F- FWC 1+2 FAULT
A - A/P OFF
C - CONFIG
E - Engine oil low press

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60
Q

When is the WX/TURB mode avail?

A

Range of 40 nm or less

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61
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the YELLOW system?

A

Flaps

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62
Q

What is the thrust limiation with p. brake on

A

1.15 EPR

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63
Q

What is the thrust of the V2533?

A

32,500

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64
Q

When would you be in ALT LAW?

A

T - THS Jam
R - Multi Redundant system failures
A - Dual ADR (or IR) failure (OEB 48)
S - Sidestick failure
H - Dual Hydraulic Failure

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65
Q

What is the thrust of the V2527?

A

27,000

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66
Q

When does the engine bleed valves close?

A

A - APU Bleed ON
S – Start valved ON
O – Overpressure
L – Bleed Leak
O– Overheat

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67
Q

What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using TOGA on RWY without LOC?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

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68
Q

What the systems downstream of the hydraulic priority valve for the BLUE system?

A

Emergency Generator
Slats

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69
Q

What would be the normal FMA ind during TO roll using FLEX on RWY with LOC?

A

MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

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70
Q

With the EWD on the lower screen, how do you get the SD info?

A

Press and hold the system buttons
Displayed for 30 seconds

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71
Q

What happens if 280kts and select gear down?

A

Safety valve inhibits hydraulics until 260 kts

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72
Q

What indication does the EWD provide for secondary failures?

A

*

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73
Q

What width is a narrow runway?

A

98ft

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74
Q

What does the boxed STS indicate on the EWD?

A

The STATUS page holds messages other than Canceled cautions
Flashes after engine shutdown to alert mx of other messages

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75
Q

If the FCU fails, what mode and dis range should be expected on the ND?

A

ROSE NAV and 80 nm

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76
Q

TOD and Continue Des arrow are displayed in blue and white, difference?

A

TOD - White (never armed)
Continue Descent - Blue = FINAL APP engagement, where final descent will begin automatically
White=FINAL APP will not engage

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77
Q

What happens when you press EXP?

A

Climbs at Green Dot
Descends at 340kts (M.80)

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78
Q

LO and MED ABRAKES decel rates

A

LOW:
4 seconds at 5.6ft/s/s

MED:
2 seconds at 9.8ft/s/s

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79
Q

What are the FAC Functions?

A

Y - Yaw control (damping, turn coordination, rudder limiter, and rudder trim)
A - Airspeed protection computation
(Alpha prot. High/Low limits, maneuver speed low speed limits PFD speed scale)
W - windshear protection
L - Low energy warning protection (speed, speed, speed)

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80
Q

What is the thrust of the V2524?

A

23,500

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81
Q

When is Alpha Floor inhibited?

A

100.6 - < 100 feet on approach / > M .6 (647-on, NEO, 321s)
N - Non-Normal Law
E - EIU (engine interface unit) fails
E - Engine-out and slats/flaps ext
D - N1 degraded mode

F - FAC and opposite SFCC fails
F - Both FCU failure
F - Both FMGCs fail

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82
Q

When are the Wing Tip Brakes engaged?

A

R - Runaway
O - Overspeed
A - Asymmetry
M – Movement (un-commanded)

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83
Q

When will the FADEC abort an auto start?

A

Hot Start
Stalled Start
No IGN

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84
Q

What information comes from ADR computers?

A

B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - Angle of Attack
T - Temperature
S - Speed/ Mach

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85
Q

What does a FAULT on the ENG panel mean

A

Auto start ABORT
HP valve disagreement

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86
Q

What is the thrust of the PW1100?

A

27,000

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87
Q

Autobrakes LOW Decel rate

A

5.6 ft/s^2

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88
Q

When is RA TRK engaged?

A

30 feet after TO, it maintains your track vector on climb out

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89
Q

If there are any auto functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the auto logic

A

DMC 1 fails (or DMC 3 selected), DMC 2 drives the ECAM

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90
Q

What are the 6 steps for the obstacle driftdown?

A
  1. MCT
  2. A/THR OFF
  3. Notify ATC
  4. Decel to Green Dot
  5. Cruise FL
  6. ECAM actions
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91
Q

ELAC Functions

A

N - Normal Elevator, aileron, pitch and roll
A - Alternate Pitch
D - Direct pitch and roll
A - Abnormal attitude
A - Aileron Droop
A - Autopilot Orders

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92
Q

If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak…

A

CEO:
Run for 5 minutes, if stops…GO

NEO:
Abort

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93
Q

What are the limitations with a narrow runway?

A

May not:
inop NWS
inop one or more brakes

No Autoland

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94
Q

On the grnd, how can the A/THR be armed?

A

TOGA or FLEX
At least one FD ON

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95
Q

If icing conditions exist on ground, what is the run-up procedure for CEO and NEO?

A

CEO:
15 mins 50%

NEO:
30 mins 60%

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96
Q

The gnd spoilers retract:

A

When thrust set to idle after landing
When ONE lever above idle
After a rejected TO, when grnd spoilers DISARMED
Touch and GO, when one lever is advanced > 20 degrees

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97
Q

Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the trim wheel in NORMAL LAW?

A

Can be turned manually
AP disconnects

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98
Q

What are the indic on the DU if a DMC has failed?

A

INVALID DATA

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99
Q

What information comes from the IR computers?

A

F - Flight path vector
A - Aircraft position
T - Track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Ground Speed

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100
Q

What are the available approach strategies?

A

APP NAV - RNAV, VOR
FPA - LOC
Selected-Selected - Like FPA but selecting TRK

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101
Q

What is Alpha Lock?

A

inhibits flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at high AoA and low AS

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102
Q

What are the four sensors for the ADRs?

A 
Pitot probes (3) 
Static Pressure Probes (6) 
AoA sensors (3) 
TAT probes (2)
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103
Q

What capabilities does the RADAR sys have?

A

Weather Avoidance
Turb detection
Terr Mapping
PWS

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104
Q

What does the Hydraulic Engine pump FAULT indicate?

A

P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure

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105
Q

What does the Hydraulic Electric pump FAULT indicate?

A

P - Pump low pressure
O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure
O - Overheated pump

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106
Q

When would perform a full alignment on the ADIRS and how long does it take?

A

First flight of day
Change of Flight Crew
GPS not available
except poor NAVAIR coverage

10 minutes

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107
Q

When are Speed Brakes inhibited?

A

S - SEC 1 and Sec 3 Failure
A - Alpha Prot or Alpha Floor
F - Flaps in configuration FULL (and configuration 3 for A321)
E - failure of one Elevator
T - TOGA on thrust levers

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108
Q

What types of failures are presented to the crew?

A

Independent - does not affect other systems
Primary
Secondary

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109
Q

What are the crosswind limitations for narrow runways?

A

Wet …33 knots (gusts included)
Contaminated … 10 knots (gusts included)
Icy … not demonstrated

110
Q

What redundancy doest he FADEC have?

A

Dual channels

111
Q

When does the cont ign op?

A

Flameout detected
EIU fails
Surge
Master cycled
Eng anti-ice
App idle
MAX/FLEX power

112
Q

Pros of landing flaps 3

A

Better:
Handling in strong crosswinds
Windshear escape performance
GA performance (19and 21)
Faster Vapp
Economical
Noise Reduction
Emissions Reduction

113
Q

What does the Hydraulic PTU pump FAULT indicate?

A

O - Overheated Reservoir
L - Low reservoir quantity
L - Low reservoir air pressure

114
Q

When does the TO memo appear and disappear?

A

2 minutes after 2nd engine start
Removed after TO power

115
Q

Colors of flight plans?

A

Active - cont green
Secondary - con white
Missed - con blue
Temp - dash yellow
Alt - dashed blue

116
Q

When do you select TOGA during a TO?

A

Contaminated Runway
Windshear Warning
+/- 10 degrees of Ambient
Per Dispatch
Per SID (required climb rate)

117
Q

What would the FMA indicate during TO if the A/THR didn’t ARM and the runway has a LOC?

A

SRS, RWY
Continue TO and manually turn on A/THR at TRA

118
Q

What does the Pack FAULT indicate?

A

P - Pack outlet overheat
C - Compressor outlet overheat
S - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve

119
Q

***The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servo is available on each side when:

A

grnd spoilers fully ext
Flaps > 0
Pitch > 2.5 degrees
Flying manually
Normal Law

120
Q

When selectingthe flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or >, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?

A

CONF 1+F
Max of 215kts, but auto retract at 210 knts

121
Q

What are the TO CONF warnings?

A

Slats and flaps not in TO Range
Pitched trim not in TO range, rud trim more than 3.5
Speed breaks not retracted
Side stick FAULT
Hot brakes
Door not closed
P. Brake on
Flex temp not set

122
Q

When will the grnd spoilers auto retract?

A

IDLE and speed brake lever down
When at leaset 1 lever above IDLE

123
Q

What happens at Alpha Prot?

A

A - AOA is commanded instead of load factor
S - Speed brake retracted
A - Autopilot disengages
P - Pitch trim up is inhibited.

124
Q

Autobrakes MED Decel rate

A

9.8 ft/s^2

125
Q

What is the scanned area of the predictive ws feature?

A

up to 5nm when below 1500 AGL

126
Q

When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

A

When slats are extended with landing gear down
On approach after glide slop capture

127
Q

When is the side stick position indicator displayed?

A

After 1st engine start
Disappears after TO

128
Q

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

A

Excessive LOC or GS deviation
Signal failure
RA differ by 15 ft
Both AP fail

129
Q

What happens when the AP flys into a DISCON?

A

NAV mode becomes HDG/TRK mode

130
Q

What happens when FLEX TEMP not entered?

A

A warning will be generated
Move to TOGA

131
Q

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action would you take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. Procedure in the COM.

132
Q

What is the normal mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode with one master and one slave

133
Q

What does Activating the Appr do?

A

Allow thrust and speed target follow the flap schedule
Green Dot
S Speed
F Speed
F Speed
Vapp

GSmini is avail when managed speed

134
Q

What are the 3 modes of the FMGC

A

Indep
Single
Dual

135
Q

What are the functions of the FMGC?

A

Flight Guidance
Flight Management

136
Q

What the components of the FMGS?

A

FMGC
MCDUs
FCU
FACs

137
Q

What 2 conditions would cause an external horn?

A

ADRIUs on Battery Power
Avionics BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT

138
Q

When should you consider a manual start?

A

Degraded bleed performance (hot or high AP)
Marginal performance of the ext or APU air
Tailwind >10kts
After aborting because of:
Engine stall
EGT overtemp
N1 rotation
Hung Start
IGN A/B Fault

139
Q

When will the start valve auto close?

A

43% CEO
55% NEO

140
Q

What happens when the ENG MAN START pb is pressed?

A

Start Valve opens
Packs Close
FADEC power supply continues for 5 minutes
(NEO FADEC power is cut off)

141
Q

How long will the auto start dry crank the engine?

A

CEO: 30 seconds
NEO: 2 minutes

142
Q

What does the DISCH light mean?

A

Halon has been discharged by either pilot or by a FAULT

143
Q

What do the priority valves on the hyd do?

A

Removes power from the heavy users to protect the flight controls

144
Q

What can be done for LOW ACCUM pressure?

A

Inform mx
Turn BEACON ON
engage Yellow hyd pump

145
Q

How is the BATT BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through DC tie connector

146
Q

How is bleed leak dection differ on the NEO

A

If BMC fails on the NEO, overtemp protection is lost on that side.

147
Q

Explain sources of the ELEC generation and their priorities.

A

G - Generators
E - External Power
A - APU
R - Ram Air Turbine
B - Batteries

148
Q

In flight in normal ops, which generator has the higher load? why?

A

Generator 1.

  • Supplies AC BUS 1 + DC BUS 1
  • Galley and Cabin
149
Q

What does the EMER GEN power?

A

AC ESS and DC ESS (via essential TR)

150
Q

How long does it take the emergency generator take to come online?

What is powering the a/c in the meanwhile?

What is then powered in the flight deck?

A
  • eight seconds
  • Batteries
  • PFD 1, ND 1, Upper DU, FMGC 1
    (Pitch) (Power)
151
Q

What is the purpose of GEN 1 Line?

A

Generator keeps running, but disconnects AC BUS 1.

It runs one fuel pump in each fuel tank.
Generator 2 takes the load of AC BUS 1 via the bus tie break

152
Q

Under what circumstances will the RAT extend automatically?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 +2

153
Q

What is the difference between switching the Generator and IDG off?

A

IDG’s can only be restored on the ground (guarded switch). Generators can be restored at any time.

IDG - Mechanical linkage between engine and generator.

154
Q

What is the purpose of selecting the APU Master switch ON in the Removal of smoke checklist?

A

It connects the third motor of the outflow valve to the battery bus bar in order to control it.

155
Q

Under what circumstances will the RAT extend automatically?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 + 2

156
Q

At what altitude can the APU be started in the Emergency Elec config? why?

A

25.000ft.
APU Battery Restart Limit in EMER ELEC.

157
Q

Under normal ops, what altitude can the APU support electrical load and bleed demand?

A

Electrical demand = up to Max cruise

Electrical + Bleed Air = 22.500ft.

158
Q

Name the sources of power for each of the hydraulic systems

A

Green = ENG 1 Pump

Blue = ELEC Pump + RAT

Yellow = ENG 2 Pump + Elec Pump + Hand pump

159
Q

what services does the

  • green
  • yellow
  • blue

system power?

A

Priority valves:

Green = L/G + Slats/Flaps

Blue = EMER GEN + Flaps

Yellow = Flaps

160
Q

How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? Why?

A

Automatically pressured from
ENG 1 HP bleed air.

If the pressure becomes too low, it takes bleed air pressure from the crossbleed duct.

161
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic priority valves?

A

Cut off hydraulic users to ensure functionality of the most important Flight control surfaces.

162
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators?

A

It provides constant pressure by covering transient demands during normal operation.

163
Q

Explain the purpose of the PTU.

A

Power transfer unit.
Transfers power between Green and Yellow system if the differential pressure becomes greater than 500psi

164
Q

What is the normal system pressure of the three hydraulic systems?

A

3000psi.

165
Q

What pressure would expect when the RAT is powering the blue system?

A

2500psi.

166
Q

Explain the function of ground speed mini.

A

App = VLS + 1/3 HW component

167
Q

How many motors drive the outflow valve? why?

A

Three. Two from the CPC and one from the APU

168
Q

SMOKE REMOVAL C/L

In the emergency electrical configuration, what is the purpose of turning the generators back at three minutes or 2000ft AGL?

A

Restore generators to recover normal breaking and breaking performance.

If the generators are off for more than two minutes, then ADR 2+3 will not be recovered during flight (Direct law when gear down).

169
Q

EGPWS memory item

A

AP OFF
FULL BACK STICK
TOGA
SPEED BRAKE …RETRACTED
WINGS LEVEL

If safe, initiate a turn

170
Q

Why would flaps not be at 0 on preflight?

A

Winter - FULL Snow/Ice on Flaps
Summer - CONF 1 >40C Anti-Ice overheat

171
Q

What would cause the GEN 1 line smoke light to illum?

A

Smoke in avionics bay

172
Q

Galley and Cabin FAULT

A

Generator load >100%

173
Q

How do you get to Direct Law?

A

1 - Gear in ALT
2 - 2 RAs
3 - 3 ADIRUs

174
Q

What’s on the BLUE hyd?

A

E. Gen
Slats

175
Q

FADEC functions

A

A - Auto Start Sequence
T - Thrust Reverser Control
T - Thrust Control Malfunction
E - Engine Limits
M - Manual Start Sequence
P - Power Management
T - Transmits engine data
E - Engine Stall Protection
D - Detection of failures

G - Gas Generator Control
F - Fuel Recirulation
C - cooling FADEC

176
Q

What’s on the YELLOW hyd?

A

Flaps
NW/S
Alt Braking
Engine 2 Reverser

177
Q

When will pax masks auto deploy?

A

14,000 cabin pressure

178
Q

What does the IR provide?

A

F - Flight Path Vector
A - Aircraft Position
T - AC track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Groundspeed

179
Q

Cabin Press FAULT

A

Failure of both Cabin Pressure Controllers
ECAM, manual mode

180
Q

What are the functions of the LGCIUs?

A

M - Monitoring
I - Indications
S - Sequencing
O - Operation

S - Signals other aircraft (ground or flight)

181
Q

What do you do when A/THR fails?

A

ECAM actions
Switch to AP2

182
Q

ENG FAULT light

A

H - HP fuel valve disagree
A - Aborted Start
S - Start Valve Fault

183
Q

How does the pax O2 sys work?

A

Oxygen generators for 15 minutes

184
Q

GEN FAULT

A

GCU failure
Open contactor

185
Q

Side Stick Priority Light

A

–

186
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

Ground

Split Master Switches
+
NW/S discon
OR
P. Brake ON

40 seconds after Cargo Door

187
Q

What powers the screens?

A

DMC 1 and 2
If fails “INVALID DATA”

188
Q

How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated?

A

RESET control slide (not auto)

189
Q

What does an ANTI-ICE FAULT mean?

A

Position of the VALVE DISAGREES with commanded position

190
Q

Unrel A/S memory item

A

AP…OFF
FD…OFF
A/THR…OFF
PITCH/POWER
15/TOGA
10/CLB
5/CLB
Maintain CONF 3 or less
Speed brakes…retract
LDG Gear…UP

191
Q

Lowest ALT for CAT 1 when AP with CAT 2 and 3 avail

A

80 ft

192
Q

What does the FIRE pb do?

A

Silences Alarm
Arms Squibs
Closes LP fuel
Closes Hyd Fire shutoff
Disconnects IDG
Closes Packs
Closes ENG bleed
Cuts off FADEC power

193
Q

What are the cabin press modes?

A

Automatic
Semi-automatic
Manual

194
Q

What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cyl discharge?

A

Green disk on lower left side missing

195
Q

What would be other indications of smoke in av bay?

A

ECAM warning
BLOWER FAULT
EXTRACT FAULT

196
Q

Name the 5 GPWS modes

A

Excessive Terrain Closure
Excessive descent rate
Far below G/S
Sink rate in TO or GA
Excessive Terrain Closure when not in landing config

197
Q

What’s on the GREEN hyd?

A

Landing Gear
Normal Brakes
Flaps and Slats
Engine 1 Reverser

198
Q

When would you press the FLAPS GPWS pb?

A

When directed by the ECAM, when landing

199
Q

What are the ventilation configurations?

A

Open:
Inlet and Outlet Flaps OPEN
(on ground, hot skin)

Closed:
Inlet and Outlet Flaps CLOSED
SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS open
exits through outflow valve
(ground or in-flight, cold skin)

Intermediate:
Inlet CLOSED
Outlet SMALL FLAP open
(in-flight, hot skin)

FAULTs:
Inlet, Extract, Skin Exchange valves all close

Smoke Config:
Blower fan OFF
Extract fan ON
SKIN EXCHANGE BYPASS close
AC air introduced

200
Q

When do the battery contactors close?

A

APU starting
Battery Charging
AC BUS 1&2 not powered and <100kts

201
Q

What does the DITCHING pb do?

A

Closes:
Cargo Isolation Valve
Avionics inlet and extract valves
RAM AIR
Pack Valves
OUTFLOW valve (if in AUTO)

202
Q

What does the GEN1 line smoke pb do?

A

GEN 1 contacter opens
AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 (bus tie)
GEN 1 powers one fuel pump per wing tank

203
Q

APU bleed FAULT

A

APU bleed leak

204
Q

Why press LDG FLAPS 3

A

Avoid nuisance warnings
Allow landing Memo to be GREEN on Landing Checklist

205
Q

Decel rates

A

9.8 (2 seconds) / 5.6 (4 seconds)

206
Q

What does a RAT FAULT indicate?

A

AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered
Emergency Gen not supplying power

207
Q

Batt min voltage

A

25.6V

208
Q

What does the ADR provide?

A

B - Baro Altitude
O - Overspeed
A - AoA
T - Temperature

209
Q

Fuel Value FAULT

A

Low Pressure

210
Q
A
211
Q

When do we not need a

Destination Alternate?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Flight < 6 hours
  • Vis 5 km +
  • Ceiling 2,000 feet, or Circling + 500 feet if greater
  • Two Separate Runways
212
Q

When can we consider

Runways to be separated?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
  • If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.
213
Q

When do we require two

destination alternates?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3

A
  • If desination weather is unavailable.
  • If destination is below planning minima for ETA +/- 1 hour.
  • Landing not assured at destination as landing depends on:
  1. Specific Wind Component, or,
  2. Runway State.
214
Q

When planning for an alternate,

the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO

that the weather will be below limits.

Can this alternate be used?

A

YES

PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded

215
Q

What is the planning minima

for a

Take-off Alternate?

A
  • At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
  • Any limitation related to:
  • One Engine Inop, or
  • Dispatch under MEL

Shall be taken into consideration

216
Q

Within what distance must a

Take-off alternate be?

A
  • 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop crz speed.
  • 320 nm
217
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A
  • A319 - 380 nm
  • A320 - 400 nm
218
Q

What is the planning minima

for a destination alternate

if only a NPA

is available?

A
  • MDA + 200 feet
  • RVR + 1,000 m
219
Q

How long is a TEMPO forecast

expected to last?

A
  • Individually less than one hour each episode.
  • In aggreagate less than half of the period specified.
220
Q

How much extra fuel should be

carried for LVPs?

A
  • Half an hour
  • About 1,000 kg
221
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel?

A
  • 30 minutes holding fuel
  • 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate
  • ISA Conditions
  • Expected Weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.
222
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel,

what are the maximum lnding weight

considerations to base your tanker

figure around?

A

MLW - (1% OF MLW)

  • A320 LW = MLW - 660 kg = 65,340 kg
  • A319 LW = MLW - 610 kg = 60,390 kg
223
Q

When should you not tanker fuel?

A
  • When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
  • When you expect to land on a performance limited runway.
224
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A
  • 5% of trip fuel, or
  • 5 minutes holding
    • 1,500 feet
    • above destination aerodrome
    • ISA conditions.
225
Q

What is contingency fuel for?

A
  • Unforseen circumstances:
    • Unfavourable FL
    • Unfavourable Track
    • Unfavourable Unforecast Wind
226
Q

What is the minimum RFF category for

Departure, Destination &

Alternates?

A
  • Departure/Destination:
    • 4 (Temp Downgrade < 72 hours)
  • Alternates:
    • Non-UK: 4
    • UK : 5
227
Q

When can we continue to fly to destination knowing

that we will get there below CNR?

A
  • Landing Assured at Destination
  • EAT or Maximum Delay Known
228
Q

What are the RVSM requirements

with regard to aircraft equipment.

A
  • 2 ADRs
  • 2 PFDs
  • 1 AP
  • 1 FCU
  • 1 FWC
  • 1 Transponder with Mode S

Primary altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.

229
Q

What are the limitations of

LMCs when

applied to an easyJet

Loadsheet?

A

New Loadsheet required if:

  • +10 or -20 Pax

New Perf Calculation if:

  • Positive LMC & TOGA take-off planned
  • Positive LMC >250 kg

MACTOW changed by >2%.

230
Q

What is the minimum

oil quantity?

A

9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.

231
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine Anti-Ice?

A
  • 1 kg/min
  • 2 kg/min in the hold
232
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine + Wing Anti-Ice?

A
  • 2 kg/min
  • 3 kg/min in the hold
233
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Taxiing:

Single Engine & Two Engine Taxi?

A
  • Single Engine: 7 kg/min
  • Two Engines: 10 kg/min.
234
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

APU usage?

A
  • 2 kg/min ( 120 kg/ hour )
235
Q

Fuel Planning:

What are the adjustements to be applied

to the OFP fuel

at the planning stage for

increased or reduced mileage?

A
  • Reduction of mileage: 4 kg/nm
  • Increase in mileage: 5 kg/nm
236
Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

A
  • If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
  • Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
237
Q

When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?

A
  • Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
  • < 3 hours rest: Max extension is NIL
  • 3 to 10 hours rest: Max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
238
Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

A
  • 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
  • 1 year: 900 hours
239
Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

A
  • 7 Consecutive Days: 55 hours
    • (Can be extended to 60 hours due to unforseen delays.)
  • 14 Consecutive Days: 95 hours
  • 28 Consecutive Days: 190 hours
240
Q

How many hours can you go into

discretion to extend an FDP?

A
  • 2 Hours
  • 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
241
Q

When must a discretion report be filed?

A
  • Discretion > 2 hours
  • Reduced rest > 1 hour
  • Exceedance of Cumulative Limits on Flying.
242
Q

By how much can you reduce a rest period?

A
  • Home Base:
    • Maximum 1 hour, but
      • Not less than 12 hours rest; Flight Deck
      • Not less than 11 hours rest; Cabin Crew.
  • Away from base:
    • minimum requirement is that allocated room be available for a minimum of 10 hours.
243
Q

What are the First Officer

Handling Limitations?

A
  • Maximum Cross Wind: 20 knots
  • No planned tailwind for *** FO
  • No Flap 3 landing for *** FO
    • Unless required by an emergency procedure.
  • No FO takeoff if VIS < 400m
  • No Contaminated RWY
  • No Windshear
  • Minimum Runway width 45m
  • Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000m.
244
Q

What is the Procedure for reporting a

Bird Strike?

A
  • Inform ATC at the time of the incident.
  • Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
245
Q

When may Flex not be

used for Takeoff?

A
  • Contaminated RWY.
  • Windshear reported.
246
Q

What is the minimum RVR for Takeoff?

What if you’re not LVO qualified?

What visual segment is required?

A
  • 125m
  • 150m if not LVO qulaified
  • 90m visual segment required.
    • This is an a/c design requirement.
    • All A320 family compliant.
247
Q

Is the third segment RVR required for

takeoff or landing?

A
  • Only if relevant, i.e.;
    • Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the takeoff case (ADS< 2/3 TODT to be certain.)
    • Less than 60 knots in the Landing Roll (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
248
Q

Do you need RVRs for takeoff in LVPs?

or, is met VIS OK?

A
  • Yes, you need RVRs in the LVO takeoff case.
  • RVR derived from a conversion from Met VIS is only allowed for LANDING & if the RVR required is >800m.
249
Q

When do LVPs come into force?

A
  • RVR < 600m
  • Ceiling < 200 feet
250
Q

How many Infants may be carried onboard?

A
  • 2 per accompanying adult.
251
Q

Circling Approach.

When must you disconnect the AP?

A
  • 100 feet below the MDA.
252
Q

The Dispatcher informs you that

Human Remains are being carried.

Can you Carry them?

What about Ashes?

A
  • No.
  • Unless Ashes:
    • Suitable Container
    • Death Certificate
    • Cremation Certificate
    • Hand Luggage Only.
253
Q

What are the criteria for carrying

Musical Instruments?

& Specifically Cellos?

A
  • Small musical instruments should be stowed in the overhead locker.
  • Where not practical to combine musical instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed.
  • Larger Instruments eg Cellos:
    • Seat to be purchased
    • Window Seat
    • Not a restricted Seat
    • Centre of mass < 30 cm above top of seat cushion.
    • Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment.)
254
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher,

can we carry him?

A

No

255
Q

When do we not need a destination alternate?

A
  • Flight time 2000ft
    *5km

* Ceiling + 500ft

256
Q

When do we require two destination alternates?

A
  • When no WX information for dest available
  • When WX below planning minima
  • Landing performance requirements can not be assured at destination due dependence on specific wind component or runway state.
257
Q

What WX must you take into account with regards to ceiling / RVR vs approach types?

A

RVR should be taken into account.

If non precision and circling, ceiling should also be taken into account.

258
Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a prob/temp that the weather will be below limits.

Can this alternate be used?

A

YES as a PROB TEMPO may be disregarded.

259
Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a TEMPO / PROB30/40 (both alone) that the weather will be below limits.

Can this alternate be used?

A

If transient / showery then it can be disregarded.

If it is persistent (e.g fog) then needs to be considered. Mean wind should be within limits but gusts can be disregarded

260
Q

What is the planning minima for a take off alternate?

A
  • Minimum for expected instrument approach
  • Taking into account OEI & MEL items
  • Within 1 hour flight time OEI (max 320)
  • Increased landing minima if OVW
261
Q

Alternate distances:

A

T/O Alt: 320
319 Dest: 380

320 Dest: 400

262
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non precision approach is available?

A

MDA+ 200 / RVR + 1000

263
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if Cat 2 approach available?

A

CAT 1

264
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a circling approach is available?

A

Circling Minima

265
Q

How long is a temp forecast expected to last for?

A
  • Less than an hour
  • If in aggregate, less than half the total period
266
Q

What is FINAL RESERVE?

A
  • Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed
  • 1500ft overheard alternate
  • ISA conditions. Weight expected at ALT
267
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations?

A

MLW - 1% / MTOW - 1%

TANKER fuel accounts for certified max weights but CANNOT allow for T/O / LDG weight limitations due to runway / climb performance requirements.

268
Q

When can you NOT tanker fuel?

A
  • Contaminated / slippery runways
  • Performance limited runways
269
Q

For fuel planning purposes, what is associated fuel usage with EAI + WAI in climb / cruise & hold

A

CLIMB:
EAI: 1.1kg EAI + WAI = 2

Cruise:
EAI: 1 EAI + WAI 2

Hold:
EAI: 2 EAI + WAI: 3

270
Q

What is contingency fuel:

A

Fuel to cover for unforeseen circumstances. Can be burnt after push back / engine start.

  • 5% of panned trip (or remaining trip if re=plan)
  • 5 mins holding, 1500ft, ISA, Dest Aerodrome

When STAT figures available, contingency will be the greater of STAT95 / STAT99 (select pairs) or 5 minutes.

5. COAS (10 decks)

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