Functional Assessments

Question 1

factors that contribute to flexibility

Answer 1

1) age
2) gender
3) joint structure
4) past injury
5) tissue temperature
6) circadian variations

Question 2

T/F: Females are more flexible than males.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

The increased hydration of intervertebral disks during sleep, and the subsequent swelling of the disks upon waking, has 3 significant implications for flexibility in the lumbar spine

Answer 3

1) swelling accounts for the increased stiffness in the spine during lumbar flexion upon waking
2) lumbar disks and ligaments are at greater risk for injury in the early morning
3) range of motion increases later in the day

Question 4

the principle stating that the activation of a GTO inhibits a muscle spindle response

Answer 4

autogenic inhibition

Question 5

the lengthening of tissue that occurs when a stretch force is applied

Answer 5

creep

Question 6

possible reasons for the increase in range of motion after an acute static-stretching session

Answer 6

1) creep

2) reductions in tension (stress-relaxation response)

Question 7

the principle stating that activation of a muscle on one side of a joint (agonist) coincides with the neural inhibition of the opposing muscle on the other side of the joint (antagonist) to facilitate movement

Answer 7

reciprocal inhibition

Question 8

T/F: An example of reciprocal inhibition is when the gluteus maximus is activated for 6-15 seconds, this reciprocally inhibits the hip flexors temporarily, allowing the hip flexors to be stretched.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

stretch performed by moving the joints to place the targeted muscle group in an end-range position and holding that position for up to 30 seconds

Answer 9

static stretching

Question 10

a reflexive muscle contraction that occurs in response to rapid stretching of the muscle

Answer 10

stretch reflex

Question 11

stretch that occurs when the individual applies added force to increase the intensity of the stretch

Answer 11

active stretch

Question 12

stretch that occurs when a partner or assistive device provides added force for the stretch

Answer 12

passive stretch

Question 13

a method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle; often referred to as a contract/relax method of stretching

Answer 13

proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

Question 14

3 basic types of PNF stretching techniques

Answer 14

1) hold-relax
2) contract-relax
3) hold-relax with agonist contraction

Question 15

An individual holds and resists the force provided by a partner so that an isometric contraction occurs for 6 seconds in the muscle group targeted for the stretch. The individual then relaxes the muscle group and allows for a passive stretch force from the partner (held for 30 seconds) to increase range of motion in the muscle group that was previously in isometric contraction.

Answer 15

hold-relax stretch technique

Question 16

An individual pushes against the force provided by the partner so that a concentric contraction occurs throughout the full range of motion of the muscle group targeted for the stretch.

Answer 16

contract-relax stretch technique

Question 17

identical to the hold-relax technique except that a concentric action of the opposing muscle group is added during the final passive stretch to add to the stretch force

Answer 17

hold-relax with agonist contraction

Question 18

stretch that mimics a movement pattern to be used in the upcoming workout or sporting event

Answer 18

dynamic stretch

Question 19

stretch that incorporates bouncing-type movements

Answer 19

ballistic stretch

Question 20

This stretch is never held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions, with each subsequent movement exceeding the resistance point by a few degrees.

Answer 20

active isolated stretching (AIS)

Question 21

T/F: Proponents of AIS claim that this technique targets specific muscles and prepares the body for physical activity better than static stretching can, while also protecting the joint attachments that static stretching can sometimes weaken.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

technique that applies pressure to tight, restricted areas of fascia and underlying muscle in an attempt to relieve tension and improve flexibility

Answer 22

myofascial release

Question 23

a densely woven, specialized system of connective tissue that covers and unites all of the body’s compartments

Answer 23

fascia

Question 24

purpose of fascia

Answer 24

to surround and support the bodily structure, which provides stability as well as a cohesive direction for the line of pull of muscle groups

Question 25

natural configuration of fascia

Answer 25

relaxed and wavy

Question 26

3 reasons fascia can lose its pliability

Answer 26

physical trauma, scarring, and inflammation

Question 27

T/F: Myofascial release reduces hypertonicity within the muscles.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

a change in the shape of tissue as a result of being subjected to an external force

Answer 28

deformation

Question 29

3 factors that determine the extent of deformation of tissue

Answer 29

1) type of tissue 2) amount of force applied 3) temperature of the tissue

Question 30

T/F: One of the major determinants in long-term adaptations in flexibility is the collagen found in connective tissues.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

T/F: Structures containing small amounts of collagen tend to limit motion and resist stretch.

Answer 31

False large amounts

Question 32

T/F: A collagenous fiber is relatively inextensible when compared to a sarcomere.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

muscle imbalances associated with kyphosis-lordosis posture

Answer 33

Facilitated/Hypertonic (shortened): - hip flexors - lumbar extensors - anterior chest/shoulders - latissimus dorsi - neck extensors Inhibited (lengthened): - hip extensors - external obliques - upper back extensors - scapular stabilizers - neck flexors

Question 34

muscle imbalances associated with flat-back posture

Answer 34

Facilitated/Hypertonic (shortened): - rectus abdominis - upper back extensors - neck extensors - ankle plantar flexors Inhibited (lengthened): - iliacus/psoas major - internal obliques - neck flexors - lumbar extensors

Question 35

muscle imbalances associated with sway-back posture

Answer 35

Facilitated/Hypertonic (shortened): - hamstrings - upper fibers of posterior obliques - lumbar extensors - neck extensors Inhibited (lengthened): - iliacus/psoas major - rectus femoris - external obliques - upper back extensors - neck flexors

Question 36

postural muscles are deeper muscles that contain greater concentrations of this muscle fiber type

Answer 36

type 1 (slow twitch)

Question 37

increased anterior lumbar curve from neutral

Answer 37

lordosis

Question 38

increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Answer 38

kyphosis

Question 39

decreased anterior lumbar curve

Answer 39

flat back

Question 40

decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Answer 40

sway back

Question 41

lateral spinal curvature often accompanied by vertebral rotation

Answer 41

scoliosis

Question 42

correctible factors for muscle imbalance

Answer 42

1) repetitive movements (muscular pattern overload) 2) awkward positions and movements (habitually poor posture) 3) side dominance 4) lack of joint stability 5) lack of joint mobility 6) imbalanced strength-training programs

Question 43

non-correctible factors for muscle imbalance

Answer 43

1) congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis) 2) some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) 3) structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, or femoral anteversion) 4) certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, or amputation)

Question 44

Movement Efficiency Pattern

Answer 44

1) joints are correctly aligned and have muscle balance 2) normal length-tension and force-coupling relationships function efficiently 3) facilitation of proper joint mechanics 4) efficient force acceptance and generation 5) promotes joint stability and mobility 6) promotes movement efficiency

Question 45

General Chronological Plan for a Client

Answer 45

1) Health history and lifestyle information 2) Static postural analysis 3) Identification of correctible postural compensations 4) Administration of appropriate movement screens 5) Stability and mobility training (restorative exercise) 6) Movement training (movement patterns) 7) Progression: load and performance training

Question 46

muscles suspected to be tight when shoulders are not level

Answer 46

upper trapezius, levator scapula, rhomboids

Question 47

muscles suspected to be tight when shoulders are not symmetrical to the midline of the body

Answer 47

lateral trunk flexors (flexed side)

Question 48

muscles suspected to be tight when shoulders are protracted (forward, rounded)

Answer 48

serratus anterior, anterior scapulo-humeral muscles, upper trapezius

Question 49

muscles suspected to be tight with a medially rotated humerus

Answer 49

pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi (shoulder adductors), subscapularis

Question 50

muscles suspected to be tight with kyphosis and depressed chest

Answer 50

shoulder adductors, pectoralis minor, rectus abdominis, internal oblique

Question 51

5 primary movements people perform during daily activities

Answer 51

1) bending/raising and lifting/lowering movements (e.g., squatting) 2) single-leg movements 3) pushing movements 4) pulling movements 5) rotational movements

Question 52

Thoracic Spine Mobility Screen: What is good/acceptable rotation?

Answer 52

45 degrees in both directions

Question 53

Thomas Test for Hip Flexion / Quadriceps Extension (suspected muscle tightness): the back of the lowered thigh does not touch the table and the knee does not flex to 80 degrees

Answer 53

primary hip flexors

Question 54

Thomas Test for Hip Flexion / Quadriceps Extension (suspected muscle tightness): the back of the lowered thigh does not touch the table but the knee does flex to 80 degrees

Answer 54

iliopsoas - prevents the hip from rotating posteriorly and inhibiting the thigh from being able to touch the table

Question 55

Thomas Test for Hip Flexion / Quadriceps Extension (suspected muscle tightness): the back of the lowered thigh does touch the table but the knee does flex to 80 degrees

Answer 55

rectus femoris - does not allow the knee to bend

Question 56

Passive Straight-Leg Raise (PSL) purpose

Answer 56

assess the length of the hamstrings

Question 57

PSL desirable movement

Answer 57

raised leg achieves >= 80 degrees of movement before pelvis rotates posteriorly (tight hamstrings if don't achieve)

Question 58

Desirable shoulder flexion movement

Answer 58

flex shoulders 170-180 degrees (hands touching/nearly touching the floor)

Question 59

Desirable shoulder extension movement

Answer 59

extend shoulders 50-60 degrees off the floor

Question 60

Shoulder flexion mobility issues

Answer 60

1) Tightness in latissimus dorsi - low back arch 2) Tightness of the pectoralis minor - anterior tilt of scapulae 3) Tight abdominals - depression of rib cage 4) Thoracic kyphosis - rounding of thoracic spine

Question 61

Shoulder extension mobility issues

Answer 61

1) Tight abdominals | 2) Tight biceps brachii

Question 62

Desirable external/lateral shoulder rotation

Answer 62

externally rotate 90 degrees and touch mat

Question 63

Desirable internal/medial shoulder rotation

Answer 63

internally rotate 70 degrees toward mat

Question 64

External/lateral shoulder rotation mobility issues

Answer 64

1) Tightness in internal rotators of arm (e.g., subscapularis) 2) Tightness in joint capsule and ligaments

Question 65

Internal/medial shoulder rotation mobility issues

Answer 65

1) Tightness in external rotators of arm (e.g., infraspinatus and teres minor) 2) Tightness in joint capsule and ligaments

Question 66

movements of Apley's Scratch Test for shoulder mobility

Answer 66

1) shoulder flexion and extension 2) internal and external rotation of the humerus at the shoulder 3) scapular abduction and adduction

Question 67

reasons to stop the Sharpened Romberg Test (standing, eyes closed, arms crossed, one foot in front of the other)

Answer 67

1) client loses postural control and balance 2) client's feet move on the floor 3) client's eyes open 4) client's arms move from the folded position 5) client exceeds 60 seconds with good postural control

Question 68

reasons to stop the Stork-Stand Balance Test (standing, hands on hips, bottom foot against lower leg between ankle and knee)

Answer 68

1) hands come off hips 2) stance or supporting foot inverts, exerts, or moves in any direction 3) any part of the elevated foot loses contact with the stance leg 4) the heel of the stance leg touches the floor 5) client loses balance

Question 69

good score/time for Sharpened Romberg Test

Answer 69

>30 seconds

Question 70

good score/time for Stork-Stand Balance Test (males)

Answer 70

``` Excellent: >50 seconds Good: >40 seconds Average: >30 seconds Fair: >20 seconds Poor <20 seconds ```

Question 71

good score/time for Stork-Stand Balance Test (females)

Answer 71

``` Excellent: >30 seconds Good: 25-30 seconds Average: 16-24 seconds Fair: 10-15 seconds Poor <10 seconds ```

Question 72

3 tests of the McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery

Answer 72

1) trunk flexor endurance test 2) trunk lateral endurance test 3) trunk extensor endurance test

Question 73

reasons to terminate trunk flexor endurance test

Answer 73

1) deviation of neutral spine (e.g., shoulders rounding forward) 2) part of back touches the back rest

Question 74

reasons to terminate the trunk lateral endurance test

Answer 74

1) deviation of neutral spine (e.g., hips dropping downward) | 2) hips shifting forward or backward in an effort to maintain balance and stability

Question 75

reason to terminate the trunk extensor endurance test

Answer 75

1) when client can no longer maintain parallel position

Question 76

Desired comparison ratios of trunk, lateral, and extensor tests - flexion:extension; right side:left side bridge; side bridge (each side): extension

Answer 76

Flexion : Extension - ratio less than 1.0 Right side : Left side Bridge - no greater than 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0 (e.g., 0.95 to 1.05) Side Bridge (each side) : Extension - ratio less than 0.75