Gastro Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Patient with Crohns and illeal resection develops kidney stones, what is the composition

A

Ca oxalate

NB applies to ileal resection for any reason

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2
Q

Drugs that commonly cause dyspepsia

A

Steroids
NSAIDs
Nitrates
Theophyllines
Bisphosphonates
Ca channel blockers

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3
Q

Treatment of reflux in pregnancy

A

Antacids and alginates

Note: theses are widely used and as far as is possible to tell are safe. 2nd line tx would be H2 blockers. Conflicting reports about PPIs in pregnancy

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4
Q

1st line treatment of ascites?

A

Depends on severity
if v large volume and symptomatic: paracentesis
if less severe: dietary salt restriction and spironolactone

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5
Q

Patients with irritable bowel syndrome often have food intolerance T/F

A

T

Other features: increased intestinal contractile and electrical activity with increased sensitivity to visceral stimulation

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6
Q

Patients with achalasia are at increased risk of which malignancy

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

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7
Q

What effect has theophylline on the lower oesophageal sphincter

A

Theophylline lowers the pressure of the lower oesophageal sphincter.

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8
Q

Pellegra what deficiency and presentation

A

Niacin (B3)

Dementia
Dermatitis
Diarrhoea
Death

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9
Q

Presentation of scurvy

A

Perifollicular haemorrhage
Bleeding gums
Poor wound healing
Corkscrew hair

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10
Q

What is the 2 year mortality rate of SBP

A

50%

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11
Q

Neutrophils over what on an ascitic tap support diagnosis of SBP?

A

> 250cell/mm

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12
Q

SBP is typically multiorganism T/F

A

F - typically mono organism (typically gram -ve)

NB initial tx with broad spec abx such as cefotaxime

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13
Q

Mgmt of a pre meno female presenting with Fe def anaemia?

A

If no significant FHx bowel Ca, no upper GI symptoms and negative coeliac screen, trial oral Fe replacement first.

Note: def of significant fam hx is two affected first-degree relatives or just one first-degree relative affected before the age of 50 years.

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14
Q

A patient undergoes appendectomy and about a year later presents with abdominal pain and is found to have a caecal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Actinomycosis

Abdominal and pelvic actinomycosis usually follows introduction of the organism through surgery (for example, laparotomy, perforation, cholecystitis) or from intrauterine device placement.
Can also have cervicofacial, thoracic or CNS infections

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15
Q

What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor in the bowel?

A

Terminal ileum

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16
Q

How is the hepatic venous pressure gradient calculated and what is the relevance?

A

Free - wedged venous pressure

Normal 1-5. If normal in portal hypertension is the obstruction must be pre-sinusoidal. Hence, not related to post-sinusoidal intrinsic liver disease such as cirrhosis or post-hepatic venous obstruction (HV thrombosis).

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17
Q

Typical presentation of Budd Chiari syndrome

A

Triad of
-abdominal pain
-ascites
-hepatomegaly
which develop over several months

Note: aetiology is obstruction of the main hepatic veins by thrombus

18
Q

Presentation of acute and chronic portal vein thrombosis

A

Acute: abdominal pain, fever and signs of mesenteric infarction
Chronic: presentation is with complications of portal hypertension, although ascites is rare.

19
Q

Aspirin must be stopped 7 days prior to an endoscopic procedure T/F

A

F

Aspirin is not associated with the same degree of bleeding as clopidogrel and may be continued in those already taking it even prior to endoscopic intervention with a high risk of bleeding.

Note: if on clopidogrel stop 7 days prior - depending on indication for clopidogrel may need to discuss with cardiologist

20
Q

Ddx for elevation of transaminases to > 100 x ULN

A

Paracetamol overdose
or
Ischaemic hepatitis

21
Q

The use of phenytoin is not recommended in patients with underlying liver impairment. T/F

A

T

Therefore not used in status epilepticus secondary to alcohol withdrawal.

22
Q

Hepatotoxic in high doses even in fairly advanced chronic liver disease paracetamol can be used safely as long as doses do not exceed 2-3 g per day. T/F

A

T

Note: main exception to this is alcoholic liver disease where the patient continues to drink, in this setting induction of enzymes and depletion of glutathione increases the chances of hepatotoxicity.

23
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis is treated with steroids T/F

A

F

Note: Mainstay of treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid. Despite extensive research, no role for immune suppression in PBC.

24
Q

Mgmt of pt with Na 118, on diuretics with b/g alcoholic liver disease and ascites

A

If serum sodium is ≤120 mmol/L diuretic therapy should be stopped and patients should receive volume expansion with colloid or normal saline

Note: fluid restriction only used in patients who are clinically euvolaemic, not on diuretics and have severe hyponatraemia with a normal serum creatinine.
Na126-135 mmol/L: No specific intervention other than careful monitoring
Na121-125 mmol/L where the serum creatinine is normal, diuretic therapy may be continued but may need to be reduced with a view to stopping if necessary.

25
Abdominal cramps, bloating and flatulence accompanied by yellow, frothy, greasy and offensive-smelling diarrhoea (steatorrhoea). Likely infection?
Giardia Note: Fever and vomiting are less usual. Diarrhoea may be chronic if undiagnosed and can lead to small bowel malabsorption. Cryptosporidium is usually self limiting if occurs in non immunosuppressed
26
Ameobic dysentry causes ___ diarrhoea
bloody
27
Urea breath test sensitivity and specificity?
90% sensitivity and 96% specificity for H. pylori
28
Anti-mitochondiral antibodies are positive in 95% of cases of ___
primary biliary cirrhosis
29
Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are found in ___
autoimmune chronic hepatitis
30
Mgmt of patients over the age of 55 with persistent and unexplained dyspepsia of recent onset?
Referred for urgent endoscopy as suspected cancer Note: urgent is within 2 weeks, can be OPD
31
Gold std of diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)?
ERCP Note: in practise most pts with get MCRP first
32
Liver lesion on CT described as hypovascular with central scarring. Most likely dx?
Cholangiocarcinoma
33
Most common complication of ERCP?
Pancreatitis
34
In tx of hep C what genotypes are likely to have good response to interferon therapy? Other good prognostic factors?
Genotypes 2 and 3 have a far better response to treatment than genotype 1. After that: Females Younger age Lack of cirrhosis Non black origin Low hepatic Fe
35
Which is assoc with inflammatory bowel disease - primary biliary cirrhosis or primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
36
Deomgraphic in primary biliary cirrhosis?
90% are middle age females Note: there is also an assoc with AI disease
37
Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome require colonoscopy every ___ years after the age of __ for evaluation of the presence of polyps and polypectomy.
Every 2 yrs After age of 25
38
Decompensated liver failure is an indication for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt. T/F
F Note: it is an contraindication
39
Intractable ascites is an indication for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt. T/F
T
40
What LFTs typically seen in alcoholic liver disease?
AST more than twice the level of ALT
41
Indications for referral to liver center in paracetamol overdose
Any of: An arterial pH <7.3 INR >2.0 at or before 48 hours or >3.5 at or before 72 hours s (or prothrombin time >50 seconds) Oliguria Creatinine >200 µmol/L Hypoglycaemia Any degree of encephalopathy 48 hours after ingestion is also an indication.