Neurology Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

A Jacksonian seizure is also known as a temporal lobe seizure T/F

A

F - AKA focal (partial) motor seizure

Note: consciousness preserved; often Todds paralysis afterwards

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2
Q

Carbamazepine is the first line tx for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy T/F

A

F - it can actually WORSEN seizures.

Note: usually use valproate or topiramate
Patients have excellent prognosis but often require lifelong AED to avoid relapses

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3
Q

Pt with preE coming in post seizure what is the initial mgmt of choice

A

Mg bolus

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4
Q

Pt with an intracranial bleed at what BP are anti HTNs indicated

A

> 170 systolic

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5
Q

When is NSGY opinion indicated in intracranial haemorrhage?

A

If intermediate or reducing GCS
OR cerebellar haemorrhage

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6
Q

Non neurological feature of Friedrich’s ataxia

A

It is associated with cardiomyopathy, scoliosis, pes cavus and diabetes

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7
Q

1st line treatment of Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa, dopamine agonists, or MAO-B inhibitors (eg selegiline) are the first choice options as there is evidence behind their use in providing symptoms control

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8
Q

Mnemonic for cavernous sinus thrombosis structures involved?

A

O TOM CAT
O: Oculomotor nerve
T: Trochlear nerve
O: Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve
M: Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve
C: Internal carotid artery
A: Abducens nerve
T: Trochlear nerve

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9
Q

Typical presentation of neurological AV malformations

A

seizures and a background of headaches.

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10
Q

Intermittent headaches with neurology affecting multiple cranial nerves is suggestive of ___

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

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11
Q

Frontotemporal dementia most commonly presents with memory problems T/F

A

F - more commonly presents with loss of insight and behavioural changes than memory problems

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12
Q

Presentation of neuralgic amyotrophy

A

Sudden onset of extreme pain in the upper extremity
followed by rapid multifocal motor weakness and atrophy and a slow recovery in months to years.
Usually proceeded by an upper respiratory tract infection.
Note: NA includes both an idiopathic (also known as Parsonage-Turner syndrome) and hereditary form.

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13
Q

Sporadic vs variant CJD

A

Sporadic: onset 45 -75 yrs old
- myoclonus
- dementia
-ataxia
-psychiatric/behavioural changes

Variant: average onset 26 yrs old
-Psychiatric prodrome
-Painful sensory symptoms

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14
Q

Investigations for CJD

A

Sporadic: EEG, LP (abnormal high levels of proteins 14-3-3 and S100B) and MRI brain

Variant : MRI is investigation of choice as EEG and LP are less sensitive

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15
Q

Use of memantine vs donepezil in Alzheimers dementia

A

Donepezil (or galantamine, or rivastigmine) usually first line

Memantine is for severe dementia or if unable to tolerate anti cholinesterase inhibitors

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16
Q

In the setting of trauma amnesia for greater than 30 minutes of events before impact is an indication for CT brain T/F

A

T

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17
Q

Acute total (painful) third nerve palsy with a dilated unreactive pupil is caused by_____

A

Compression of CN III, for example by tumour, posterior communicating or posterior cerebral artery aneurysms.

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18
Q

Features of multi system atrophy

A

-parkinsonian features
-autonomic insufficiency (leading to postural hypotension, anhidrosis, disturbance of sphincter control, impotence)
-signs of a cerebellar deficit.

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19
Q

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is clinically similar to which disease

A

GBS except follows a more chronic progressive course

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20
Q

18 yr old male presents with painless loss of vision in one eye a few weeks after losing vision in other eye. Most likely dx

A

Leber’s optic atrophy

Note: typical patient is a young male, LOV is painless but severe.

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21
Q

On MRI brain lesions enhance with gadolinium contrast - which is more likely MS or ADEM

A

ADEM

Note: MS lesions can sometimes enhance though less likely.
Think ADEM if encephalopathy, fever and focal neurology. May have had a preceding flu like illness or recent vaccinations

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22
Q

Optic neuropathy, proptosis, chemosis, Horner’s syndrome, ophthalmoplegia (sixth nerve palsy) and decreased corneal reflex is typical of ___

A

Orbital apex syndrome

Note: decreased corneal reflex is due to involvement of V1

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of limbic encephalitis

A

In 60% of cases it is paraneoplastic. Most commonly malignancy is small cell lung Ca

24
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is associated with hearing loss T/F

A

F - it is not associated with hearing loss

Note:characterised by brief episodes of severe vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Vertigo can last for weeks and then self resolves.
Meniere’s disease is associated with hearing loss

25
Thrombolysis timeframe in ischaemic stroke
4.5 hrs from onset of symptoms
26
What is the annual % risk of stroke in pt with CHADSVasc of 3
3.2%
27
target for cerebral perfusion pressure in setting for brain haemorrhage
61-80 mmHg
28
A patient presents with hemiballism where is the lesion?
Contralateral subthalamic nucleus Note: commonest cause is infarct. Tx is tetrabenazine.
29
Hunt and Hess scale grades SAH:
1. Asymptomatic or minimal headache & slight neck stiffness 2. Moderate or severe headache with neck stiffness, but no neurological deficit other than cranial nerve palsy 3. Drowsiness with confusion or mild focal neurology 4. Stupor with moderate to severe hemiparesis or mild decerebrate rigidity 5. Deeply comatose with severe decerebrate rigidity.
30
MS flare are typically treated with bolus methylprednisolone T/F
F - only function- or life-threatening relapses should be treated by high doses of bolus methylprednisolone. For example a mild optic neuritis does not require any specific treatment
31
A pt on beta interferon 1a injections and has been fully compliant with the medication for one and half years. She has presented with five relapses during the past one year. She presents with mild optic neuritis what is mgmt?
D/C interferon - if three or more attacks in a year consider re-evaluation of interferon or glatiramer acetate as they aim is to decrease relapse frequency
32
1st line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness in narcolepsy?
Modafinil Note: Clomipramine, fluoxetine and sertraline are used in the management of cataplexy.
33
Features of chronic paroxysmal hemicrania?
Similiar features to cluster headaches but shorter duration of headache with increased frequency. Headache can last between 3-45 minutes and occur 20-40 times per day. Tx is with indomethacin Note: cluster headache episodic cluster headache, lasts 15-180 minutes, occurs one to three times daily for four to eight weeks, with each cluster occurring several times yearly
34
Features of myotonic dystrophy?
Frontal baldness in men Atrophy of temporalis, masseters, facial muscle, and Bilateral ptosis. Also: first degree heart block and complete heart block Intellectual impairment Gonadal atrophy Insulin resistance Note: most common muscular dystrophy in adults. Diagnosis is with EMG and muscle biopsy
35
PSEN1 mutations are associated with___
Familial early onset Alzheimers Note: presenilin 1 gene
36
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is associated with a change on what chr
chr 6
37
Differential diagnosis of autonomic neuropathy
1. Diabetes 2. Chronic renal failure 3. AIDS 4. Primary amyloidosis 5. Porphyria
38
Irregular low frequency tremor which is a combination of a rest, postural and action tremor is most likely?
Holmes' tremor or rubral tremor Note: also described as a 'wing-beating' type of tremor and is most prominent when the affected person is active or is maintaining a particular posture. Signs of ataxia and weakness can occur. It is secondary to a lesion in the red nucleus and can occur following a stroke in this area
39
Corneal reflex, response to supraorbital pressure which CN
CN V and VII
40
Gag reflex which CN
CN IX and X
41
Cough reflex which CN
CN X
42
_____ is the commonest cause of down beating nystagmus
Arnold-Chiari malformation
43
______ is effective in treating cognitive decline in dementia with Lewy bodies.
Rivastigmine
44
Max dose donezipil?
10mg daily
45
NICE guidelines recommend discontinuation of cholinesterase inhibitors once the mini mental state examination has fallen below ___
12 Note: could consider starting memantine
46
Symmetrical stiffness and bradykinesia associated with poor postural reflexes and impaired down-gaze. Likely dx?
Progressive supra nuclear palsy Note: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease presents with tremor and asymmetrical hemi-parkinsonism. Vascular parkinsonism presents as lower limb parkinsonism.
47
Tearing of the middle meningeal artery results in ___
Extradural haematoma (aka epidural)
48
Rupture of the anterior and posterior communicating arteries results in _____
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
49
Oculomasticatory myorhythmia is pathognomonic of ?
Whipples disease
50
Increased reflexes tetanus vs botulism?
Tetanus Note: botulism depressed or absent reflexes
51
Ischaemic stroke, only BP of >___mmHg merits acute intervention.
220/120
52
A CT scan of the brain showed dilated lateral ventricles with normal-sized third and fourth ventricle. Where is the lesion?
Foramen of Monro (eg a tumor)
53
Which presents with abnormal lower limb exam discitits or epidural abscess?
Epidural abscess
54
Most common cause of an isolated deep intracerebral haemorrhage in the basal ganglia is ____
Hypertension
55
Monitoring for respiratory system is GBS?
Via Vital Capacity Note: not peak flow