Gastro Flashcards

(128 cards)

1
Q
  1. A patient with abdominal pain on right lower side. Colonoscopy showed inflammation around the cecal area and a ileocecal stricture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A

Crohn’s disease

Crohn: Not curable, transmural, skip lesions, fistulas & abscesses, obstruction, perianal disease, ANCA−, ASCA+,
needs screening after 8–10 yrs.

UC: Curable by surgery, mucosal only, continuous lesions mostly start from rectum, no fistulas or abscesses, no obstruction, no perianal disease, ANCA+, ASCA−, needs screening after 8–10 yrs.

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2
Q

Mcqs -
Ulcerative colitis + enlarged colon in X-ray , Dx?

A

Toxic mega colon

Explanation:
The patient has a known history of ulcerative colitis, which is a major risk factor for toxic megacolon, a life-threatening complication.

Symptoms: abdominal pain and constipation are consistent with bowel dysfunction and possible obstruction or paralysis.

The X-ray shows gross dilatation of the colon with loss of normal haustral markings and evidence of air-fluid levels, suggesting colonic paralysis or ileus.

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3
Q

MCQs
how to to prevent varicose bleeding ?

A

propranolol

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4
Q

EXTRA
management of acute UGI bleeding?

A

IV fluid 1-2 L
Octerotide
IV PPI
blood transfusion if Hct < 30
platelet if < 50000
fresh frozen if highe PT ,PTT

if not surgery > Band ligation

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5
Q

what Dx of pt describe a ‘‘feels like something’s stuck in my throat’’ , all other thing normal ?

A

globus hystericus
“Feels like something’s stuck in my throat”
No difficulty swallowing food or liquid (differentiates it from structural problems).
Typically not painful.
Can come and go, often worse with stress.

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6
Q

MCQs
achalasia presentation ?

A

Dysphagia to both solids and liquids (suggests a motility disorder, not a mechanical obstruction).

Chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food.

No relief with PPI (rules out GERD or acid-related disorders).

Barium Swallow: “bird’s beak” appearance.

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7
Q

MCQs
hematemesis after NSAIDs use , Dx?

A

gastroc erosion

gastritis could be inflammation or erosion in (mucosa /superficial)
mainly painless + alcohol or NSAIDs as clue

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8
Q

MCQs
case of GERD , hoe toDX?

A

(GERDs clinical diagnosis)
1st => PPI
Confirm => Ph monitoring

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9
Q

EXTRA
When is endoscopy indicated in dyspepsia?

A

Back:
🔹 Age ≥60 with new-onset dyspepsia
🔹 Alarm features (e.g. weight loss, dysphagia, vomiting, GI bleed, anaemia, mass)
🔹 No response to PPI or H. pylori treatment after 4–8 weeks (age <60)
🔹 High-risk history (gastric surgery, Barrett’s, chronic NSAID use, prior ulcer/cancer)

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10
Q

MCQs
dyspepsia Pt age 53 not respone to PPI , next ?

A

H pylori invX

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11
Q

MCQs
emesis => hematemesis ,NO PAIN , Dx?

A

mallory-weiss tear

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12
Q

MCQs
what Pt with celiac can eat ?

A

rice

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13
Q

MCQs
abdominal pain and bloating + diarrhea in young , next invX ?

A

most likely diagnosis is celiac so,
anti tissue transglutamineas antibody

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14
Q

MCQs
pt was in antibiotic then developed diarrhea , next invX?

A

stool C.diff toxin test

extra: management ?
vancomycin

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15
Q

MCQs
epigastric pain increased at morning and relieved after eating , Dx?

A

duodenal ulcer => relived with eating
gastric ulcer => worse with eating

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16
Q

Child girl with hx of low stature, face plethora and hx of 2 previous UTIs, along with temporal and extremities fat pad, fine face hair line (growth chart attached). What is the diagnosis?

A

Cushing syndrome:

  • Sx: amenorrhea, central obesity, depressive symptoms, and easy bruising
  • PE: purple striae, moon face (facial adiposity), buffalo hump (increased adipose tissue in the neck and upper back), and hypertension
  • Dx: 24-hour urinary free cortisol, late-night salivary cortisol, dexamethasone suppression test, ACTH levels
  • Most common noniatrogenic cause is hypercortisolism from ACTH-secreting pituitary tumor
  • If cause is pituitary tumor, then it is called Cushing disease
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17
Q

MCQs
diagnosis of cuashing syndrome ?

A

best initial test 24-urine cortisol level
(if not in anser) => dexamethasone suppression test

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18
Q

MCQs
Pt with galactorrhoea , invX?

A

1st confirm procalcitonin elevation
next=> TSH, pregnancy, RFTs LFTs

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19
Q

MCQs
Pt with uncontrolled HTN + K Low + Na highe , Dx?

A

hyperaldosteronism (conn’s syndrome)

Dx: ↑ plasma aldosterone concentration to ↓ plasma renin activity eatio

CT: adrenal mass

• Tx: surgery for adenoma, spironolactonefor hyperplasia or if not a surgical candidate

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20
Q

MCQs
alarming sign for thyroid nodules?

A

dysphagia

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21
Q

Female patient with amenorrhea and history of weight gain
Her lab investigation
Testosterone: 9
FSH: 20
LH: 60

What is most likely diagnosis?

A

PCOS

The patient has amenorrhea and weight gain, both common in PCOS.

The lab profile shows:

High LH (60)

FSH lower than LH (LH:FSH ratio >2:1)

Elevated testosterone (9)

This pattern — hyperandrogenism with elevated LH:FSH ratio — is characteristic of PCOS.

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22
Q

EXTR
What is Rotterdam Criteria?

A

Rotterdam Criteria used to diagnose PCOS (2 out of 3):

  1. Oligo- or anovulation (e.g., amenorrhea)
  2. Hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical)
  3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
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23
Q

more

Q: What is the best initial test to diagnose pheochromocytoma?

A

A: Measuring metanephrines in a 24-hour urine sample or by measuring plasma-free metanephrines.

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24
Q

MCQs

25F, 3 months postpartum, wt loss, tremor, goiter, ↓TSH, ↑T3/T4, high RAIU. Dx?

A

Graves disease

Hyperthyroidism + high uptake = increased synthesis → Graves.

Thyrodities

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25
***MCQs*** 30-year-old diabetic man with weight loss, ↓ libido, testicular atrophy, infertility, and low testosterone. Dx?
**Secondary Hypogonadism (Hypogonadotropic)** why? ***Low testosterone*** → confirms hypogonadism. ***↓ libido, testicular atrophy, infertility, weight loss*** → classic symptoms. ***Diabetic man*** → diabetes can damage the **hypothalamus/pituitary axis**, especially in poorly controlled or long-standing cases. ***Secondary hypogonadism***: Problem at the hypothalamus or pituitary → ↓ LH and FSH → ↓ testosterone. ***To confirm***: Check **LH and FSH** levels. - If **low or inappropriately normal**, diagnosis = ***secondary hypogonadism***. - If **elevated**, then it's ***primary hypogonadism*** (testicular failure). Extra: Primary hypogonadism is due to a problem in the gonads themselves (testes or ovaries). The gonads fail to produce sex hormones despite normal or elevated stimulation by gonadotropins (LH and FSH). As a result, LH and FSH levels are elevated. * Examples: Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome, mumps orchitis. —-> genetic test * Secondary hypogonadism is caused by a problem in the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to low or inappropriately normal levels of LH and FSH, which results in reduced stimulation of the gonads and low sex hormone production. * Examples: Kallmann syndrome, craniopharyngioma. —-> imiging
26
***MCQs*** Postpartum polyuria + dilute urine + polydipsia + normal serum osmolarity ? Next inDx?
Vasopressin challenge test Extra : ***Diagnosis*** 1 - 24-hour urine collection: confirms hypotonic polyuria 2- ***Water deprivation test***: differentiates between: • AVP-D (urine osmolality increases after desmopressin) • AVP-R (no response to desmopressin) • Primary polydipsia (gradual increase in urine osmolality) Treatment ***AVP-D: Desmopressin (synthetic AVP analogue)*** AVP-R (acquired): Treat underlying cause (e.g., stop lithium, correct electrolytes) Consider thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, or amiloride in selected cases
27
***MCQs*** 72-year-old with excessive sleepiness and involuntary naps after flying between cities
Circadian Rhythm Change (Jet Lag)
28
How Multiple Sclerosis present ? Dx best initial / most accurate? Mx of acute phase ?
**Focal sensory symptomes** with gaite and balance problem , **monocular vision loss**, diplopia with lateral gaze, sensory abnormalities **Dx** Best initial and most accurate **MRI**, periventricular white matter lesions Acute exacerbation: **methylprednisolone**
29
Old with Urinary incontinse , memory lose and hx of falling down ,Dx?
30
Pt present with seizure new-onset , CT show mass , next ?
brain biopsy Extra: Brain abscess The best initial test is a head CT or MRI. The most accurate test is a brain biopsy. Scan of the brain shows a “ring” or contrast enhancing lesion that will likely have surrounding edema and mass effect. ***Cancer and infection*** are indistinguishable based on an imaging study alone. CSF would be unlikely to be helpful even if it were obtained and ***LP is contraindicated*** because of the possibility of herniation.
31
Q: 55-year-old man with 1-year progressive hand weakness, muscle wasting, fasciculations, hyperreflexia, upgoing plantar reflexes, and normal sensation — most likely diagnosis?
32
Q: Elderly patient with hand tremor only when serving coffee or writing; no tremor at rest. Most likely diagnosis?
Essential tremor
33
Q: 35-year-old with jerky hand tremor that disappears with distraction; normal neuro exam. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Psychogenic tremor
34
Elderly patient with brief burning facial pain triggered by chewing, radiating to ear, lacrimation, and loss of posterior 1/3 tongue sensation — most likely diagnosis?
A: Trigeminal neuralgia
35
What is the best contraceptive method for a woman with migraine and seizures?
A: IUCD (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device) Clinical tip: Always avoid estrogen-containing contraceptives in women with migraine with aura or at high risk of thromboembolism.
36
Q: Patient with neck rigidity, headache, fever, ↓glucose, ↑protein – Dx?
A: Bacterial meningitis Extra: ***Bacterial meningitis:*** WBC >1000/µL (neutrophilic), protein ↑↑, glucose ↓ ***Viral meningitis:*** WBC 10–500/µL (lymphocytic), protein normal or ↑, glucose normal ***Fungal meningitis:*** WBC 20–500/µL (lymphocytic), protein ↑, glucose ↓ ***Tuberculous meningitis:*** WBC 30–300/µL (lymphocytic), protein ↑, glucose ↓
37
***EXTR*** Bill palsypresentation , how it deiffrent from stroke? Dx? Mx?
❖ Causes • Most cases are idiopathic. • Identified causes: • Lyme disease • Sarcoidosis • Herpes zoster • Tumors ⸻ ❖ Presentation • Bell’s Palsy: Paralysis of the entire side of the face. • Difficulty closing the eye. • Wrinkling forehead is impaired. • Eating is “sloppy” due to inability to close lips. • Stroke: Only the lower half of the face is affected. • Forehead can wrinkle (upper face is bilaterally innervated). ⸻ ❖ Clues for Diagnosis • If the patient can wrinkle forehead on the affected side → worry about stroke. • If the patient cannot wrinkle forehead → it is Bell’s palsy. ⸻ ❖ Additional Features • Hyperacusis: Sounds are louder due to paralysis of stapedius muscle (normally dampens sound). • Taste disturbance: Involves anterior two-thirds of the tongue (supplied by CN VII). ⸻ ❖ Clinical Tip • Look for phrases like: • “Face feels stiff” • “Face is pulled to one side” • These suggest: Bell’s palsy ⸻ ❖ Diagnostic Tests • Usually no test needed due to classic presentation. • If asked: Electromyography and nerve conduction studies are most accurate. ⸻ ❖ Treatment • 60% recover fully without treatment. • Best initial therapy: Prednisone • Acyclovir may be added, but evidence is unclear. ⸻ Let me know if you’d like this turned into flashcards or a table.
38
40-year-old man with 3-day history of: Earache ,Dizziness , Right facial weakness , Dx?
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome (Herpes Zoster Oticus) Extra: Reactivation of VZV in geniculate ganglion • Involves CN VII (facial nerve) → facial paralysis, taste loss • May involve CN VIII → vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss • Often associated with vesicular rash in ear or mouth • 📋 Treatment: Acyclovir + Prednisone (early)
39
Absent ankle jerk + can’t toe-walk + lateral foot numbness ? Witch nerve affect ?
S1 radiculopathy
40
Q: Patient with back pain, anterior thigh + foot dorsum numbness, weak dorsiflexion — which root? )
A: L4–L5 (L5 root affected Extra: L1–L2: Hip flexion (e.g. iliopsoas) L3: Knee extension (e.g. quadriceps femoris) L4: Ankle dorsiflexion (e.g. tibialis anterior) L5: Great toe extension (e.g. extensor hallucis longus) S1: Ankle plantarflexion, foot eversion (e.g. gastrocnemius, peroneus longus/brevis) S2: Knee flexion (e.g. hamstrings)
41
20 year-old with head trauma, severe headache, neck rigidity, nausea Dx?
SAH (Subarachnoid Hemorrhage) Key clue: Neck rigidity after trauma → meningeal irritation from blood in subarachnoid space.
42
Patient with morning headache, vomiting, worsened by lying down or coughing — next step?
Brain CT classic signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP). —-> Performing a lumbar puncture without first ruling out a mass lesion or raised ICP can precipitate brain herniation, which is life-threatening.
43
An 86-year-old patient on oral clindamycin presents with watery diarrhea tinged with blood, Dx?
***Pseudomembranous colitis (Clostridioides difficile colitis)*** Extra : Explanation: **Clindamycin is a high-risk antibiotic** for inducing C. difficile infection. Elderly patients are especially susceptible. C. difficile colitis presents with watery diarrhea, sometimes bloody, abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. Diagnosis: **stool test for C. difficile toxins**, or colonoscopy showing pseudomembranes. Treatment includes oral *vancomycin or fidaxomicin*.!
44
Hepatitis serology: HBsAg negative, HBeAg negative, HBeAb negative, HBcIgM positive, HBsAb negative, HBV DNA positive. Dx?
Acute infection, window Extra : Step 1: Check HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) • If positive: the patient has HBV infection (either acute or chronic) ⸻ Step 2: Look at anti-HBc (Hepatitis B core antibody) • If IgM → acute infection (especially if HBeAg is also positive) • If IgG → chronic infection ⸻ Step 3: If chronic infection, check HBeAg • Positive → active replication (high infectivity) • Negative → inactive carrier (low infectivity) ⸻ 🟣 Special Scenarios If HBsAg is negative Ask: Is it immunity or window period? • Check anti-HBc: • If positive, it’s likely the window period. ⸻ ✅ Immunity Scenarios 1. Anti-HBs (+) and Anti-HBc (+) → Resolved infection 2. Anti-HBs (+) only → Vaccinated ✅ Initial Hepatitis B Screening Panel: 1. HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) → Detects current infection (acute or chronic) 2. Anti-HBs (HBsAb) (Hepatitis B surface antibody) → Detects immunity (from past infection or vaccination) 3. Anti-HBc (total) (Hepatitis B core antibody – IgG and IgM) → Detects past or current natural infection (not from vaccine)
45
What factor carries the highest risk of HIV transmission after a needlestick injury?
Depth of the injury ***Needle stick injury transmission risk*** HBV → up to 30% HCV → about 3% HIV → about 0.3%
46
Pt with Lymphadenopathy + Splenomegaly + Maculopapular rash after taking antibiotics? Mx?
Supportive care (antipyretics) and avoid contact sports. Extra : Infectious Mononucleosis Most commonly caused by ***Epstein-Barr virus*** Clinical symptoms: low-grade fever, headache, malaise, severe fatigue ***tonsillar exudates*** ***lymphadenopathy*** (more commonly posterior cervical), ***splenomegaly*** “””note”””” ***Maculopapular rash*** after taking antibiotics (especially common with amoxicillin in EBV) Dx: EBV-specific antibody tests, heterophile antibody test (mononuclear spot test, more likely to be positive after second week of illness) Clinical course often self-limiting Tx: supportive care, refrain from ***contact sports*** for ≥ 2–3 weeks postinfection
47
how to establish diagnosis of Pt with Malaria?
THICK smear for detection THIN smear for speciation
48
Young adult with fatigue, weight loss, pallor, petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia (↓RBCs, ↓WBCs, Plt = 50). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute Leukemia
49
pregnant with DVT , Mx?
LMWH note: warfarin teratogenic
50
Pt with long bleeding time with normaln Hb, Plt, Pt. Dx?
**von willebrand disease** extra : von willebrand disease Most common inherited bleeding disorder in the US Typically *autosomal dominant* ***increased mucocutaneous bleeding***, bleeding from minor cuts, gingival bleeding, epistaxis, heavy menstrual bleeding, postpartum hemorrhage, postprocedural bleeding ***Hemostasis test results: isolated prolonged PTT or normal results*** Dx: vWF antigen, ristocetin cofactor activity (platelet-dependent vWF activity), and factor VIII activity aPTT may be prolonged if factor VIII is low Tests assess both amount and function of vWF to determine type and severity Tx: desmopressin acetate for mild cases, recombinant factor VIII or vWF complex infusion for severe cases
51
Painful penile ulcer + green discharge + inguinal LAD – most likely diagnosis?
Chancroid ^^^Extra^^^ : Primary Syphilis Sx: painless ulcer that forms 3 weeks post sexual activity and disappears in 3–6 weeks PE: vaginal, anal, or oral ***chancre***- painless, punched-out lesion with a raised margin, lymphadenopathy Dx: darkfield microscopy, RPR/VDRL confirmed by FTA-ABS Caused by spirochete Treponema pallidum Tx: single IM injection of benzathine penicillin Mnemonic: syphi***lis*** is pain***less*** ulcer.
52
SLE description malar (butterfly) rash spares nasolabial folds , what most likely be positive ?
ANA + ***Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)*** * Risk factors: female sex * **Sx**: fatigue, fever, weight loss, arthritis, ***photosensitivity***, pleuritis, pericarditis, neuropsychiatric symptoms * PE: ***malar*** (butterfly) ***rash spares nasolabial folds***, discoid rash, painless oral ulcers, alopecia, ulnar deviation at MCP joints, swan-neck deformity * Labs   * Antinuclear antibody (***ANA***): sensitive, not specific   * ***Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith*** antibodies: specific, not sensitive * Notes: **anti-dsDNA antibody correlates with disease activity, low complement levels seen in flares**   * Antiphospholipid antibodies   * Proteinuria   * Cytopenias * Tx: NSAIDs, steroids, hydroxychloroquine, immunosuppressants (e.g., cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, rituximab) * Drug-induced lupus: hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin, sulfonamides   * Antihistone antibody * Recommended contraception: **levonorgestrel IUD**, progestin-only contraceptives (higher thromboembolic risk with estrogen)
53
Pt with frontal bossing+ Bowing of tibia => high ALP, high Ca, normal vit D, Dx?
**Paget Disease** ^^^Extra:^^^ Paget Disease of Bone (PDB, Osteitis Deformans) Abnormal bone remodeling due to increase in osteoclast activity, followed by increase in osteoblast activity resulting in boney overgrowth Sx: asymptomatic, bone or joint pain, nerve impingement, hearing loss Labs: increased ***serum alkaline phosphatase*** and bone-specific alkaline phosphatase X-ray: bonethickening and enlargement with thickenedcortices CT: pathognomonic sign **osteoporosis circumscripta** Tx: supportive, PT, bisphosphonates
54
Pt 59 with headache and blurred vision + scalp temporal area tenderness => ESR:120 Dx?
**Temporal Arteritis (Giant Cell Arteritis)** **Risk factors**: age > 50, female sex Sx: **unilateral headache**, jaw claudication, monocular visual loss PE: **tender temporal artery** Lab results: **ESR > 50** mm/hour, ↑ CRP *Dx: temporal artery biopsy* Treatment: high-dose **steroids**, do not wait for biopsy if strong suspicion to prevent **blindness** long term : asprine prevent ischemia Associated with polymyalgia rheumatica complication : visual loss The granulomatous inflammation involves the ***aorta*** in a significant number of cases, therefore, monitoring by periodic imaging of the aortic root via chest X-ray is appropriate for routine surveillance.
55
***MCQs*** Pt with RA => SOB no fever , Dx?
Fibrosing Alveolitis Fibrosing Alveolitis and Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) are closely linked in the context of Rheumatoid Arthritis-associated Interstitial Lung Disease (RA-ILD).
56
***EXTRA*** how to diagnose rheumatic fever ?
57
***EXTRA*** prophylaxis of rheumatic fever ?
Secondary Prophylaxis for Rheumatic Fever Preferred agent: ***Penicillin G benzathine IM:*** Adults >27 kg: 1.2 million units every 21–28 days Children ≤27 kg: 600,000 units every 21–28 days Alternative (oral): Penicillin V: 250 mg orally twice daily for both adults and children If allergic to penicillin and sulfonamides: ***Azithromycin:*** Adults: 250 mg orally once daily Children: 5 mg/kg orally once daily (up to 250 mg) Erythromycin is an acceptable alternative --- Duration of Therapy After Last Attack ***Rheumatic fever with carditis and residual heart disease (valvular disease):*** Continue for 10 years or until 40 years of age, whichever is longer. Sometimes lifelong prophylaxis is recommended. ***Rheumatic fever with carditis but no residual heart disease:*** Continue for 10 years or until 21 years of age, whichever is longer. ***Rheumatic fever without carditis:*** Continue for 5 years or until 21 years of age, whichever is longer. --- Additional Notes Deep intramuscular penicillin is the preferred method; oral therapy is second-line. A 21-day injection interval is recommended for high-risk or recurrent cases. Penicillin desensitization may be an option in immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Let me know if you need this in a more abbreviated (OLA) format.
58
***MCQs*** Pt Known case of RA present with dry mouth and eye , Dx?
**Sjögren's disease** Autoimmune disorder most common in women 40-60 years old **assotited with RA**, SLE ... Sx: dry eyes (**xerophthalmia**) and dry mouth (**xerostomia**) Labs: SSA (anti-Ro) or SSB (anti-La) Diagnosis: BEST initial test ***Schirmer test***, MSOT accurate ***salivary gland biopsy*** Mx : water the mouth , artificial tear , pilocarpine and cevimeline ( increas acetylchline) Higher risk of ***lymphoma***
59
Pt with low back pain + tenderness over his lumbar spine and sacroiliac joints + Xray picture , Dx?
**Ankylosing Spondylitis** (Radiographic Axial Spondyloarthritis) EXTR : Risk factors: male sex, age < 40 Sx: low back pain that is most severe at night and morning stiffness that ***improves with exercise*** PE: limited spinal mobility, decreased lumbar lordosis X-ray: squared vertebral bodies, multiple vertebral fusions ***(bamboo spine)*** Labs: increased ESR, positive HLA-B27 Treatment options include ***NSAIDs, physical therapy, TNF-alpha blockers*** inflilximab Associated with: uveitis, aortitis, IBD, psoriasis, apical pulmonary fibrosis Diseases associated with HLA-B27: PAIR Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis Inflammatory bowel disease Reactive arthritis
60
***MCQs*** Pt with gout pic , how to Dx ?
**Monosodium Urate Crystals** - needle-shaped crystal with negative birefringence **Gout** Mono- or oligoarticular arthritis caused by uric acid crystals Risk factors: male sex, age > 30 years, obesity, metabolic syndrome, CKD, dietary factors Sx: **podagra** (acute onset of pain in the first MTP) PE: hot, red, tender joint, tophi Lab results: **needle-shaped crystal with negative birefringence, uric acid can be low, normal, or elevated** Treatment Acute: NSAIDs, steroids, colchicine Chronic: **allopurinol** (first line), febuxostat, probenecid Can be **triggered by loop and thiazide diuretics**
61
***MCQs*** Pt with recurrent aphthous ulcers and genital ulcers, associated with relapsing uveitis, Dx?
**Behçet Syndrome** Etiology: small, medium, large vessel **vasculitis** Presents with recurrent **genital and oral ulcerations,** relapsing uveitis, and other systemic manifestations PE: painful genital and oral ulcers with a necrotic center and surrounding red rim Diagnosis is made clinically Tx: topical steroids, colchicine, immunosuppressive agents
62
***MCQs*** woman presents with a 3-month history of bilateral shoulder and hip girdle stiffness and pain, worse in the morning and lasting over an hour + ESR is 65 + low Hb , Dx?
**Polymyalgia Rheumatica** EXTRA: Patient will be a **woman > 50 years old** Proximal muscle (**shoulders, neck, hip girdle**) stiffness and aching, especially in the morning, that improves during the day but worsens after inactivity PE will show symmetrical decreased range of motion in the neck, hips, and especially in the shoulder girdle Labs will show erythrocyte sedimentation rate (**ESR) ≥ 40 mm/hou**r Treatment is low-dose prednisone Strongly associated with giant cell (temporal) arteritis
63
64
***MCQs*** pt with knee pain while he going upstarie - no Px finding , Dx?
Chondromalacia patella ^^^EXTRA^^^: = Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome: Overuse disorder Aching anterior knee pain that is worse with loaded flexion (stair climbing, jumping, prolonged sitting) Pain with squatting is the most sensitive sign Tx: activity modification, physical therapy, NSAIDS
65
***EXTRA*** what is Osgood-Schlatter Disease
Osgood-Schlatter Disease Young adolescent athletes, 10-15 years old Knee pain with activities that cause quadriceps contractions (e.g., running, jumping) PE will show tenderness over the tibial tubercle and withknee extension against resistance Management includes ice, NSAIDs, acetaminophen, quadriceps stretching
66
criteria for diagnosis RA ?
🦴 Joint Involvement 1 large joint → 0 points 2–10 large joints → 1 point 1–3 small joints (± large joints) → 2 points 4–10 small joints (± large joints) → 3 points > 10 joints (at least 1 small joint) → 5 points 🧪 Serology (RF & ACPA) Negative RF & ACPA → 0 points Low-positive RF or ACPA → 2 points High-positive RF or ACPA → 3 points 📈 Acute Phase Reactants (CRP, ESR) Normal CRP & ESR → 0 points Abnormal CRP or ESR → 1 point ⏳ Duration of Symptoms <6 weeks → 0 points ≥6 weeks → 1 point If total score ≥6, diagnosis of RA is classified.
67
first Investigation to establish diagnosis of RA ?
anti CCP = ACPA same RF sensitivity but more specific
68
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis complains of neck pain, upper and lower limb weakness for 1 year , change in gate , What to do next? and what to do for definitive ?
1st XR cervical definitive MRI cervical Tip : Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can involve the cervical spine, especially at the atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2), leading to instability. This can result in spinal cord compression, causing symptoms such as: Neck pain Upper and lower limb weakness Gait disturbance Myelopathy
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***information*** Diagnostic algorithms for hyperlipidemia ?
Diagnostic and Treatment Approach to Hyperlipidemia 🔴 Step 1: Determine Need for Statin Therapy Ask: Does the patient meet any of the following criteria? 1. Clinical ASCVD (CAD, CVA, PAD)? 2. LDL ≥ 190 mg/dL? 3. Age 40–75 years with diabetes and LDL ≥ 70 mg/dL? 4. Age 40–75 years with LDL ≥ 70 mg/dL and 10-year ASCVD risk ≥ 7.5%? ➡️ Yes → Proceed to statin therapy. ➡️ No → Lifestyle modification and reassess risk periodically. 🔴 Step 2: Calculate 10-Year ASCVD Risk Use pooled cohort equations (online calculators or app). Mnemonic for risk factors: SAD CHF * Smoking * Age (>45 M, >55 F) * Diabetes * Cholesterol (elevated LDL or low HDL) * Hypertension * Family history (premature ASCVD) ⸻ 🔴 Step 3: Start Treatment if Indicated A. Initiate: 1. Lifestyle Modifications * Weight reduction * Heart-healthy diet (e.g., DASH, Mediterranean) * Regular physical activity * Smoking cessation 2. High-Intensity Statin Therapy (if indicated): * Atorvastatin 40–80 mg * Rosuvastatin 20–40 mg B. Obtain Baseline Labs: * CK (if muscle symptoms present) * LFTs (baseline for monitoring statin hepatotoxicity) ⸻ 🔴 Step 4: Monitor for Side Effects If symptoms of hepatotoxicity (jaundice, RUQ pain) or rhabdomyolysis (muscle pain): ➡️ Repeat CK and LFTs * ↑ CK, urine myoglobin → suspect rhabdomyolysis * ↑ LFTs → consider hepatotoxicity ➡️ Management * Stop statin temporarily * Reinitiate at lower dose or switch to moderate-intensity statin ⸻ Step 5: Not at LDL Goal After Max Statin Dose? 1. Add Ezetimibe 2. If still not at goal → Add Bile Acid Sequestrant or PCSK9 Inhibitor ⸻ Additional Notes: * Moderate-intensity statin = Atorvastatin 10–20 mg, Rosuvastatin 5–10 mg, Simvastatin 20–40 mg, etc. * Consider non-statin therapies earlier in high-risk patients who are statin intolerant. * Regularly monitor lipids and adherence every 4–12 weeks after initiation, then every 3–12 months. ⸻ Let me know if you want a version specific to primary prevention or secondary prevention separately.
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Do SGLT-2 inhibitors require renal adjustment, and when should they be stopped?
⸻ A: ✅ Yes – renal function determines use. • eGFR ≥ 30 mL/min/1.73 m²: • Initiation allowed • Recommended for renal and cardiovascular protection in CKD and T2DM • eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²: • Do not initiate • eGFR < 20 mL/min/1.73 m²: • Discontinue
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Q: Which antidiabetic medication should be stopped when eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²?
A: Metformin
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Which antidiabetic medications are safe to use in patients with eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m²?
A: • Insulin (adjust dose to avoid hypoglycemia) • GLP-1 receptor agonists (e.g., liraglutide – monitor tolerance) • DPP-4 inhibitors • Linagliptin: no dose adjustment needed • Sitagliptin, saxagliptin: dose adjustment required • Thiazolidinediones (e.g., pioglitazone – watch for fluid retention) • Short-acting sulfonylureas (e.g., glipizide – caution for hypoglycemia)
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Which of the following is an established risk factor for osteoporosis? A. BMI B. Current smoking C. History of fragility fracture in first-degree relative D. Low calcium intake
✅ B. Current smoking Explanation: • Current smoking is a well-established risk factor for osteoporosis. • Low calcium intake and family history of fragility fractures are also recognized risk factors. • BMI is only a risk when low; a BMI of 27 (as in the vignette) is not
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A 58-year-old diabetic man presents with a gangrenous ulcer over the right metatarsal head, leading to amputation. Which preventive measure would have been most effective in avoiding this complication?
Appropriate self-care of feet
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drugs is most commonly associated with breast pain and enlargement?
???? Amlodipine
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First-line medications for neuropathic pain in diabetes mellitus ?
C) Pregabalin (Lyrica) ✅ First-line agent for diabetic neuropathic pain. Well-tolerated and effective in elderly. Requires renal dose adjustment but lacks the anticholinergic burden of TCAs. A) Amitriptyline Effective, but caution in elderly due to anticholinergic side effects (e.g., urinary retention, cognitive effects, orthostatic hypotension). B) Ibuprofen Not effective for neuropathic pain. NSAIDs target nociceptive pain, not neuropathic mechanisms.
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65F on vit D/calcium, T-score -0.5, FRAX 3%, no fracture hx. Next step?
**Repeat DEXA after 4 years.** **Osteoporosis** Decline in bone mass that results in increased bone fragility and fracture risk **Risk factors:** female sex, advancing age, chronic **steroid** use, excessive **alcohol** or **tobacco** use, parental **history** of hip * fracture, immobility, history of falls Diagnosis is made by **DXA scan: T-score ≤-2.5 or presence of a fragility fracture** Low bone mineral density: T-score-1.0 to 2.5 Tx Lifestyle: calcium, vitamin D, weight-bearing exercise, smoking cessation First-line pharmacotherapy: ***bisphosphonates*** START medication if : T-score ≤ -2.5 (DXA) at the femoral neck or spine, after appropriate evaluation to exclude secondary causes T-score between 1 and-2.5 at the femoral neck or spine, and a ***10-year probability of hip fracture ≥ 3%*** or a ***10-year probability of any major osteoporosis-related fracture ≥ 20%*** ,based on the United States-adapted WHO algorithm Second line: SERMs, recombinant PTH, denosumab Most common fracture: vertebral body compression fractures USPSTF: ***screening indicated for women ≥ 65 years and postmenopausal women < 65 years with risk factors*** ***Moderate osteopenia (T-score -1.5 to -2.0)***: Repeat screening every 3–5 years. Insufficient evidence to recommend screening in men but can be considered if risk factors present (e.g., androgen deprivation therapy)
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***extra*** When to screen for osteoporosis? When to repeat screening?
USPSTF Screening Recommendations Who to screen: • All women ≥ 65 years of age. • Postmenopausal women < 65 years with ≥ 1 risk factor for osteoporosis: • Low BMI • Parental history of hip fracture • Excess alcohol consumption • Current smoking Who not to screen: • There is insufficient evidence to recommend routine screening in men. However, individual risk factors may warrant evaluation. How to screen: • DXA (dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry) of lumbar spine and hips is the preferred method. • Use tools like FRAX to assess fracture risk and determine need for BMD testing in younger postmenopausal women. ⸻ National Osteoporosis Foundation & AMBOSS Screening Interval Guidance Suggested Repeat DXA Screening Intervals (based on initial T-score): • T-score -2.0 to -2.4: Repeat within 3 years • T-score -1.5 to -1.9: Repeat every 3–5 years • T-score -1.0 to -1.4: Repeat every 5–10 years • T-score > -1.0: Repeat after more than 10 years
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how to initiate insulin ?
Dose: 0.3–0.5 units/kg/day total, split: 50% Basal 50% Bolus (divided among meals) Monitor: FBG, pre-meal, post-meal, bedtime glucose Adjust dose every 3 days by 2 units if above targets Watch for hypoglycemia (glucose <70 mg/dL)
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A 35-year-old asymptomatic male with ↑LDL, ↑TG, ↓HDL, and FHx of premature ASCVD. Next best step?
A: Start statin — due to elevated LDL and high-risk family history.
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***MCQs*** basilar skull fracture sign ?
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***MCQs*** What is the next step for a patient with facial lacerations and low blood pressure after an accident?
Do GCS assessment in choice no Air way , Breathing , Cvs , so next Neurological assessment
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What is the immediate action for a patient with gasping, pulse and blood pressure not obtainable, and VT on ECG?
Immediate defibrillator ^^^Extra^^^ ✅ You do unsynchronized defibrillation only in these 2 cases: 1. Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) 2. Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) ➡️ Even if the patient is unstable, if they still have a pulse, you do NOT defibrillate, you cardiovert (synchronized) instead. ⸻ 🚫 Never defibrillate (unsynchronized) in: • A patient with a pulse • PEA or asystole • Any bradycardia or supraventricular rhythm • VT with a pulse (even if unstable → use synchronized cardioversion) ⸻ 🔥 Final rule: ✅ Defibrillation = no pulse + VT/VF only 🔄 Cardioversion = unstable but has a pulse + organized rhythm
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What is the diagnosis for a 50-year-old male patient with confusion, vomiting, and a blood sugar level of > 800 normal VBG ?
High osmolarity
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What imaging is required for a renal trauma case?
CT with contrast
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What should be done for a patient who overdosed on 34 pills of 500 mg paracetamol, presenting 12 hours after ingestion?
Admission for n-acetylcysteine + When in doubt, start NAC. If the patient presents >8 hours post-ingestion, with high-risk ingestion, or lab delays, do not wait for labs.
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What is the immediate management for an asymptomatic patient who ingested bleach 1 hour ago?
**flush out the caustics ( water )** ✅**If the patient meets ALL of the following:** * Asymptomatic * Ingestion is uncertain or of a low-risk substance (e.g., household bleach) * No oral burns → Then: *** Offer clear liquids (e.g., water, milk)** * Observe for several hours → If remains asymptomatic: * Discharge * Consider Upper GI series if dysphagia develops → If symptoms develop (e.g., drooling, pain, vomiting): * Do Endoscopy within 24 hours ⸻ ❌ **If the patient has ANY of the following:** * Any symptoms (e.g., vomiting, drooling, chest/abdominal pain) * Definite ingestion of high-risk caustic substance * Oral burns → Then: * **Do Endoscopy within 24 hours**
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Pt with pleuritic chest pain + SOB => 5 days post cholecystectomy. PH-7.47 PCO2-28 CXR normal , Dx?
**PE** -Pleuritic chest pain with recent SURGERY TIP: Virchow's triad: endothelial injury, stasis of blood, hypercoagulability
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Q: A patient presents after a scorpion sting with local erythema and swelling, plus vomiting and abdominal pain. What is the most appropriate next step?
Scorpion anti-venom ^^^Extra ^^^ 🦂 Brief Approach to Scorpion Sting ⸻ 1️⃣ Initial Assessment • ABC: Airway, Breathing, Circulation • Vital signs: BP, HR, RR, Temp • Ask about time of sting, species if known, and symptoms. ⸻ 2️⃣ Classify Severity 🔹 Mild (local only): • Pain, erythema, swelling at sting site 🔹 Moderate/Severe (systemic): • Vomiting, abdominal pain • Sweating, salivation, restlessness • Tachycardia, hypertension • Respiratory distress or shock ⸻ 3️⃣ Management ✅ Mild: • Analgesia (e.g. paracetamol, ibuprofen) • Local ice packs • Observe for progression (4–6 hrs) ✅ Moderate to Severe: • Scorpion anti-venom (especially with systemic symptoms) • IV fluids if hypotensive • Benzodiazepines if muscle spasms present • Monitor ECG, vitals, O2 ⸻ 4️⃣ Supportive Measures • Tetanus prophylaxis • Treat complications (e.g. myocarditis, pancreatitis)
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56F with BP 230/140, confusion, optic disc edema, and proteinuria. Most appropriate treatment?
A: IV Sodium Nitroprusside (hypertensive emergency with end-organ damage) Acute renal failure=> Fenoldopam
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Q: Adult with burns to entire right arm + right leg. What % TBSA is involved?
A: 27%
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Q: What is the first-line management for hypertensive emergency with symptoms (e.g., headache, chest pain)?
A: IV antihypertensive such as Clevidipine.
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***MCQ*** Pt with anaphylactic shock , Mx?
Epinephrine ^^^ Extra ^^^ Pathophysiology • Preexisting IgE antibodies → mast cell degranulation → shock, airway compromise Common Triggers • Adults: Penicillin • Children: Peanut Clinical Presentation (PE) • Skin: Urticaria, flushing • Mucosal tissue: Lip, tongue, uvula swelling • Respiratory: Bronchospasm, dyspnea, stridor • GI: Vomiting, diarrhea, crampy abdominal pain • Cardiovascular: Hypotension or end-organ dysfunction Treatment: Epinephrine • Adults: • 0.3–0.5 mL of 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) solution IM every 5–15 min • Children: • 0.01 mg/kg of 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) solution IM every 5–15 min Refractory Hypotension • In patients on beta-blockers: Use glucagon Adjunctive Medications • H1 antagonists • H2 antagonists • Corticosteroids • Beta-2 agonists • Glucagon
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Q: What is the first step in managing bradycardia due to hypothermia (Temp 30°C)?
A: Rapid rewarming Why? Bradycardia is physiologic in hypothermia and improves with rewarming; meds like atropine are ineffective.
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Hemodynamically stable trauma patient with positive FAST (peri-splenic fluid). What is the next step?
A: Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen The presence of free fluid suggests intra-abdominal injury (likely splenic), but in stable patients, the next step is contrast-enhanced CT scan to evaluate the source, grade of injury, and to guide further management. • Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in unstable patients or those with peritonitis.
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Q: What is the first step in managing a patient with anaphylaxis presenting with stridor and wheezing?
A: Immediate IM epinephrine administration. Note : even before establishing an airway or intubation, unless the patient is in respiratory arrest.
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T1DM patient with mild dehydration, slightly high glucose, no ketones or acidosis — best initial management?
A: ORS / oral hydration therapy ✅
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Q: What is the likely cause of metabolic acidosis in a diabetic patient complain of diarrhoea , on metformin and thiazide, with diarrhea, high RBS, low pH and HCO₃⁻, and no ketones?
A: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis (non-anion gap acidosis due to diarrhea).
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According to the Canadian C-Spine Rule, when should cervical spine imaging be done in trauma patients?
Step 1: High-Risk Factors → Image if ANY present * Age ≥ 65 * Dangerous mechanism (e.g., >100 km/h crash, rollover, ejection, fall from ≥3 feet/5 stairs, bicycle collision) * Paresthesias in extremities ➡️ If any = Do imaging ⸻ Step 2: Low-Risk Factors → Can assess ROM if ANY present * Simple rear-end MVC * Ambulatory at any time * Sitting in ED * Delayed onset of neck pain * No midline cervical tenderness ➡️ If none = Image ⸻ Step 3: Assess Active ROM * Can patient rotate neck 45° left and right? ➡️ If cannot = Image ➡️ If can = No imaging needed
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Dx ?
Diaphragmatic rupture
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Middle-aged patient with 3 weeks of non-radiating low back pain and no red flags — next step? + What are red flag
A: NSAIDs and encourage activity/stretching (conservative management). Red flags for low back pain (brief list): 1. Age < 18 or > 50 years 2. Immunosuppression 3. History of cancer or weight loss 4. IV drug use 5. Long-term steroid or anticoagulant use 6. Recent infection, trauma, surgery, or spinal anesthesia 7. Night pain or no relief with rest 8. Fever or abnormal vitals 9. Neurologic deficits (e.g., weakness, saddle anesthesia, bladder/bowel dysfunction) 10. Signs of spinal cord or aortic pathology
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First-line management for midshaft clavicle fracture if non-displaced?
A: Shoulder sling (conservative management). ^^^Extra^^^ 🔹 Brief Approach to Clavicular Fractures 1. Location of Fracture: • Midshaft (80%) — most common • Distal third • Medial third — rare 2. Displacement: • Non-displaced → Conservative (sling, analgesia, early mobilization) • Displaced or comminuted → Consider orthopedic referral ± surgery ***3. Associated Findings:*** • Open fracture • Neurovascular compromise • Skin tenting or risk of piercing skin ➡ These require urgent surgical evaluation.
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A 42-year-old woman has right hand stiffness and pain, mainly in PIP & DIP joints, with one Heberden’s node. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Osteoarthritis – DIP involvement + Heberden’s node = OA.
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Female with long-term corticosteroid use, DEXA shows vertebral osteoporosis and hip osteopenia. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Osteoporosis with high risk vertebral fracture Key: Glucocorticoid use → trabecular bone loss → vertebral fracture risk
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What is the management for a complete Achilles tendon rupture with a positive Thompson test?
A: Surgical repair Positive Thompson test (no plantar flexion when squeezing the calf)
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57F with forefoot burning pain worsened by high heels and tenderness between 3rd and 4th metatarsals. Dx?
A: Morton neuroma – interdigital nerve entrapment (3rd web space).
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Post-hip replacement, patient presents with foot drop and high-stepping gait. Most likely cause?
A: Sciatic nerve injury 🧠 Clue: Think about the nerve close to the hip joint responsible for dorsiflexion. The sciatic nerve gives rise to the common peroneal nerve, which controls: • Dorsiflexion of the foot (via deep peroneal nerve) • Eversion (via superficial peroneal nerve)
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Child pulled by the arm, now not using it, arm pronated. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Radial head subluxation (Nursemaid’s elbow) ^^^Extra^^^ Pulled Elbow (Radial Head Subluxation, Nursemaid Elbow) Child 1-4 years old Most commonly caused by longitudinal traction on a pronated forearm while the elbow is extended History of being pulled up by the wrist PE: the affected arm is held close to the body in a flexed and pronated position ***Dx : clinically , try 2 - 3 time to fix it , if not do XR*** Tx Hyperpronation method: apply pressure to the radial head and hyperpronating the forearm Supination-flexion method: supinate and fully flex the elbow while applying pressure to the radial head and pulling with gentle traction
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What is the acute management of ankle sprain with anterior malleolar tenderness?
A: Immobilizing boot shoes (D) why not XR ?
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management of ankle sprain ?
EXTRA^^: Ankle Sprain Lateral most common, medial and high ankle sprains more severe History of ankle inversion for lateral sprain PE: pain and swelling ***Ottawa Ankle Rules to determine imaging*** Imaging will show partial or complete tearing of ligaments ***Most commonly injured anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)*** Treatments: RICE therapy (lacking formal studies), functional bracing, functional rehabilitation Consider whether a syndesmotic (high) sprain is present and immobilize with non-weight-bearing Emerging treatments: MEAT (movement, exercise, analgesia, treatment) or MOVE (movement, options, vary, ease
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Q: Elbow dislocation + numbness in little finger + can’t abduct fingers = ?
A: Ulnar nerve injury Ulnar: abduction of finger Radial : wriest extension Median : thump toward little finger
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Q: Patient with back pain worsened by movement, ↓ lower limb reflexes, wide-based gait, normal sensation—most likely diagnosis?
A: Lumbar spinal stenosis. ^^^EXTRA : Spinal Stenosis Risk factors: age > 60 years Low back pain and stiffness when walking that is relieved when leaning forward Radicular symptoms, neurogenic claudication Diagnosis is made by MRI Most commonly caused by narrowing of the lumbar spinal canal with compression of the nerve roots Management includes physical therapy, steroid injections (lack of evidence of benefit), surgery
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Middle-aged woman with sharp inferior heel pain worse after rest, improves with movement — next best step?
A: Arch support (→ plantar fasciitis).
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Adolescent with left-sided pleuritic chest pain and localized tenderness over the 3rd rib, most likely diagnosis?
A: Costochondritis Clue: Localized pain reproducible on palpation without systemic signs.
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Q: What is the recommended management for a male adolescent after shoulder dislocation relocation before resuming activities?
A: Immobilize for 2–3 weeks followed by physiotherapy.
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50-year-old male with 40° MCP and 20° PIP flexion contracture of left ring finger due to nodule of the palmar aponeurosis and fibrous band. Best management?
A: Referral for surgical release of the contracture. 📌 Condition Overview: Dupuytren Contracture 👨‍⚕️ What is it? ***Progressive fibrosis of the palmar aponeurosis***, leading to flexion contractures of fingers—most often the ring and little fingers. 🧬 Risk Factors: 👴 Age >50 👨‍👦 Family history 🍷 Alcohol 🚬 Smoking 🩺 Diabetes Symptoms: • Painless nodule or thickened band in palm • Gradual flexion contracture of affected fingers • ↓ Hand function 🔍 When to Treat: • MCP contracture >30° • Any PIP joint involvement • Functional impairment 🛠️ Treatment: • Surgical release (fasciectomy or fasciotomy) in moderate to severe cases • Collagenase injection may be used in early stages (less common)
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Q: Woman hears a “pop” during ski fall, has immediate swelling, effusion, and unstable knee — most likely diagnosis?
A: ACL tear
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Q: 60-year-old asymptomatic woman comes for routine check-up. Last mammogram & lipid profile were 2 years ago. What should be done now?
✅ Mammogram 📝 Explanation: • Mammogram: every 2 years (due now) • Lipid profile: every 4–6 years if low risk (not yet due) • Colonoscopy: every 10 years (last done 4 years ago) • Chest X-ray: not recommended routinely in asymptomatic patients
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Q: What is the next best step for a 36-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer in her mother and grandmother at age 50?
A: Referral for BRCA mutation testing. 🧬 Testing is recommended if breast cancer is diagnosed before age 50 in a close relative, especially if multiple family members are affected. Genetic testing (BRCA) is appropriate in such cases even before age 40.
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Q: Most effective strategy to prevent amebiasis in travelers to rural areas?
A: Avoid uncooked vegetables Why? Prevents ingestion of E. histolytica cysts via contaminated food.
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Q: What is the treatment for traveler’s diarrhea with dysentery symptoms in a traveler to Indonesia?
A: Ciprofloxacin (for moderate/severe or dysenteric diarrhea). ???
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Q: What is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with prior stroke?
A: Stroke rehabilitation program (improves function and prevents disability).
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Q: Which vaccine is routinely recommended by CDC for travel to Egypt?
A: Hepatitis A vaccine (HAV) – due to endemic risk via contaminated food/water.
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Q: Patient has a clean cut by glass and received DTaP 4 years ago. What’s the next step?
A: No vaccine needed 📌 Tdap/Td only if >10 yrs for minor wounds; >5 yrs for dirty wounds.
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Q: What is the empiric treatment for an inflamed cat bite in a vaccinated patient with a healthy-appearing cat?
A: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) 🧫 Covers common pathogens like Pasteurella, Staph aureus, anaerobes. Extraaaaaa: If the patient had prior complete rabies vaccination: * Do NOT give rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) * Give only 2 doses of rabies vaccine on day 0 and day * No need for the full 4-dose series * No need for RIG, even if it’s a high-risk bite
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***extra*** When to give rabies prophylactic?
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Q: What is the first investigation to order in a young male smoker with a family history of premature MI?
A: Lipid profile 🧠 Assesses cardiovascular risk early due to modifiable and hereditary factors.