psycoopth Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

Q: What is the diagnosis in a patient with unilateral red eye, headache, blurry vision, mid-dilated pupil, and decreased visual acuity?

A

A: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

Extra:
Sx: acute unilateral pain and vision loss, headache, vomiting, seeing halos around lights

Clinical: can occur in the setting of significant hyphema

PE: cloudy cornea and fixed mid-dilated pupil

Dx: increased IOP on tonometry

Tx: emergent ophthalmology evaluation, topical beta-blockers (timolol), topical alpha-agonists (apraclonidine), carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide), iridotomy

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2
Q

Q: What is the most accurate statement about primary congenital glaucoma?

A

A: Most cases are diagnosed within the first year of life

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3
Q

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with sudden onset of floaters and fundus image showing intraocular hemorrhage?

A

A: Vitreous hemorrhage

Presentation: Sudden onset of floaters in one eye, possibly with blurred vision or dark spots

Fundoscopy findings: Dark or hazy opacities in the vitreous, retina may be obscured

Common causes: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, trauma, retinal tear or detachment

Urgency: Requires prompt ophthalmology referral to rule out retinal tear/detachment

Next step: Avoid anticoagulants, keep head elevated, refer for B-scan if retina not visible

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4
Q

Q: What is the most likely cause of sudden vision loss in the upper half of one eye in a diabetic patient with HbA1c of 9.1?

A

A: Vascular retinal disease
(e.g., branch retinal artery occlusion or ischemic optic neuropathy)

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5
Q

Q: 26-year-old female with painful eye, loss of color vision, superior visual field loss, and high ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Optic neuritis

Most common cause: Multiple sclerosis (MS)
Other causes: Infections (TB, syphilis, Lyme, viral), NMOSD, autoimmune (sarcoidosis, SLE), idiopathic

Clinical features: Unilateral subacute vision loss, retrobulbar pain (↑ with eye movement), dyschromatopsia, central scotoma, usually monocular

Diagnosis: Clinical +
Key tests: Swinging flashlight test (RAPD), ophthalmoscopy (normal in retrobulbar neuritis; disc edema in papillitis),

MRI brain/orbits (1st-line),

Treatment: IV steroids (methylprednisolone 3–7 days), oral prednisone 11–14 days,
neurology consult

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6
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a child with unilateral red eye, photophobia, and a history of leaf trauma?

A

A: Fungal corneal ulceration

Definition:
Fungal infection of the cornea, often after vegetative trauma.

Cause:
Filamentous fungi (Fusarium, Aspergillus) or Candida.

Key features:
Red eye, photophobia, pain, decreased vision, trauma with plant 🪴 matter.

Exam:
Feathery corneal infiltrate, possible satellite lesions, hypopyon.

Diagnosis:
Slit-lamp exam, corneal scraping with fungal stain/culture.

Treatment:
Topical antifungals (natamycin, amphotericin B), avoid steroids early.

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7
Q

What is the best next step for a 4-month-old with bilateral mucopurulent eye discharge since birth?

A

A: Lacrimal sac massage and topical antibiotics with observation until 6–12 months

Diagnosis: Congenital dacryostenosis (nasolacrimal duct obstruction) (dacryostenosis)

Typical age: Newborns and infants (often noticed since birth)

Presentation: Chronic tearing, mucopurulent eye discharge, no conjunctival injection

Next step: Lacrimal sac massage (Crigler technique) ± topical antibiotics if infected

Definitive treatment: Probing if not resolved by 6–12 months

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8
Q

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a contact lens user with red eye, itching, tearing, and foreign body sensation for 2 weeks, with negative fluorescein test?

A

A: Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis (GPC)

Condition: Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis (GPC)

Cause: Chronic mechanical irritation from contact lenses or exposed sutures

Symptoms: Itching, redness, tearing, mucous discharge, foreign body sensation

Signs: Large papillae on upper tarsal conjunctiva; fluorescein test usually negative /not ulcer

Association: Common in soft contact lens users, especially with poor hygiene

Management: Discontinue lenses temporarily, improve hygiene, switch to daily disposables, topical antihistamines/mast cell stabilizers

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9
Q

Q: What is the appropriate management of corneal abrasion in a child with positive fluorescein stain?

A

A: Topical antibiotic drops (no patching)

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10
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with sudden painless vision loss and a systolic murmur, and fundus shows a cherry red spot?

A

A: Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

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11
Q

Q: What is the treatment for a patient with red eyes, eyelids stuck on waking, and mucopurulent discharge?

A

A: Topical chloramphenicol

First-line treatment: Topical erythromycin ointment or topical trimethoprim-polymyxin B drops

Alternative: Topical chloramphenicol (commonly used in UK and other regions)

For contact lens users/severe cases: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., moxifloxacin) to cover Pseudomonas

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12
Q

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a young male with photophobia, blurry vision, tearing, and unequal pupil size, with a background of psoriasis and topical steroid use?

A

A: Anterior uveitis

Definition: Inflammation of the iris and/or ciliary body (iritis or iridocyclitis); most common type of uveitis.

Etiology: Idiopathic (most common), HLA-B27 diseases (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, IBD), infections (HSV, TB, syphilis), trauma, post-op, rare drug-induced

Symptoms: Eye pain, redness (ciliary injection), photophobia, blurred vision, tearing

Signs: Cells & flare in anterior chamber, miosis, keratic precipitates, hypopyon (severe), may cause posterior synechiae (irregular pupil)

Complications: Synechiae, glaucoma, cataract

Diagnosis: Clinical (slit lamp); investigate if bilateral, recurrent, or severe

Management: Urgent ophthalmology referral, topical steroids + cycloplegics, treat infection if present

Mnemonic: RSVP = Redness, Sensitivity to light, Vision changes, Pain

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13
Q

Redness, tearing, irritation, Dx?

A

Diagnosis: Entropion
Key feature: Inward turning of the lower eyelid
Symptoms: Foreign body sensation, tearing, redness, risk of corneal abrasion from lashes

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14
Q

Redness, tearing, irritation, Dx?

A

Diagnosis: Ectropion
Key feature: Outward turning of the lower eyelid
Symptoms: Redness, tearing, irritation due to exposed conjunctiva

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15
Q

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with night blindness, tunnel vision, and a positive family history, Dx?

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

Definition: A group of inherited retinal dystrophies characterized by progressive peripheral vision loss and night blindness.

Inheritance: Most commonly autosomal recessive, but may be autosomal dominant or X-linked.

Symptoms: Night blindness (nyctalopia), tunnel vision, eventual central vision loss.

Fundoscopy:
Bone-spicule pigmentation, arteriolar narrowing, waxy pallor of optic disc.

Diagnosis: Clinical + ERG (electroretinogram shows reduced scotopic response).

Management: No cure; supportive with low-vision aids, vitamin A may slow progression in some types.

Complications: Cataracts, macular edema, complete blindness in advanced stages.

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16
Q

Q: 54 years old known to have DM, C/O chronic hx of decreased vision, later on he developed central vision loss (picture attached). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

macular degeneration

other case ::::
Extra:

Condition: Diabetes-Related Retinopathy (Diabetic Retinopathy)

History: History of diabetes

Early stage: Often asymptomatic

Symptoms with progression: Seeing spots, floaters, vision loss

Types: Nonproliferative, proliferative

Funduscopic exam: Microaneurysms, hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, neovascularization (with proliferative type)

Treatment options: Glucose control, anti-VEGF agents, laser photocoagulation, vitrectomy (depending on type and presence of macular edema)

Screening: At time of type 2 diabetes diagnosis; within 5 years of type 1 diabetes diagnosis

In mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, what can slow progression? Fenofibrate

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17
Q

Not MCQs
In corneal abrasion with significant pain, which is preferred for pain relief?

A

Cycloplegics (more effective than NSAIDs for pain from ciliary spasm - sever or photophobia)

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18
Q

Q: A patient with psoriasis, acute unilateral photophobia, tearing, and normal fluorescein uptake – what is the likely diagnosis?

A

A: Anterior uveitis

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19
Q

A child presents with unilateral eye swelling post-URTI — what test has the highest diagnostic value?

A

A: CT orbit with contrast

Orbital cellulitis’s :
Definition: Serious infection posterior to the orbital septum; medical emergency needing IV antibiotics and urgent ophthalmology consult.

Epidemiology: More common in children; peaks in winter.

Etiology: Local spread (sinusitis, dental), trauma/surgery, hematogenous spread.

Clinical Features: Unilateral eyelid swelling, pain, fever; red flags: proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, ↓ visual acuity, chemosis, RAPD.

Diagnostics: Clinical + CT orbit/sinuses with contrast; labs (CBC, cultures); MRI if CNS spread suspected.

Differential Diagnosis: Preseptal cellulitis, orbital abscess, CST, hemorrhage, tumor, autoimmune.

Management: Urgent ophthalmology; empiric IV vancomycin + ampicillin/sulbactam or ceftriaxone + metronidazole; antifungal if immunocompromised; decongestants, lubricants; steroids if guided.

Complications: Orbital abscess, vision loss, intracranial abscess, CST, endophthalmitis.

Disposition: Admit for IV therapy; multidisciplinary care as needed.

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20
Q

Q: Elderly patient with unilateral SNHL, vertigo, fullness, and nystagmus without tinnitus or facial symptoms. Diagnosis?

A

Vestibular schwannoma
=Acoustic neuroma

Key features: Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo, ear fullness, and nystagmus in an elderly patient

Audiogram clue: Asymmetrical SNHL (left ear worse) with normal right ear hearing

CN involvement: Affects CN VIII (vestibulocochlear); facial nerve (CN VII) involved only in advanced cases

Distinguishing from Ménière’s: Ménière’s usually has tinnitus and fluctuating hearing loss; schwannoma is progressive and often lacks tinnitus

**Best initial test: ** Audiometry showing asymmetric SNHL

Confirmatory test: MRI with gadolinium of the internal auditory canal

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21
Q

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a head trauma patient with clear nasal discharge and nasal bone fracture on X-ray?

A

A: CSF rhinorrhea due to ethmoid (cribriform plate) fracture

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22
Q

Q: What is the next step if anterior nasal packing fails to control epistaxis?

A

Posterior packing
to control posterior nasal bleed.

Extra :

Epistaxis

Most common source: Anterior bleeds: Kiesselbach plexus
Posterior bleeds: Sphenopalatine artery

Treatment:
Anterior bleeding: direct pressure, topical vasoconstriction (oxymetazoline), chemical cautery with silver nitrate (if vessel visualized), packing
Posterior bleeding: packing (nasal balloon or Foley catheter)

Admit patients with posterior packing to a monitored bed

Possible complications: septal necrosis (if both sides of septum cauterized), toxic shock syndrome (prolonged packing), infection

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23
Q

Q: A heavy smoker presents with hoarseness, dysphagia, and a non-tender neck mass. Most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Laryngeal carcinoma

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24
Q

Q: What is the next step for a patient with sinusitis >3 weeks and high-grade fever but stable, no red flags?

A

A: Start oral Augmentin.

Extra :

Acute Sinusitis
Sx: nasal congestion, pain or pressure over sinuses, ear pain or pressure, headache, fever
PE: purulent rhinorrhea
Most commonly caused by: viral URI
If viral, Tx: supportive care

Diagnostic features of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis:

Persistent: symptoms ≥ 10 days without improvement
OR
Severe: symptoms, fever ≥ 39°C (102°F), purulent nasal discharge, or face pain ≥ 3 days
OR
Worsening: symptoms ≥ 5 days after initially improving viral upper respiratory infection

Tx: Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Complications: frontal bone osteomyelitis (Pott puffy tumor), orbital cellulitis, sinus venous thrombosis, extension into meninges or brain

Q: What are common viral etiologies of acute rhinosinusitis?
A: Rhinovirus, influenza, and parainfluenza.

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25
26
Q: Diabetic patient with ear pain & itching, otoscopy shows fungal debris – management?
***A: Itraconazole + paracetamol***
27
Q: Patient with 1 week of dizziness, ear pain, and nausea post-URTI — most appropriate treatment?
***A: Antibiotics (Abx) *** Extra : ***Labyrinthitis***: Inflammatory process involving the inner ear membranous labyrinth ***Symptoms***: vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus ***Key point***: Vestibular neuritis + unilateral hearing loss = labyrinthitis ***Duration***: Can last ***days to 1 week*** ***Risks***: ***Recent upper respiratory infection (most common)***, medications, concurrent otitis media ***PE***: spontaneous horizontal ***nystagmus*** ***Diagnosis***: clinical ***Treatment***: corticosteroids, symptomatic care, vestibular rehabilitation ***Management***: remove any offending agents ***Bacterial cause***: requires ***antibiotics*** and possibly ***surgical drainage***
28
Q: Elderly patient with bilateral SNHL (worse on one side), normal Rinne, Weber lateralizes to better ear. Most likely diagnosis?
***Presbycusis*** Note : ***Rinne:*** "Rinne under the Pinne (pinna = ear)" → test compares ***air conduction (AC)*** vs. ***bone conduction (BC)***. ***Weber:*** "Weber on the forehead" → test for ***lateralization***. ***RINNE Test:*** Compares ***air conduction (AC)*** to ***bone conduction (BC)***. ***WEBER Test:*** Determines ***lateralization of sound*** (which ear hears better).
29
What is the most likely cause of bilateral conductive hearing loss with poor visualization of tympanic membrane and long-term earplug use?
***A: Cerumen impaction ***
30
Q: A school-aged boy presents with a fluctuant swelling of the ear after trauma. What is the next step in management?
***A: Referral for incision and drainage (I&D) with compressive dressing*** Risk: if not treated, can lead to cartilage necrosis and ***cauliflower ear***
31
Q: Patient has brief vertigo on rolling in bed; what is the diagnostic next step?
***A: Dix-Hallpike maneuver*** ***Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)***: Presents with the ***sudden sensation of room spinning*** with positional changes of the head ***Episodes***: Last seconds to minutes ***Cause***: Displaced otoconia within the semicircular canals ***Most common site***: Posterior semicircular canal ***Dx***: ***Dix-Hallpike maneuver*** (posterior canal BPPV) ***Tx***: Particle repositioning maneuver (e.g., ***Epley maneuver***)
32
Q: Adult with persistent ear pain after 2 days of amoxicillin — next step?
***Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid*** ## Footnote go ahead u great
33
Q: A child presents with unilateral soft palate swelling, uvular deviation, bad breath, and muffled voice after failing amoxicillin. What’s the next step?
***A: Emergent ENT referral for aspiration and drainage (peritonsillar abscess)***. ————— ***Note:*** Even if the patient hasn’t received prior antibiotics, drainage is still required — because antibiotics alone can’t penetrate the abscess well. ***1. ENT referral:*** Urgent drainage via needle aspiration or incision and drainage → ***source control is the priority*** ***2. IV antibiotics:*** Start immediately after or alongside drainage ***Examples:*** • ***Ampicillin-sulbactam*** • ***Clindamycin*** if penicillin allergy → Covers ***Strep pyogenes***, ***Staph aureus***, and anaerobes ————— ***Key features:*** Unilateral soft palate swelling, uvular deviation, muffled voice ("hot potato voice"), bad breath, shortness of breath ***Clue in stem:*** No improvement on amoxicillin + airway symptoms + uvular deviation ***Reason amoxicillin failed:*** Peritonsillar abscess requires drainage, not just antibiotics ***Most appropriate management:*** Emergent ENT referral for aspiration and drainage ***Why not intubation:*** No signs of impending airway obstruction (e.g., stridor, cyanosis); monitor but ENT referral comes first ***Why not Augmentin:*** Escalating antibiotics alone is not enough for abscess; source control is priority
34
Patient with sneezing, watery eye discharge, itching, no seasonal variation, and some relief with OTC meds — most likely diagnosis?
***A: Chronic rhinitis***
35
Old man with hearing loss mailny in Rt, Weber lateralizes to right, Rinne normal both ears. Likely diagnosis?
A: Presbycusis – age-related bilateral sensorineural hearing loss (left > right).
36
4-year-old with umbilicated, flesh-colored papules on arms and trunk. Diagnosis?
***A: Molluscum contagiosum*** -virus (genus Molluscipoxvirus) Overview: ***Common in:*** Childhood (can also affect healthy adults) ***Transmission:*** Direct skin-to-skin contact or fomites ***Symptoms:*** Small, skin-colored papules; sometimes pruritic or inflamed ***Physical Exam:*** Multiple waxy, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication ***Etiology:*** Poxvirus ***Course:*** Self-limiting (resolves in 6–12 months) ***Treatment:*** Not necessary unless lesions are symptomatic or cosmetically concerning ***Q:*** What is the term used for the molluscum bodies appearing on hematoxylin and eosin stains of a molluscum contagiosum lesion? ***A:*** Henderson-Paterson bodies
37
Case of white pigmented lesion, bleeding on shedding, involving the nails. No joint involvement. What is the INITIAL management?
***A: Topical steroids*** ***Sx:*** rash on ***extensor*** surfaces of arms and legs ***PE:*** bilateral sharply marginated papules or plaques with ***silvery scales***, ***Auspitz sign*** (scale removal produces blood droplets), ***nail pitting*** ***Treatment:*** ***Topical agents:*** Clobetasol (steroid), Calcipotriol (vitamin D), Tazarotene (retinoid), *Tacrolimus* (calcineurin inhibitor) ***Conventional systemic agents:*** Methotrexate (antimetabolite), *Cyclosporine* (calcineurin inhibitor), Acitretin (retinoid), Apremilast (PDE-4 inhibitor) ***Biologic agents:*** Adalimumab, Etanercept (TNF-α inhibitors); Ustekinumab (IL-12/23); Secukinumab, Ixekizumab (IL-17); Guselkumab, Risankizumab (IL-23) ***Phototherapy:*** Narrowband UVB, PUVA (psoralen + UVA)
38
Q: A child has a lesion like the one shown that increased in size but then stabilized, with no other symptoms. What is the best next step in management?
***A: It will resolve spontaneously*** !!
39
Q: A patient presents with white-colored pigmentation on the nail. What is the condition called?
A: ***Leukonychia***
40
Q: Case presents with symmetric hyperpigmented facial patches on cheeks/forehead. Likely diagnosis? Mangment?
***A: Melasma*** ***Retinoid and hydroquinone***
41
Q: Red-brown axillary/groin lesion with coral red fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Best treatment?
***erythrasma - Topical erythromycin or clindamycin*** ***Definition:*** Erythrasma is a superficial bacterial skin infection caused by *Corynebacterium minutissimum*, part of the normal skin flora. ***Risk Factors:*** Common in moist intertriginous areas (e.g., groin, toe webs), especially in obese individuals or those with diabetes mellitus. ***Clinical Presentation:*** Well-demarcated erythematous or brown patches, fine scaling and wrinkling, typically found in skin folds. ***Diagnosis:*** Coral-red fluorescence under Wood lamp examination due to porphyrin production by the bacteria. ***Treatment:*** Topical antibiotics for localized cases; systemic antibiotics for extensive involvement.
42
Management ?
A: Clotrimazole
43
White macerated erosive lesion in toe web space – best treatment?
***Terbinafine*** Tinea Pedis (Athlete’s Foot): ***Definition:*** Most common dermatophyte infection affecting the feet. ***Treatment:*** - ***Mild:*** Topical antifungals (terbinafine, clotrimazole) - ***Severe:*** Oral antifungals (terbinafine, griseofulvin) - Duration: ~2 weeks or longer for refractory cases.
44
Management ?
***Reassurance and follow up*** Extra : ***Definition:*** Calluses are poorly defined, thickened areas of skin caused by repetitive friction or pressure , they appear as hyperkeratotic plaques ***Clinical clue:*** Skin lines remain visible across the lesion (distinguishing them from warts). ***Differentiation:*** No punctate black dots, which are characteristic of plantar warts (thrombosed capillaries). ***Conservative:*** Soaks, pumice exfoliation, moisturizers, topical keratolytics, protective padding. ***Advanced:*** Scalpel debridement, surgical correction of deformities.
45
A patient presents with itchy, well-demarcated, silvery-scaly plaques over the knees, and shows pinpoint bleeding on scale removal. What is the diagnosis?
***A: Psoriasis ***
46
A woman in her 50s presents with itchy erythematous plaques and tense bullae, no fever or systemic symptoms. Most likely diagnosis?
***A: Bullous pemphigoid*** ***Bullous pemphigoid:*** Chronic autoimmune blistering disease, most common in elderly but can present in 50s. ***Clinical features:*** Intensely pruritic, tense bullae on erythematous or urticarial plaques; often involves trunk and flexural areas. ***Systemic symptoms:*** Typically absent; patient usually afebrile and well-appearing. ***Differential diagnosis:*** Bullous impetigo presents with flaccid bullae, more common in children, and often has fever or systemic signs. ***Key distinguishing feature:*** Tense bullae with no fever or systemic involvement favors bullous pemphigoid.
47
Young athletic male with summer-worsened rash on back; likely diagnosis?
***Tinea versicolor*** (Malassezia overgrowth)
48
Q: What is the most important test to perform before starting oral isotretinoin in a female patient?
***A: Pregnancy test*** (due to the drug’s teratogenic effects). ***Acne Vulgaris***: Most common in adolescents ***Etiology***: Increased ***sebum production***, ***follicular keratinization***, and ***Cutibacterium acnes*** colonization ***Physical Exam***: ***Open comedones*** (blackheads), ***closed comedones*** (whiteheads), ***papules***, and ***pustules*** on the ***face, chest, and upper back*** ***Treatment***: ***Topical retinoids*** (e.g., tretinoin, adapalene) ± ***topical antimicrobials*** (benzoyl peroxide, clindamycin, erythromycin) ± ***oral antibiotics*** (doxycycline or minocycline), ***OCPs, spironolactone, oral isotretinoin*** ***Comments***: ***Oral isotretinoin is teratogenic*** (Pregnancy Category X) — ***requires two forms of birth control*** ***Q: What distinguishes acne from rosacea?***: ***Absence of comedones*** and the presence of ***erythema and telangiectasias*** in rosacea.
49
Q: Infant with intense pruritic rash, crusted papules/vesicles on hands, buttocks, and groin. Most likely diagnosis?
***A: Scabies***
50
Q: A newborn presents with multiple tiny white papules on the cheeks and nose. What is the diagnosis and management?
A: Milia; reassurance only, resolves spontaneously.
51
Q: Young athletic male with a back rash that worsens in summer; Most likely diagnosis?
***A: Pityriasis versicolor*** Why not pityriasis rosea ? = viral infection
52
Q: Female 3 months postpartum with sad mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration — diagnosis?
***A: Postpartum depression***
53
Q: Best management for erectile dysfunction in a patient on fluoxetine?
***A: Add bupropion***
54
What is the next step in a patient with anorexia nervosa who expresses a desire to die and refuses to answer suicide-related questions?
***A: Involuntary admission*** EXTRA: ***Three core features:*** Restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or behaviors interfering with weight gain, and disturbance in body image ***Two types:*** Restricting and binge eating/purging ***Recommended interventions:*** Determination of setting, medical stabilization (avoid refeeding syndrome), nutritional rehabilitation, psychotherapy, and family-based therapy in youth
55
Q: A child not responding to commands, with echolalia and poor eye contact—most likely diagnosis?
***A: Autism*** NOTE: Repeating phrases (echolalia) → a classic feature of autism. EXTRA: ***Autism Spectrum Disorder***: DSM-5 term that replaced autistic disorder, Asperger disorder, and pervasive developmental disorder. ***Core features***: Persistent deficits in social communication and interaction; restricted and repetitive patterns in behavior, interests, and activities. ***Onset***: Early developmental period. ***Symptom severity***: Most apparent in preschool and elementary school. ***Associated impairments***: May include language or intellectual delays. ***Treatment***: Primarily psychoeducational and behavioral interventions; medications used for aggression or comorbid conditions.
56
Q: First-line treatment for pediatric OCD with contamination fears?
***A: Exposure and response prevention (ERP)*** EXTRA: ``` ***Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder***: Recurrent thoughts (obsessions), behaviors (compulsions) ***Difficult to control***: Patients struggle to resist obsessions and compulsions ***Disruption to daily living***: Significant interference with social, academic, or personal life ***Need to perform rituals***: Repetitive acts to reduce anxiety or prevent imagined harm ***Yale-Brown Obsessive-Compulsive Scale***: Tool used to assess severity ***Treatment options***: Cognitive behavioral therapy (especially ERP), medications (SSRIs) ```
57
Q: What is the most beneficial long-term step in managing somatic symptom disorder?
***Frequent close follow-ups with one provider*** ***Minimize unnecessary tests:*** Avoid reinforcing health anxiety by limiting repeated investigations. ***Establish consistent care:*** Schedule regular visits with the same primary care physician to ensure trust and continuity. ***Psychotherapy (first-line):*** Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) to address maladaptive thoughts and reduce symptom focus. ***Pharmacotherapy:*** SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine, sertraline) if comorbid depression/anxiety or significant somatic distress. ***DSM-5 Criteria:*** 1. ≥1 somatic symptom (e.g., pain, GI, neurologic complaints) causing distress or significant disruption. 2. Excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptom(s), with ≥1 of: - Disproportionate and persistent thoughts about seriousness of symptoms - Persistently high anxiety about health/symptoms - Excessive time and energy devoted to symptoms 3. Duration ≥6 months (though specific symptom may change).
58
Q: Initial treatment for PTSD in a patient with poor sleep after a traumatic event 2 months ago?
A: *** Referral to psychologist *** extra: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) Sx duration > 1 month Persistent re-experiencing of event Persistently ↑ arousal Avoidance of stimuli ↑ risk for suicide, substance use MANAGEMENT: ***First-line Treatment:*** Trauma-focused psychotherapy is the cornerstone for both acute stress disorder and PTSD. ***Preferred modalities:*** Prolonged exposure therapy, Cognitive processing therapy, Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) ***Pharmacologic Therapy:*** SSRIs or SNRIs (e.g., sertraline, paroxetine, venlafaxine) ***Indications for medication:*** When psychotherapy is inaccessible, declined, or response is incomplete ```
59
Q: What is the next best step in a depressed patient with partial response to fluoxetine and persistent fatigue/sleeping 12 hrs, unwilling to switch medications?
***A: Add bupropion ***
60
Patient with 6-month delusion, no hallucinations or mood symptoms — diagnosis?
***A: Schizophrenia*** differences: ``` ***Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders:*** Psychotic symptoms include ***delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms*** ***Brief Psychotic Disorder:*** Duration ***< 1 month*** ***Schizophreniform Disorder:*** Duration ***≥ 1 month and < 6 months*** ***Schizophrenia:*** Duration ***≥ 6 months*** of active, prodromal, or residual symptoms ***Schizoaffective Disorder:*** Presence of ***psychosis + mood symptoms*** (mania or depression) ``` criteria of diagnosis : ***Core Symptoms (≥2 for ≥1 month, 1 must be from top 3):*** delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms ***Functional Decline:*** Social or occupational dysfunction since onset ***Duration:*** Continuous signs of disturbance for ***≥6 months*** (including prodromal/residual phases) ***Mood Disorder Rule-Out:*** Mood symptoms (if any) are brief relative to psychotic symptoms ***Substance/Medical Exclusion:*** Not due to drugs or medical illness ```
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***Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient who feels depressed and hopeless 2 months after losing a job, with some preserved social and recreational functioning***
***A: Adjustment disorder*** criteria : **DSM-5 criteria for Adjustment Disorder** : ***Criteria:*** Emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor ***Onset:*** Symptoms begin within 3 months of the stressor ***Disproportionate distress:*** Marked distress that is out of proportion to the severity of the stressor ***Functional impairment:*** Significant impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning ***Exclusion:*** Does not meet criteria for another mental disorder or exacerbate a preexisting one ***Not normal bereavement:*** Symptoms are not explained by normal grief ***Duration:*** Symptoms do not persist more than 6 months after the stressor or its consequences end
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***Q: What is a suitable treatment for bipolar disorder (not mention first-line or acute treatment)?***
***lithium*** extra: ***1. Acute Mania/Hypomania:*** - First-line: Lithium, valproate, or second-generation antipsychotics → Examples: ***Quetiapine***, ***Olanzapine***, ***Risperidone*** - Severe cases: Combine lithium +atypical antipsychotic - *Avoid antidepressants (risk of triggering mania)* ***2. Acute Bipolar Depression:*** - First-line options: → ***Quetiapine*** → ***Lurasidone*** → ***Lamotrigine*** → ***Olanzapine + Fluoxetine*** - Lithium may be continued or added - Avoid antidepressant monotherapy (can trigger mania) ***3. Maintenance Therapy:*** - First-line: Lithium, valproate, lamotrigine, quetiapine - Use ***lamotrigine*** if depressive relapses dominate - Maintenance goal: Prevent both mania & depression ***4. Psychosocial:*** - Psychoeducation - CBT and family-focused therapy - Regular follow-up and adherence support ```
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***Q: 73 y/o with schizophrenia, recent haloperidol increase, now has tachycardia, confusion, and stiffness — what to measure to confirm diagnosis?*** ```
***A: Creatine kinase (CK)*** This elderly patient with schizophrenia recently had an increase in haloperidol dose and now presents with tachycardia, confusion, and stiffness — classic signs of ***Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS).*** To support this diagnosis, the most useful confirmatory lab test is ***creatine kinase (CK)***, which is typically elevated due to rhabdomyolysis in NMS.
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Q: Which antidepressant is best for a 45-year-old male with depression, insomnia, and comorbid HTN, DM, and overactive bladder on oxybutynin?
***Fluoxetine*** ***Fluoxetine:*** Always start with SSRI in Major Depressive Disorder (MDD); SSRI is almost always the 1st-line treatment ***Pharma Fact:*** Fluoxetine is best for adolescents; it has LONG duration of action (↓ withdrawal symptoms), causes LESS weight gain than other SSRIs, and can be used for premature ejaculation (↑ orgasm threshold) ***Bupropion:*** Used for RESISTANT depression after SSRI/other antidepressants fail, or if the patient has SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION from SSRIs; also used for SMOKING cessation
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Q: A female with >3 years of low mood and anhedonia, most days, worsening around menses — diagnosis?
***Persistent Depressive Disorder (PDD)*** ***Other name:*** Dysthymia ***Duration:*** >3 years of low mood and anhedonia ***Frequency:*** Symptoms occur most of the days ***Associated symptoms:*** Fatigue, hypersomnia, decreased appetite ```
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What is the most commonly used validated screening tool for postpartum depression?
***A: Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale***
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Male brought by wife due to excessive worry about parents' health, repeatedly checks bank, comes early to appointments, symptoms affect sleep, work, and relationship — best initial management?
***Escitalopram*** SSRI, first-line for GAD and OCD.
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***Q:*** What is the most likely diagnosis in a 68-year-old woman with low mood, memory loss, disorientation, and MMSE score of 14/30?
***Alzheimer's disease ***
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***Q: 22-year-old university student with recurrent episodes of numbness, sweating, choking, avoids classes out of fear of similar symptoms again — diagnosis?***
***A: Panic disorder *** ***Diagnosis: Panic Disorder*** ***1. Recurrent unexpected panic attacks:*** Sudden intense fear or discomfort that peaks within minutes, with ≥4 of the following: - Palpitations, pounding heart - Sweating - Trembling or shaking - Shortness of breath or smothering - Feelings of choking - Chest pain or discomfort - Nausea or abdominal distress - Dizziness, lightheadedness - Chills or heat sensations - Paresthesias (numbness or tingling) - Derealization or depersonalization - Fear of losing control or “going crazy” - Fear of dying ***2. At least one attack followed by ≥1 month of one or both:*** - Persistent concern or worry about additional panic attacks or their consequences - Significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attacks (e.g., avoidance) ***3. Not attributable to substance or medical condition*** ***4. Not better explained by another mental disorder:*** (e.g., social anxiety, specific phobia, PTSD)
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Q: Which antidepressant is most likely to cause dry eyes, blurry vision, and urinary retention due to anticholinergic effects?
***A: Amitriptyline*** Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) with strong ***anticholinergic side effects***, including: -Dry eyes -Blurry vision (due to mydriasis) -Urinary retention These symptoms are consistent with anticholinergic toxicity. Among the listed options, ***amitriptyline*** and ***clomipramine*** are TCAs, but amitriptyline is more commonly associated with pronounced anticholinergic side effects. SSRIs (fluoxetine) and SNRIs (venlafaxine) are less likely to cause these symptoms.
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***Q: In a psychiatric patient with high prolactin level, which medications is the cause?***
***A: Risperidone*** Risperidone is an antipsychotic that blocks dopamine D2 receptors. Dopamine normally inhibits prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary. ***By blocking dopamine,*** risperidone removes this inhibition and can significantly increase prolactin levels ***(hyperprolactinemia),*** leading to symptoms like galactorrhea, amenorrhea, or gynecomastia.
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Q: What is the likely diagnosis for a patient preoccupied with health, despite normal findings and minimal symptoms?
***A: Illness anxiety disorder*** ***✅ B. Illness anxiety disorder:*** ≥6 mo the pt is ***PREOCCUPIED*** with the idea of being ***SICK*** or ***having SERIOUS ILLNESS*** (CANCER, HIV). Despite having -ve workup. ***❌ Somatic symptom disorder*** → ≥6 mo pt has ***≥1 TRUE PHYSICAL sx*** (pain) + pt ***believes*** he is sick
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Q: What is the first-line management for a child with autism spectrum disorder presenting with poor eye contact, repetitive behavior, and limited social interaction?
***A: Behavior therapy*** (e.g., Applied Behavior Analysis)
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Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a schizophrenic patient presenting with visual hallucinations, dry eyes, urinary retention, and temperature dysregulation?
***A: Anticholinergic delirium*** This female patient with schizophrenia is presenting with visual hallucinations, urinary retention, dry eyes, and temperature dysregulation (suggested by warm/cold sensation in the cervical area). These are classic signs of anticholinergic toxicity, often due to medications like antipsychotics or antiparkinsonian agents that have anticholinergic effects. Visual hallucinations → more common in delirium than in schizophrenia. Dry eyes and urinary retention → anticholinergic side effects. Temperature dysregulation and altered sensorium → fit with delirium.
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***Q: What is the diagnosis in a 15-year-old girl who lost 30 kg, has a BMI of 15, and still believes she is overweight?***
***A: Anorexia nervosa *** ***This 15-year-old female has:*** - Significant weight loss (30 kg over a year) - ***A BMI of 15, which is underweight*** - Persistent body image distortion — *"she still thinks that her body is too heavy"* ***These features are classic for Anorexia Nervosa, which involves:*** - Restriction of energy intake - Significantly low body weight - Intense fear of gaining weight - Disturbance in body image ```
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Q: A patient treated with fluoxetine for depression develops acute mania (e.g., no sleep, impulsive spending). What is the best choice of medication to control the acute symptoms?
***A: Antipsychotics*** (e.g., risperidone, olanzapine) — due to rapid onset of action. ***Treatment:*** You must distinguish whether you are treating acute mania or bipolar depression. ***If acute mania, use lithium, valproic acid, and atypical antipsychotics*** as first-line treatments. MCQs***If acute mania with severe symptoms, use atypical antipsychotics*** due to shorter onset of action. ***If bipolar depression, use lithium, quetiapine, lurasidone, or lamotrigine.*** Lurasidone can be used in pregnancy if the benefits outweigh the risk. As with other atypical antipsychotics, fetuses exposed to lurasidone in the third trimester have an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. ***If kidneys are compromised, do not use lithium.*** ***Avoid divalproex in women of child-bearing age.*** MCQs ***Note:*** Use of an SSRI during bipolar depression risks inducing mania.
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What is the next step if a patient on escitalopram 10 mg for depression reports no improvement after 1 week?
***Continue the same*** Explanation: Escitalopram and other SSRIs typically require at least 4–6 weeks to assess effectiveness. One week is too early to determine response. Since the patient is already on the minimum therapeutic dose (10 mg) and assuming no side effects, the appropriate step is to continue the same dose and reassess later.
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A patient experiences numbness, sweating, and choking specifically when going to school and meeting friends. What is the most likely diagnosis?
***A: Social anxiety disorder***
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Q: What is the best treatment for a young female with depression and urinary incontinence due to incomplete bladder emptying?
***A: Amitriptyline*** Explanation: This young female presents with depressive symptoms and urinary incontinence suggestive of neurogenic bladder (likely secondary to an underlying neurological disorder like multiple sclerosis). Among the listed options: Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), has anticholinergic effects that help improve urinary incontinence by relaxing the bladder and reducing urgency/frequency. It is also effective for depression. Fluoxetine is a standard SSRI antidepressant, but SSRIs can worsen urinary incontinence in some cases, especially stress incontinence.
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Q: What is the first-line treatment for Parkinson’s disease dementia with MMSE 19 and behavioral symptoms?
***A: Donepezil*** **Explanation:** This elderly patient presents with cognitive decline (MMSE = 19), loss of interest, forgetfulness, and agitation, alongside Parkinsonian features — consistent with **Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD)**. The first-line treatment for PDD includes cholinesterase inhibitors like **Donepezil**, which can improve cognition and behavioral symptoms. Antipsychotics such as **Olanzapine**, **Clonazapine**, and **Risperidone** may worsen Parkinsonism due to dopamine blockade and are not first-line treatments for dementia-related symptoms unless absolutely necessary and carefully monitored. ```