Gs Flashcards
(44 cards)
Diagnosis of wrist swelling with +ve transillumination test?
Ganglion cyst
What is the next step for a euthyroid patient with a 3 cm hypoechoic thyroid nodule?
A: FNA
Q: What is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of AAA in a smoker with strong family history?
A: Smoking cessation
What is the first-line oral antibiotic for mild, nonpurulent cellulitis of the leg in adults?
A: Dicloxacillin
Q: What is the most likely cause of chronic constipation, thin stools, and positive occult blood with apple-core lesion on imaging?
A: Rectal cancer
💡 Think of “apple-core” lesion and pencil-thin stool as hallmarks of distal colorectal cancer.
Q: Firm groin mass below inguinal ligament, lateral to pubis, no cough impulse or pressure change—most likely?
A: Femoral hernia
Note:
watchful waiting is usually avoided in women with groin hernias unless imaging confirms it is a reducible inguinal hernia.
Watchful waiting is more commonly appropriate in asymptomatic men with inguinal hernias.
23F with RLQ tenderness, guarding, vomiting, high WBC. Next step?
A: US
What is the management of asymptomatic gallstones in a chronic hepatitis B carrier?
Reassurance and follow-up — no intervention is needed if asymptomatic.
Extra:
Medication dissolves cholesterol stone in 6-12 month Ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol)
indication for cholecystectomy:
1 Symptomatic Gallstones
Cancer suspicion
2 Gallbladder polyps > 1 cm (or any size with symptoms or risk factors)
-Porcelain gallbladder (calcified wall) → ↑ risk of gallbladder cancer
-Gallbladder cancer or suspicion on imaging
-Large gallstones (>3 cm) in elderly → higher cancer risk
special
3 Children with symptomatic gallstones
- Sickle cell disease with gallstones (even if asymptomatic)
Patient with chronic painless rectal bleeding & itching now presents with acute anal pain and mass – most likely diagnosis?
A: Thrombosed hemorrhoid
✅ Chronic → painless → now sudden painful mass = thrombosed hemorrhoid
Acutely thrombosed hemorrhoids < 72 hours can be excised in the ED or some clinics
Q: A post-gastric sleeve patient develops dizziness, fatigue, vomiting, and abdominal pain shortly after eating. Diagnosis?
A: Dumping Syndrome – due to rapid gastric emptying after surgery.
Extra:
Late Dumping Syndrome
• Onset: 1–3 hours after eating
• Mechanism: Rapid glucose absorption → transient hyperglycemia → exaggerated insulin response → hypoglycemia and catecholamine release
• Symptoms:
• Hypoglycemic: hunger, tremors, lightheadedness
• GI discomfort
• Management:
1. Dietary changes (as above)
2. Octreotide
3. Surgical revision
Late dumping syndrome should be suspected in patients with gastric surgery who experience postprandial hypoglycemia.
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Patient with history of abdominal surgery presents with abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distension, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Next Mx?
A: Keep NPO, start IV fluids, and insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.
Child with midline neck mass that moves with swallowing and tongue protrusion. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Thyroglossal duct cyst
What is the next step in a stable elderly male with pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit on auscultation?
A: Abdominal ultrasound.
Extra
Middle-aged patient with chronic constipation, thin stools, positive occult blood, normal DRE — most likely diagnosis?
A: Sigmoid cancer/recal
What is the most appropriate step for a patient with RUQ pain, fever, and labs showing cholestatic LFT pattern (↑ALP, ↑bilirubin)?
A: ERCP — diagnostic and therapeutic for choledocholithiasis or cholangitis.
Q: What is the diagnosis of a painless, fluctuant, bluish mass under the tongue, often due to blocked salivary gland duct?
A: Mucocele
🧠 Explanation: Mucoceles are mucus-retention cysts of minor salivary glands. When under the tongue, they are called ranulas and present as painless, bluish swellings due to saliva accumulation.
Q: What is the most likely cause of hoarseness after thyroidectomy?
A: Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Q: What is the best management for confirmed breast fat necrosis after trauma with only mild symptoms?
A: Reassurance
🧠 Explanation:
Fat necrosis of the breast is a benign condition often resulting from trauma or surgery. It can present as:
• A palpable mass
• Mild tenderness
• Bruising or skin retraction
• Sometimes calcifications on imaging
Q: Patient with BMI 45, poorly controlled DM (HbA1c 11%), HTN, and OA—most appropriate next step?
A: Bariatric surgery
🧠 Main point:
Bariatric surgery is indicated for:
BMI ≥40, or BMI ≥35 with comorbid conditions (DM, HTN, OA)
22F with bilateral cyclical breast pain and multiple mobile nodules. What is the next best step?
A: Ultrasound
Q: A woman presents with spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge and normal breast exam. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Intraductal papilloma
Q: 40-year-old woman with sister diagnosed with breast cancer at 56 has a normal mammogram. Next step?
🧠
A: Mammogram annually
Screen breast cancer:
The USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women aged 40–74 years.
This recommendation is applicable to both average-risk women and women with factors associated with an increased risk of breast cancer, including having dense breasts or a positive family history of breast cancer
Extra
genetic testing is considered when there is:
1. Breast cancer in a first-degree relative <50 years
2. Multiple relatives with breast/ovarian cancer
Q: A patient develops pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath on day 5 post-cholecystectomy. Most likely diagnosis?
A: Pulmonary embolism
🔍 Explanation: Classic presentation for PE in the postoperative setting due to increased thrombotic risk.
Acute appendicitis sign ?