Gs Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

Diagnosis of wrist swelling with +ve transillumination test?

A

Ganglion cyst

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2
Q

What is the next step for a euthyroid patient with a 3 cm hypoechoic thyroid nodule?

A

A: FNA

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3
Q

Q: What is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of AAA in a smoker with strong family history?

A

A: Smoking cessation

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4
Q

What is the first-line oral antibiotic for mild, nonpurulent cellulitis of the leg in adults?

A

A: Dicloxacillin

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5
Q

Q: What is the most likely cause of chronic constipation, thin stools, and positive occult blood with apple-core lesion on imaging?

A

A: Rectal cancer

💡 Think of “apple-core” lesion and pencil-thin stool as hallmarks of distal colorectal cancer.

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6
Q

Q: Firm groin mass below inguinal ligament, lateral to pubis, no cough impulse or pressure change—most likely?

A

A: Femoral hernia

Note:

watchful waiting is usually avoided in women with groin hernias unless imaging confirms it is a reducible inguinal hernia.

Watchful waiting is more commonly appropriate in asymptomatic men with inguinal hernias.

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7
Q

23F with RLQ tenderness, guarding, vomiting, high WBC. Next step?

A

A: US

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8
Q

What is the management of asymptomatic gallstones in a chronic hepatitis B carrier?

A

Reassurance and follow-up — no intervention is needed if asymptomatic.

Extra:
Medication dissolves cholesterol stone in 6-12 month Ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol)

indication for cholecystectomy:

1 Symptomatic Gallstones

Cancer suspicion
2 Gallbladder polyps > 1 cm (or any size with symptoms or risk factors)

-Porcelain gallbladder (calcified wall) → ↑ risk of gallbladder cancer

-Gallbladder cancer or suspicion on imaging

-Large gallstones (>3 cm) in elderly → higher cancer risk

special
3 Children with symptomatic gallstones

  • Sickle cell disease with gallstones (even if asymptomatic)
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9
Q

Patient with chronic painless rectal bleeding & itching now presents with acute anal pain and mass – most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Thrombosed hemorrhoid
✅ Chronic → painless → now sudden painful mass = thrombosed hemorrhoid

Acutely thrombosed hemorrhoids < 72 hours can be excised in the ED or some clinics

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10
Q

Q: A post-gastric sleeve patient develops dizziness, fatigue, vomiting, and abdominal pain shortly after eating. Diagnosis?

A

A: Dumping Syndrome – due to rapid gastric emptying after surgery.

Extra:

Late Dumping Syndrome
• Onset: 1–3 hours after eating
• Mechanism: Rapid glucose absorption → transient hyperglycemia → exaggerated insulin response → hypoglycemia and catecholamine release
• Symptoms:
• Hypoglycemic: hunger, tremors, lightheadedness
• GI discomfort
• Management:
1. Dietary changes (as above)
2. Octreotide
3. Surgical revision

Late dumping syndrome should be suspected in patients with gastric surgery who experience postprandial hypoglycemia.

Let me know if you want me to add hyperlink or list tweaks too.

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11
Q

Patient with history of abdominal surgery presents with abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distension, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Next Mx?

A

A: Keep NPO, start IV fluids, and insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.

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12
Q

Child with midline neck mass that moves with swallowing and tongue protrusion. Most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Thyroglossal duct cyst

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13
Q

What is the next step in a stable elderly male with pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit on auscultation?

A

A: Abdominal ultrasound.

Extra

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14
Q

Middle-aged patient with chronic constipation, thin stools, positive occult blood, normal DRE — most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Sigmoid cancer/recal

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15
Q

What is the most appropriate step for a patient with RUQ pain, fever, and labs showing cholestatic LFT pattern (↑ALP, ↑bilirubin)?

A

A: ERCP — diagnostic and therapeutic for choledocholithiasis or cholangitis.

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16
Q

Q: What is the diagnosis of a painless, fluctuant, bluish mass under the tongue, often due to blocked salivary gland duct?

A

A: Mucocele

🧠 Explanation: Mucoceles are mucus-retention cysts of minor salivary glands. When under the tongue, they are called ranulas and present as painless, bluish swellings due to saliva accumulation.

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17
Q

Q: What is the most likely cause of hoarseness after thyroidectomy?

A

A: Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

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18
Q

Q: What is the best management for confirmed breast fat necrosis after trauma with only mild symptoms?

A

A: Reassurance

🧠 Explanation:

Fat necrosis of the breast is a benign condition often resulting from trauma or surgery. It can present as:
• A palpable mass
• Mild tenderness
• Bruising or skin retraction
• Sometimes calcifications on imaging

19
Q

Q: Patient with BMI 45, poorly controlled DM (HbA1c 11%), HTN, and OA—most appropriate next step?

A

A: Bariatric surgery

🧠 Main point:
Bariatric surgery is indicated for:
BMI ≥40, or BMI ≥35 with comorbid conditions (DM, HTN, OA)

20
Q

22F with bilateral cyclical breast pain and multiple mobile nodules. What is the next best step?

A

A: Ultrasound

21
Q

Q: A woman presents with spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge and normal breast exam. Most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Intraductal papilloma

22
Q

Q: 40-year-old woman with sister diagnosed with breast cancer at 56 has a normal mammogram. Next step?

🧠

A

A: Mammogram annually

Screen breast cancer:
The USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women aged 40–74 years.

This recommendation is applicable to both average-risk women and women with factors associated with an increased risk of breast cancer, including having dense breasts or a positive family history of breast cancer

Extra
genetic testing is considered when there is:
1. Breast cancer in a first-degree relative <50 years
2. Multiple relatives with breast/ovarian cancer

23
Q

Q: A patient develops pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath on day 5 post-cholecystectomy. Most likely diagnosis?

A

A: Pulmonary embolism
🔍 Explanation: Classic presentation for PE in the postoperative setting due to increased thrombotic risk.

24
Q

Acute appendicitis sign ?

25
Q: What is the preferred treatment for BPH in a patient with orthostatic hypotension due to autonomic dysfunction (e.g., diabetic neuropathy)?
***A: Finasteride*** 🧠 Explanation: Alpha-blockers (like doxazosin) can worsen hypotension. Finasteride is preferred as it avoids BP effects and treats BPH safely in these patients.
26
Q: What is the most appropriate next step in an elderly diabetic male with scrotal erythema, fluctuance, and fever?
A: Immediate surgical referral for debridement (Fournier’s gangrene).
27
Q: 27-year-old man with dysuria and testicular tenderness, no sexual history reported — most likely organism?
?Chlamydia trachomatis On abscent of sexual activity - E.coli?
28
Q: Middle-aged man with flank pain radiating to testicle, vomiting, hematuria, and no tenderness on exam. Next step?
A: NSAID (e.g. ketorolac) ***Pain control before imaging in stable patient*** Note : ***Preferred Initial Imaging*** Non-contrast CT (abdomen and pelvis): First-line in non-pregnant patients Alternative Imaging Ultrasound (abdomen and pelvis): ***Used for pregnant or pediatric patients, or to avoid radiation***
29
Q: Teenager with testicular pain, pain relieved by lifting, normal cremasteric reflex — most likely diagnosis?
A: Epididymitis Explanation: Positive Prehn’s sign and intact cremasteric reflex suggest inflammation (epididymitis), not torsion.
30
Q: 14-year-old with sudden testicular pain, N/V, absent cremasteric reflex, pain worsens with elevation — most likely diagnosis?
***A: Testicular torsion*** Key clue: Acute onset, absent cremasteric reflex, negative Prehn sign.
31
Q: Male with post-trauma tense scrotal swelling, non-tender, testes not easily palpable — most likely diagnosis?
***A: Hydrocele*** – fluid collection around testis; often post-trauma, painless, and obscures testicular exam.
32
Q: Patient fell on outstretched hand with tenderness at base of thumb and suspicious scaphoid X-ray. What’s the initial management?
A: Forearm thumb spica 🧠extra : ***Scaphoid Fracture*** ***Risks***: fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH) ***Sx***: dorsal radial wrist pain with decreased range of motion ***PE***: anatomical snuffbox tenderness ***Dx***: clinical X-ray, CT, bone scan, (MRI most accurate) Many fractures will be missed on X-ray immediately after the injury ***Tx***: thumb spica splint
33
Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a teenage female with abnormal posture and spinal curvature on X-ray?
***A: Idiopathic scoliosis*** Extra : Scoliosis - Definition: Lateral curvature of the spine - Diagnosis: Made by Cobb angle ≥ 10° on radiography. - Most common type: Idiopathic scoliosis.
34
Q: What is the definitive treatment for severe bilateral knee osteoarthritis not responding to conservative therapy?
***A: Referral to bilateral Total Knee Replacement (TKR)***
35
Q: What is the next appropriate step in a young male with shoulder pain after pulling something ?
***A: Reduction*** Explanation: The lateral-Y view X-ray shows a posterior shoulder dislocation, evidenced by the “light bulb sign” (humeral head appears rounded and symmetric). ***Management involves:*** 1. Analgesia/sedation 2. Closed reduction 3. Immobilization Referral is not first unless closed reduction fails or complications arise.
36
Q: Best treatment for complete displaced midshaft fracture of radius and ulna in a 12-year-old?
***A: Open reduction and internal fixation***
37
Q: Teen athlete with anterior knee pain worse with stairs, relieved by rest, tender over tibial tuberosity — most likely diagnosis?
***Osgood-Schlatter disease*** Extra: ***Osgood-Schlatter Disease *** ***Age group: *** Young adolescent athletes, 10–15 years old ***Symptoms: *** Knee pain with activities that cause quadriceps contractions (e.g., running, jumping) ***PE findings: *** Tenderness over the tibial tubercle and pain with knee extension against resistance ***Management: *** Ice, NSAIDs, acetaminophen, quadriceps stretching
38
Q: What ligament is most likely injured with a positive Lachman test?
***A: Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)*** ***A positive Lachman test*** is highly specific and sensitive for injury to the ***anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).***
39
Q: What is the next step in a 2-week-old infant with positive Barlow and Ortolani tests suggesting DDH?
**Ultrasound of the hips** Extra:
40
Q: What is the next step in a 2-week-old infant with positive Barlow and Ortolani tests suggesting DDH?
***Ultrasound of the hips*** Extra: ***Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)***: ***RF***: Breech at > 34 weeks, FH of DDH, Hx of clinical instability on examination ***PE***: Flexing the infant’s hips and knees shows uneven knee heights (Galeazzi test), Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers ***Dx***: Screening tests revealing hip instability, asymmetry or limited abduction ***Imaging***: Use imaging in infants with inconclusive exam or normal examination with RFs ***Screening***: Normal examination with RF ***or*** positive screening test = screening U/S at 4–6 weeks of age (radiographs can be used at ≥ 3 months of age) ***Tx***: Pavlik harness, surgical reduction
41
What is the appropriate management for a Colles fracture?
A: Close reduction and cast ***Colles Fracture:*** Distal radius fracture with ***dorsal*** displacement (***dinner fork*** deformity) ***Cause:*** Fall onto an outstretched hand (***FOOSH *** injury) ***Assessment:*** Assess neurovascular status and for possible associated injuries (***snuffbox tenderness*** ) ***Treatment: Closed reduction, splint, orthopedic follow-up
42
Q: Shoulder pain at night + limited passive ROM + trauma history — most likely diagnosis?
***Adhesive capsulitis*** Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder) Predisposing conditions: diabetes, thyroid disease Presentation: ***Diffuse shoulder pain*** that is worse at night ***Progressive stiffness*** that results in ***severe range of motion limitations*** Treatment: ***Gentle range of motion exercise*** that increases in intensity ***Physical therapy*** ***Intra-articular corticosteroid injections*** for severe symptoms Course: Self-limited but may persist for years
43
Q: A boy fell on an extended arm while playing football and developed shoulder pain. What is the most likely complication?
***A: Axillary nerve injury*** ***Anterior Shoulder Dislocation*** ***Cause:*** Most commonly caused by trauma from a fall or forceful throwing motion ***PE:*** arm ***abducted*** and ***externally rotated***, positive apprehension test result ***Dx:*** Diagnosis is made by ***anteroposterior*** and ***axillary shoulder X-rays*** ***Displacement:*** ***Humeral head*** displaced ***inferiorly*** and ***medially*** ***Complications:*** ***Axillary nerve damage***, ***Bankart lesion*** (glenoid labrum disruption), ***Hill-Sachs deformity*** (cortical depression in the humeral head)
44
Q: What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient post-RTA (Dashboard) with a shortened, adducted, and internally rotated leg?
**Posterior hip dislocation** Dashboard = PHD ***Hip Dislocation***: Posterior more common than anterior **Posterior**: *internally rotated, sciatic nerve injury* **Anterior**: *externally rotated, femoral artery, vein, nerve injury* ***Tx***: emergent **reduction** under conscious sedation ***Complications***: avascular necrosis of the femoral head