Gene Function: Transcription Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

Is all DNA transcribed into RNA?

A
  • no
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2
Q

What are the key regions that lead to RNA?

A
  • genes are key regions that lead to RNA
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3
Q

In eukaryotic cells which organelles are genes present?

A
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
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4
Q

How are genes distributed over the chromosomes?

A
  • not evenly distributed over the chromosomes
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5
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes have regions which are gene poor - what are these regions?

A
  • centromere
  • telomeres
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6
Q

There are differences in chromatin state - what is the difference between euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A
  • euchromatin = lightly packed
  • heterochromatin = condensed packing
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7
Q

What does telomere length relate to?

A
  • relates to aging
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8
Q

What are the genomic regions?

A
  • gene being encoded
  • pseudogene not encoded
  • repetitive sequences
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9
Q

What is the definition of a gene?

A
  • a DNA sequenced that has the ability to encode a product (usually a protein)
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10
Q

What is the definition of a pseudogene?

A
  • a DNA sequenced that has lost ability to encode a product due to mutations
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11
Q

What is a repetitive sequence?

A
  • a DNA sequence that contains a repeated base pair of patterns (e.g., microsatellites, transposons, retrotransposons)
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12
Q

What can the genome of a virus be instead of DNA?

A
  • RNA genome
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13
Q

How many genes does a horse have?

A
  • 20,449 genes
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14
Q

There can be many genes however, only a fraction of these genes are what?

A
  • transcribed (switched on) in any one cell
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15
Q

Transcription is dynamic - what 3 things does it need?

A
  • location
  • time
  • response to signals
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16
Q

What initiates transcription?

A
  • the promoter region
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17
Q

What ultimately turns into a protein?

A
  • Exons
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18
Q

What is cut out of the genome structure?

A
  • introns
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19
Q

What is the start codon always in genes?

A
  • ATG
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20
Q

What is the translation terminal site?

A
  • the stop codon, tells translation machinery to stop
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21
Q

What are the stop codons?

A
  • TAA
  • TGA
  • TAG
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22
Q

How many exons does alpha amylase have?

A
  • 10 exons
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23
Q

How many exons does a dicer have?

A
  • 41 exons
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24
Q

When RNA is transcribed from the DNA what does it still contain?

A
  • the introns
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25
What happens before the mature messenger RNA (mRNA) leaves the nucleus and what does this include?
- it undergoes maturation which includes removal of introns just leaving Extron's
26
What is the process of removing introns called?
- RNA splicing
27
What is present in DNA?
- Promotor - extrons - introns
28
What is present in precursor mRNA? - Transcription
- cap - introns - extrons - AAA
29
After RNA splicing what does mature mRNA contain?
- cap - extrons - AAA
30
What does the cap and AAA help with in mature mRNA?
- help with recognition
31
What do introns contain?
- contain enhancer sequences (regulating transcription) - also present 5' and 3' of genes
32
What do introns allow for?
- allows for alternative splicing
33
What do small genes inside introns produce?
- produce non-coding RNAs (don't turn into protein - used to control gene expression)
34
What does RNA synthesis require?
- requires a polymerase
35
What are the 3 types of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes?
- Pol I -> Ribosomal RNAs - *Pol II -> mRNA for translation into protein* - Pol III -> Small RNAs (tRNAs)
36
What are each of the polymerases in eukaryotes made up of?
- multiple sub-units
37
What is RNA polymerase involved in?
- transcription of RNA
38
What do helicases do?
- unwind DNA
39
What are the 3 steps in gene transcription?
1. initiation 2. elongation 3. RNA processing and termination
40
What makes it hard to start transcription?
- eukaryotic chromatin
41
RNA polymerase 2 cannot initiate transcription alone what does it need?
- needs a series of proteins/ complexes to aid RNA polymerase
42
What is the very first thing that is needed for transcription to start?
- transcriptional activators
43
What do transcriptional activators bind to?
- bind to enhancer sequences of the DNA - bind within the grooves of the DNA double helix, don't interact between strands
44
How do transcriptional activators work?
- work by recruiting other proteins to site
45
What factor is critical in transcription initiation?
- general transcription factors (GTFs)
46
What are transcription factors?
- proteins that control the rate of transcription by binding to specific DNA regions
47
Why are transcription factors "general"?
- general as they are involved in all pol 2 transcription - switch on any gene for transcription not specific to gene groups
48
What do general transcription factors bind to?
- bind to promotors
49
What do TFIIH contain?
- general transcription factor contains a DNA helicase (unwinding)
50
What are TFIID?
- general transcription factor recognises the TATA box in the promotor
51
After general transcription factors, RNA polymerase binds to what?
- binds to promoter region of the gene
52
What does elongation require?
- requires chromatin remodelling to initiate and keep transcribing
53
What are used to add or take away methyl and acetyl groups during the elongation phase?
- histone methyl/acetyl transferases and demethylases
54
What di chromatin-remodelling complexes do during elongation?
- reposition nucleosomes
55
Why does elongation matter - what can happen to dogs?
- osteosarcoma
56
What dogs are more susceptible to osteosarcoma?
- more prevalent in middle ages dogs - golden retriever - rottweiler - grey hound
57
What causes osteosarcoma?
- SETD2 mutation associated with cancer
58
What is SETD2?
- its a histone methyltransferase
59
What happens to DNA during elongation?
- unwinding of the DNA > DS > SS - supercoiling
60
In elongation what is needed to avoid breakages in DNA?
- topoisomerases
61
In elongation how many base pairs are in a smaller unwound region?
- 18 bp
62
How many base pairs are found in a RNA/DNA hybrid?
- 12 base pairs
63
The processing of RNAs all doesn't wait for the completion of synthesis - what happens at the same time?
- some of the processing is occurring during the synthesis
64
What is added early on to the RNA strand in elongation?
- 5' cap
65
What does Processing and termination require?
- addition of 5'cap
66
What is the 5' cap?
- modified guanine nucleotide at the start of the RNA
67
How does the 5'cap help RNA?
- helps RNA to be properly processed and exported for protein synthesis
68
Why is there no translation for tRNAs and ribosomal RNAs?
- RNA polymerases I and III produce uncapped RNAs during transcription
69
What 2 proteins are essential for the termination of transcription?
- CstF = cleavage stimulation factor F - CPSF = cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor) = recognises sequences in the transcription at the 3'
70
What must be added to the RNA to complete transcription and why?
- the addition of a poly A tail helps to provide stability and helps with the export of RNA
71
What are the start and end points for introns?
- introns start with GU and end in AG
72
What regions does RNA contain before splicing?
- intronic regions
73
What is splicing controlled by?
- Controlled by small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNP) - collectively called splicosomes
74
What do spicosomes cause?
- the cutting out of introns
75
What happens during alternative splicing?
- can remove some extrons as well as introns and thus creates a huge diversity from fewer genes
76
What can alternative splicing is different between what?
- Different between tissues - Different between time points - Different between cell types
77
What are the 4 different types of alternative splicing?
- cassette - alternative 3' site - alterative 5' site - intron intervention
78
How does alternative splicing have a role in antibody production?
- different exons will be kept or removed during alternative splicing which will determine whether B cell receptors (which are antibodies) are attached to the surface of the B cell or free in the bloodstream
79
How does alternative splicing have a role in immune response to pathogen?
- some pathogens will express different genes when they are immature and initially infect the body and then once they have matured - this means antibodies produced at initial infection are now ineffective