# General Flashcards

1
Q

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?

A

A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

2
Q

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

A

As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

3
Q

All pilots should use the local altimeter setting because it provides

A

data to enable better separation of aircraft.

4
Q

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

A

Set you altimeter to 29.92” Hg.

5
Q

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

A

Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg and read the altitude indicated.

6
Q

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92” Hg?

A

Pressure.

7
Q

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A

true altitude at field elevation.

8
Q

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

A

the standard datum plane.

9
Q

Figure 78, When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is

A

10,200 feet.

10
Q

If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11 inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, the indicated altitude would be

A

150 feet lower.

11
Q

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

A

Pressure.

12
Q

Figure 91, What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?

A

Pilot controlled lighting.

13
Q

Figure 134, Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?

A

3 degrees

14
Q

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

A

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

15
Q

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

A

constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

16
Q

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of

A

a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.

17
Q

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

A

white and the far bar as red.

18
Q

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should

A

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

19
Q

Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?

A

One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.

20
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

21
Q

Figure 135, Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?

A

3 degrees.

22
Q

Figure 135, Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

A

5.

23
Q

Figure 135, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

A

7.

24
Q

Figure 135, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

A

4.

25
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration depicts on “on glidepath” indication?

A

10.

26
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degrees) indication?

A

11.

27
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5 degrees?

A

8.

28
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is “slightly high” (3.2 degrees) on the glidepath?

A

9.

29
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below the glide slope?

A

12.

30
Q

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL.

31
Q

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

A

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

32
Q

The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes

A

an entrance to runway from a taxiway.

33
Q

‘Runway hold position’ marking on the taxiway

A

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

34
Q

The ‘No Entry’ sign identifies

A

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

35
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates

A

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

36
Q

Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

A

white lettering with a red background.

37
Q

Figure 94, What sign is designated by illustration 7?

A

Mandatory instruction sign.

38
Q

Figure 94, What colors are runway holding position signs?

A

White with a red background.

39
Q

Figure 94, Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These line are

A

yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest runway.

40
Q

Figure 137, What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

A

1,000 feet.

41
Q

Figure 137, What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

A

500 feet.

42
Q

Figure 137, What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

A

500 feet.

43
Q

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

A

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

44
Q

Figure 138, What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

A

Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

45
Q

Which is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)

A

1,000 feet obstacle clearance.

46
Q

Figure 93, What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)

A

14,500 feet MSL.

47
Q

Class G airspace is that airspace where

A

ATC does not control air traffic.

48
Q

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

A

IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.

49
Q

during a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20 degrees correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for traffic?

A

40 degrees to the right of the aircraft’s nose.

50
Q

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would means that the pilot is authorized to

A

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

51
Q

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance.

52
Q

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet , what rate of climb or descent should be used?

A

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

53
Q

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?

A

Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

54
Q

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

A

Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.

55
Q

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

A

Special use airspace.

56
Q

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be no more than

A

80 NM apart.

57
Q

Figure 24, Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on:

A

133.425 MHz

58
Q

Figure 87, At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?

A

Direct.

59
Q

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

60
Q

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

A

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.

61
Q

To ensure airspace protection while holding at 6,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

A

200 knots.

62
Q

Figure 128, What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?

A

Direct only.

63
Q

Figure 129, What type of entry recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050 degrees?

A

Teardrop.

64
Q

Figure 133, What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern Riverside Municipal?

A

Direct.

65
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?

A

265 knots.

66
Q

What a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

A

the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.

67
Q

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

A

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

68
Q

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lost altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

A

only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.

69
Q

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?

A

Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.

70
Q

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

A

When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

71
Q

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

A

Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92” Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

72
Q

En route at FL 270, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57” Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

A

Sea Level.

73
Q

While you are flying, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92” Hg in your area . At what pressure altitude are you flying?

A

25,000 feet.

74
Q

En Route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of “30.26” Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?

A

206 feet below MSL.

75
Q

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

A

Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.

76
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

A

The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

77
Q

What procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

A

Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

78
Q

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A

Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.

79
Q

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?

A

Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.

80
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

81
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic on terrain features during flight?

A

Haze creates the illusion of being greater distance than actual from the runway.

82
Q

You receive vectors from ATC to a Victor airway, and they advise you to “resume own navigation”. What does this mean?

A

83
Q

On an IFR flight, what does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?

A

You aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

84
Q

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

A

Resume operation as filed and cleared.

85
Q

What is the definition of MEA?

A

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

86
Q

The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum:

A

Enroute altitude.

87
Q

Reception of signals from an airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA.

88
Q

If not MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

A

The MEA at which the fix is approached.

89
Q

MEA is an altitude which assures

A

acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

90
Q

Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA.

91
Q

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

A

22 NM of a VOR.

92
Q

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only

A

22NM.

93
Q

Figure 58, On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station

A

122.65, 122.2.

94
Q

Figure 59 and 60, What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?

A

0600 to 2200.

95
Q

Figure 76 and 77, Which en route low altitude navigational chart would cover the proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

A

L 9

96
Q

Figure 22 and 24 For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction, Walker Airport and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?

A

15,000 feet.

97
Q

Figure 24, At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?

A

52 NM south of JNC.

98
Q

Figure 24, What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187?

A

13,700 feet MSL.

99
Q

Figure 34, At which altitude and location on V 573 would you expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable?

A

3,000 feet at APINE intersection.

100
Q

Figure 34, For planning purposed , what is the highest usable altitude for an IFR flight V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?

A

16,000 feet MSL.

101
Q

Figure 40, For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V16 from BGS VORTAC to ABI VORTAC

A

17,000 MSL.

102
Q

Figure 53, Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs?

A

20 DME from GVO VORTAC.

103
Q

Figure 53, What service is indicated by the inverse “H” symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC?

A

Availability by HIWAS

104
Q

Figure 65, Which point would be the appropriate VOP COP on V552 from the LEFT to the TBD VORTACs?

A

34 DME from the LFT VORTAC.

105
Q

Figure 65 and 67, What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?

A

106
Q

Figure 70 and 71, Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS information?

A

KINGSTON VORTAC.

107
Q

What is the maximum altitude you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?

A

17,000 MSL.

108
Q

Figure 87, Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles?

A

30 NM east of DAS.

109
Q

Figure 87, What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Beaumont/Port Arthur Jack Brooks Regional Airport?

A

110
Q

Figure 87, Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5 can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?

A

122.2, 122.3

111
Q

Figure 87, Why is the localizer back at Beaumont/Port Arthur Jack Brooks Regional Airport depicted?

A

112
Q

Figure 87, Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?

A

Halfway point.

113
Q

Figure 89, When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR?

A

12,000 feet.

114
Q

Figure 89, What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?

A

122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1.

115
Q

Figure 89, What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?

A

127.55

116
Q

Figure 91, What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?

A

8,600 feet.

117
Q

Figure 91, What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?

A

Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.

118
Q

Figure 91, Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520

A

60 NM from DBS VORTAC.

119
Q

Figure 91, What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V 298?

A

11,100 feet.

120
Q

Figure 47, En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is

A

7,000 feet.

121
Q

Figure 47, When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?

A

122
Q

Figure 47, En route V 468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum altitude at TROTS intersection is

A

11,500 feet.

123
Q

Figure 160, What is the TDZE for RWY 16L on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

A

369 feet MSL.

124
Q

Figure 185, What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?

A

6,000 feet.

125
Q

Figure 60A, What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

A

46 feet MSL.

126
Q

Figure 210, What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?

A

173 feet MSL.

127
Q

Figure 210, Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?

A

ALSF2 and HIRL.

128
Q

Figure 80, What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R?

A

3,514 feet MSL.

129
Q

Figure 120, The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 of

A

Denver VORTAC

130
Q

Figure 123, The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

A

White Cloud VORTAC.

131
Q

Figure 131, What is the landing distance available for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4 R approach at BOS?

A

8,850 feet.

132
Q

A

direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway.

133
Q

When aircraft movement areas, ‘destination signs’ identify the

A

direction to specified destinations.

134
Q

The ‘runway threshold bar’ marking indicates

A

beginning of runway available for landing.

135
Q

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion on an entirely different axis. This is known as

A

Coriolis illusion.

136
Q

Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by

A

reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level..

137
Q

When using deicing boots, the pilot should

A

activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer’s guidance.

138
Q

If you experience icing during an approach, you should

A

retract flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot.

139
Q

On initial climb out after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation it is recommended that

A

the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged.

140
Q

How can you be sure the wing is free of critical ice?

A

Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection.

141
Q

For pneumatic deicer boot systems, it is generally recommended that

A

the deicing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible.

142
Q

What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5 C OAT?

A

Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots.

143
Q

Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?

A

Airplane tailplane is better ice collector that the wings.

144
Q

Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?

A

Pitot tube.

145
Q

Which is true concerning aircraft icing?

A

Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cause the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations.

146
Q

During or after flight icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows flap deployment and was not evident prior to flap deployment is most likely due to

A

incipient tail plan stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment.

147
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding (SLD)?

A

They can be present even without precipitation.

148
Q

The term Airport means an area of land or water that is

A

used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its building and facilities, if any.

149
Q

The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the

A

vestibular system.

150
Q

Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will

A

increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases.

151
Q

A visible symptom of supercooled water droplets is

A

splashing and splattering at temperatures below +5 C.

152
Q

Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?

A

ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off.

153
Q

Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?

A

Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing.

154
Q

What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface?

A

Small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation.

155
Q

Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?

A

Air temperature probe.

156
Q

Figure 254, While clearing an active runway, you see the top sign. You know

A

aircraft are prohibited.

157
Q

Pilot fatigue is a hazard because

A

fatigue can impair pilot judgment.

158
Q

Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?

A

On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy.

159
Q

Figure 254, while clearing the runway after landing, pilots contact ground control after passing

A

the solid lines of the middle sign.

160
Q

Figure 136, Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is ‘far below’ glidepath?

A

12.

161
Q

Autopilot during cruise flight in icing conditions should be

A

periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled.

162
Q

Figure 176, 176A, and 177, What is the difference is elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and THRE for Rwy 36L?

A

25 feet.

163
Q

Pilots of newer aircraft often use Electronic Flight Displays (EFDs). When an EFD fails in IFR conditions, the pilot should

A

continue the flight with backup/standby flight references.

164
Q

An engaged function of an autopilot means

A

the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged.

165
Q

In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have tree important learning challenges;

A

how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft.

166
Q

Which is true concerning the use of a primary flight display (PFD)?

A

The PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments.

167
Q

You are at a towered airport. You should state your position on the airport when

A

departing from a runway intersection.

168
Q

In an aircraft equipped with Electronic Flight Displays (EFD’s), a failure is usually signified by

A

a bold red “X” over the display.

169
Q

Figure 158, Winds are reported as 330 degrees at 5 knots. You are given instructions to taxi to runway 04 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner on rwy 29. What effect would you expect from the airliner votaries.

A

the upwind vortex would trend to remain over the runway.

170
Q

During descent from FL 290, you fail to rest the altimeter to the local setting of 30.26”. During approach to the minimums, this oversight results in a missed approach because the altimeter reads

A

300 feet below true altitude.

171
Q

Since software and databases in new avionics software continually updated. the requires you the user to

A

continually learn systems functions, capabilities, and limitations.

172
Q

Which NOTAMs are included in the FAA Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?

A

All permanent NOTAMs.

173
Q

Your flight may be completed after dark. How could your vision be affected?

A

174
Q

A

175
Q

In an aircraft equipped with a Multi-function Display, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the

A

Faildown or Standby Instrument.

176
Q

Complacency is a risk to pilots operating aircraft with full glass cockpits because they

A

provide greater situational awareness.

177
Q

When below the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see

A

red over red.

178
Q

What is an airspace designated to separate military activities from IFR traffic.

A

MOA.

179
Q

There are two types of emergency conditions. Which one represents an ‘urgency’ condition?

A

Due to poor weather at your primary destination, you are concerned about having enough fuel to reach your alternate airport.

180
Q

Figure 207, How many precision approaches are available for Bradley International Airport?

A

Three.

181
Q

When ATC clears you for a descent, you should

A

begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft.

182
Q

You are enroute at 8,000 MSL on an IFR flight plan. What is the most appropriate source for obtaining the altimeter setting?

A

Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft.

183
Q

You are descending for an approach in icing conditions and lower approach flaps. This results in a strong oscillation in the elevator. You should

A

immediately retract flaps and add power as necessary.

184
Q

Figure 89, You are traveling north on V208 between the PGA VOR and the HVE VOR. You lose communications 53NM north of the PGA VOR. What frequency would you try to contact ATC on?

A

127.55.

185
Q

Figure 247, What does the star symbol (*) next to the Riverside tower frequency indicate?

A

Part-time tower operations.

186
Q

Figure 34, You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception?

A

WACHO at 4,000 feet.

187
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

A

230 knots.

188
Q

Figure 185, In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?

A

To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport.

189
Q

You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperatures. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first?

A

On a small protuberance.

190
Q

What are the primary benefits of satellite- based area navigation (RNAV)?

A

GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements of almost any flight.

191
Q

Figure 254 (the top sign), The “No Entry” sign identifies

A

a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

192
Q

You are a rental pilot. During preflight, you note that the airplane has a heated windshield. How would you determine if the airplane is approved for flight into known icing conditions?

A

Consult the Approved Flight Manual or Pilot’s Operating Handbook.

193
Q

What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight GPS anomaly

A

Report to ATC immediately.

194
Q

ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are at 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it?

A

Level at two one zero.

195
Q

If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database?

A

A pilot.

196
Q

Figure 96 and 97, To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond?

A

D.

197
Q

ATC had cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which roll correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn?

A

Increase angle of bank.

198
Q

You are inbound to your destination for landing. You listen to ATIS and notice that it has not been updated in the last 50 minutes. You decide that

A

since it has been nearly an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now.

199
Q

Figure 58, What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Alice International airport?
Position the aircraft on the taxiway north of the hanger, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 270 degrees.

A

The OBS must center within plus or minus 4 degrees with a FROM indication.

200
Q

When requesting to deviate around weather while flying on an IFR clearance,

A

201
Q

Figure 60A, You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind conditions would prolong wake turbulence?

A

Winds 180/5.

202
Q

Figure 169, Which lighting system is installed for RWY 33 at ADS which is designated to help you locate the end of the runway which is surrounded by a preponderance of lighting?

A

REIL.

203
Q

A displaced threshold will

A

decrease available landing distance.

204
Q

While holding at a VOR above 14,000 feet when should timing be started?

A

When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.

205
Q

What does VFR-on-top permit you to do?

A

Select any altitude.

206
Q

ATC clears you to descend, but does not include “at pilot’s discretion” You should

A

descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft.

207
Q

What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?

A

Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures.

208
Q

When operating VFR-on-Top on an IFR flight plan, the pilot

A

is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements.

209
Q

Figure 242, What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway?

A

13.9 NM.

210
Q

What should be down if signs of hyperventilation are detected?

A

Reduce breathing rate.

211
Q

You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. Upon crossing the VOR, you HSI indicates a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on you present heading, the half-scale deflection persists. To center the HSI,

A

turn toward a right heading to get back on course.

212
Q

Low altitude charts depict

A

the limits of controlled airspace.

213
Q

Figure 252, Due to a runway closure at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What minimums apply to the ILS RWY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)?

A

Ceiling 1,008 feet MSL.

214
Q

Figure 254, Which answer refers to illustration C?

A

ILS critical area.

215
Q

If you suspect hyperventilation, you should

A

breath at a normal rate and depth.

216
Q

While transitioning from approach to landing, you are slightly above glide path if the 2-bar VASI

A

far bar changes from red to white.

217
Q

While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is

A

hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting.