General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What are some modifiable risk factors of pneumonia?

A

Inadequate oral care
Aspiration of oral secretions
Reduced mobility
Malnutrition
Poor glucose control/diabetes
Smoking
Unvaccinated status

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2
Q

What are some non-modifiable risk factors of pneumonia?

A

Age, chronic lung disease, neurological impairment, meds used to suppress CNS.

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3
Q

Which tests are used in the detection of C.diff?

A

NAAT to detect the presence of the organism, EIA to detect the presence of toxin A or B.

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4
Q

Which groups are most likely to experience complications from influenza?

A

Children under 2, adults 65+, pregnant women, obese persons, patients with underlying medical conditions.

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5
Q

Which influenza is most likely to cause global pandemics?

A

Influenza A, because the strains frequently mutate in both their animal and human reservoirs and resist eradication.

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6
Q

Which influenza virus causes annual epidemic disease with a milder clinical illness?

A

Influenza B.

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7
Q

What disease is erythema migrans a clinical symptom of?

A

Lyme disease - it begins at the site of the tick bite 7-14 days after tick detachment.

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8
Q

What symptoms are common in early disseminated Lyme disease?

A

Skin lesions smaller than erythema migraines and uniformly erythmatous, flulike symptoms (malaise, fatigue, headache, fever, chills, myalgia, arthralgia).
Mild hepatits, splenatomegaly, sore throat, nonproductive cough, testicular swelling, conjunctivitis and regional and generalized lymphadenopathy may occur, along with CNS involvement (facial palsies, -itises). Cardiac involvement in less than 10% of people.

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of late disseminated Lyme disease?

A

Joint pain and swelling - migratory arthralgia followed by intermittent attacks of arthritis lasting from days to months.
Some people develop chronic, potentially erosive arthritis.
Late neurologic Lyme disease is now rare, but left untreated patients may develop encephalomyelitis, peripheral neuropathy, or encephalopathy.

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10
Q

How do we test for Lyme disease?

A

History of tick bite and residence or travel in an endemic area is sufficient without testing.
Burgdorferi can be cultured from skin lesions, but test is not readily available.
Serologic testing may not show positive results until 2-6 weeks. IgM antibodies will show between 2-4 weeks and IgG will show after 6 weeks.

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11
Q

What caused the incidence of TB to increase in the US in the late 1980s / early 1990s?

A

The HIV epidemic.

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12
Q

What additional precautions are used for Mycobaterium tuberculosis?

A

Airborne precautions.

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13
Q

What additional precautions are used for influenza?

A

Droplet precautions.

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14
Q

What percentage of people develop active TB after exposure to M. tuberculosis?

A

5% in the first 2 years. If it doesn’t develop then, there is a 5-10% chance it will develop sometime after that.

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of primary TB?

A

Usually asymptomatic, with a few patients developing fevers, cough, or erythema nodosum (an inflammatory condition characterized by inflammation of subcutaneous fat tissue, resulting in painful red/blue lumps or nodules that are usually seen symmetrically on both shins, on the thighs, arms, and elsewhere.).
Patients with HIV can develop progressive dissemination at this time.

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of post primary TB?

A

Productive cough, fevers, night sweats, infiltrates on the lower lobes, cavitation on chest x-rays. Resp symptoms last more than 2-3 weeks. Pulmonary TB can have hemotypsis, weight loss, chest pain, weight loss, malaise, and debilitation.
Patients with HIV may be atypical, with a military/disseminated pattern, lower lobe infiltrates or normal chest x-rays.

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17
Q

What is extrapulonary TB?

A

TB which presents in less common organs, such as lymphadenitis, pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal involvement, meningitis, the spine, the genitourinary tract, etc.

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18
Q

How is TB diagnosed?

A

Chest x-ray, sputum collection x 3ea. 8 hours apart for AFB staining and culture.
Pediatric patients may need gastric washings as they swallow their sputum.
For extra pulmonary TB, the involved tissue biopsy or fluid should be submitted for mycobacterial culture and AFB staining.

19
Q

What should we do if TB is diagnosed in a patient not initially suspected of having TB and not on appropriate precautions?

A

Establish infectious period.
List contacts.
Test close contacts with TST or BAMT as soon as possible, and again after 8-10 weeks. If there are any conversions or positive results, contacts with lesser degrees of exposure should be tested.

20
Q

Name two parasites transmitted by direct contact with infected persons?

A

Scabies and lice.

21
Q

How is scabies transmitted?

A

Through direct contact with infected persons: less frequently through contact with clothing or bedding.

22
Q

What is the incubation period of scabies?

A

As little as 10 days but typically 4-6 weeks.

23
Q

How does scabies present?

A

Typical presentation is intense pruritis (itchiness), usually more severe at night. 2/3 people have burrow-type pruritic lesions.

24
Q

How does crusted (Norwegian) scabies differ from regular scabies?

A

Presents as a crusty, scaly dermatitis usually of the hands and feet. Highly contagious due to large numbers, itching is minimal.

25
How are lice transmitted?
Through direct contact with the louse or with personal items in contact with the louse, ie clothing or bedding.
26
What is myiasis?
Human infestation by larvae (maggots) of a large variety of dipterous flies.
27
What characterizes a gram positive microorganism?
A thick peptidoglycan cell membrane. Violet stain.
28
What characterizes a gram negative microorganism?
An outer membrane layer with a thin layer of peptidoglycan. Red stain.
29
How does the lab determine if a bacteria is acid-fast?
They use an acid-fast stain, apply it, heat fix the cells, decolonize with acid alcohol, and apply a counterstain of methylene blue. If they are pink, they are acid fast. If they are blue, they are non-acid fast.
30
Name some acid-fast bacterial diseases?
TB, leprosy.
31
What is calcofluor white stain?
A special fluorescent stain that binds to the chitin in the cells walls of the fungi.
32
What is the purpose of nutrient agar growth media?
It supports the growth of a wide variety of bacteria.
33
What is the purpose of enrichment medium growth media?
It contains special nutrients necessary for the growth of fastidious bacteria.
34
What is the purpose of selective growth media?
It contains chemicals or antibiotics designed to inhibit normal commensal bacteria.
35
What is the purpose of differential growth media?
It stains colonies of specific organisms, while inhibiting the growth. of others.
36
Which conditions meet criteria of immunocompromised?
Neutropenia, leukemia, lymphoma, HIV & CD4 count <200, splenectomy, solid organ or hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipients, cytotoxic chemotherapy, enteral or parenteral administered steroids daily for >14 days on date of event.
37
What is the antimicrobial mechanism of antifungals?
Alters the permeability of the fungal membrane, inhibits membrane biosynthesis or DNA synthesis.
38
What is the antimicrobial mechanism of antivirals?
Inhibits formation of DNA precursers, DNA polymerase, and HIV reverse transcription. They interfere with vial uncaring or confer viral resistance on uninfected cells.
39
What is the most common cause of community and healthcare associated urinary tract and bloodstream infections?
Escherichia coli
40
Which disease may be indicated by high fever, diarrhea, and hyponatremia?
Legionella pneumophilia
41
What is a potentially fatal bacterial pneumonia caused by some species of the genus Legionella, most commonly L. pneumophilia?
Legionnaire’s disease
42
What is the most common cause of severe diarrhea in children?
Rotavirus
43
Noroviruses
Cause the majority of viral gastroenteritis worldwide.