Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Name some autosomal dominant diseases.

A
  • Noonan syndrome
  • Neurofibromatosis type I
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • Huntington’s disease
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Achondroplasia
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
  • von Willebrand disease
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
  • Familial hypercholesterolemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some autosomal recessive diseases.

A
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Sickle cell anemia
  • Thalassemia
  • Friedreich’s ataxia
  • Ataxia telangiectasia
  • Werdnig-Hoffmann disease (Type I)
  • Phenylketonuria
  • Glycogen storage diseases
  • Galactosemia
  • Mucopolysaccharidoses
  • Tay-Sachs disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name some X-linked recessive diseases.

A
  • G6PD deficiency
  • Hemophilia A and B
  • Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (Fragile X syndrome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of severe learning difficulties?

A

Down syndrome (47, T21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common autosomal chromosomal abnormality?

A

Down syndrome (47, T21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the incidence of Down syndrome?

A

1 in 650-800 - Increases with maternal age
>> 1 in 1500 in age 20
>> 1 in 20 in age 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the features of Down syndrome on inspection?

A

Head

  • Microcephaly
  • Brachycephaly

Eyes

  • Upslanting palpebral fissures
  • Inner epicanthal folds
  • Speckled iris with Brushfield spots
  • Strabismus
  • Nystagmus

Ears
- Low-set and small ears

Face

  • Protruding tongue
  • Low and flat nasal bridge
  • Small nose

Hands

  • Transverse palmar (Simian) crease
  • Clinodactyly
  • Absent middle phalanx of the 5th finger

Toes
- Wide “sandal” gap between the big and second toe

Skeletal

  • Short stature
  • Excess nuchal skin (increased nuchal translucency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What medical conditions are associated with Down Syndrome?

A

Eyes

  • Refractive errors
  • Acquired cataracts
  • Strabismus
  • Nystagmus

Ears

  • Recurrent acute otitis media due to horizontal Eustachian tube
  • Hearing loss

Skeletal
- Short stature
- Joint hyperflexibility
>> Hip dysplasia
>> Atlantoaxial instability
>> Vertebral anomalies

Cardiac
- Atrioventricular septal defect (50%)

Gastrointestinal

  • Duodenal atresia
  • Tracheoesophageal fistula
  • Hirschsprung’s disease

Genitourinary

  • Cryptorchidism
  • Infertility

Neurological

  • Intellectual impairment
  • Developmental delay
  • Hypotonia at birth
  • Alzheimer’s disease onset at 40 years

Hematological

  • Polycythemia
  • 1% lifetime risk of leukemia

Others
- Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the possible causes of the extra chromosome in Down syndrome (T21)?

A

Meiotic non-disjunction (94%)

  • An error at meiosis
  • Related to maternal age

Translocation (5%)

  • Robertsonian translocation: when the extra chromosome 21 is jointed onto another chromosome (e.g. chr 14, 15, 22 or 21) – usually chromosome 14
  • Down syndrome with a set of 46 chromosomes but with three copies of chromosome 21 material

Mosaicism (1%)

  • Some cells are normal, and some have T21
  • After formation of a chromosomally normal zygote by non-disjunction at mitosis
  • Can arise by later mitotic nondisjunction in a T21 conception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the management for Down syndrome?

A

LONG-TERM!

  • Support for the child and parent
  • Genetic counseling
  • Recommended chromosomal analysis: confirm dx
  • Hearing test: hearing losses
  • Ophthalmology assessment: cataracts, refractive errors
  • Atlanto-occipital X-ray at 2 years: atlantoaxial instability
  • Echocardiogram: ASVD
  • CBC: polycythemia, increased risk of leukemia
  • Annual thyroid test: hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common sex chromosome disorder?

A

Turner syndrome (45XO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common outcome of ALL CASES of Turner syndrome?

A

Early miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the relationship between maternal age and Down syndrome?

A

Significant increased risk in advanced maternal age Mother 20 years: 1 in 1500 Mother 45 years: 1 in 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the relationship between maternal age and Turner syndrome?

A

Incidence does NOT increase with maternal age. The risk of recurrence is VERY LOW.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the clinical features of Turner syndrome?

A
  • Lower posterior headline
  • Short webbed neck
  • Cystic hygroma in newborn with polyhydramnios
  • Broad chest with widely spaced nipples
  • Lung hypoplasia
  • Coarctation of the aorta with biscuspid aortic valve
  • Renal abnormalities
  • Increased risk of hypertension
  • Lymphedema of the hands and/or feet
  • Wide carrying angle
  • Streak gonads with infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the prognosis of Turner Syndrome?

A

Normal life expectancy if no complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management for Turner syndrome?

A
  • GH therapy for short stature
  • Estrogen replacement for development of secondary characteristics at the time of puberty
  • Echocardiogram/ECG for cardiac malformations
    >> Coarcation of the aorta
    >> Bicuspid aortic valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How common is Turner syndrome?

A

1 in 4000 live female births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How common is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

1 in 1000 live male births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the clinical features of Klinefelter syndrome?

A
  • Tall and slim
  • Long bones with unfused epiphyseal plates
  • Developmental delay/Intellectual subnormality
  • Eunuchoidism
  • Feminizing features: gynecomastia
  • Sterility: azoospermia, hypogonadism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the complications of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Increased risk of germ cell tumours and breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the management of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Testosterone in adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the relationship between maternal age and Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Increased risk with advanced maternal age
>> Recurrence risk very low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Noonan syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How common in Noonan syndrome?
1 in 2000 female and male live births
26
What are the clinical features of Noonan syndrome?
"Male Turner Syndrome" - although can occur in both females and males \>\> Short stature \>\> Webbed neck \>\> Triangular facies \>\> Hypertelorism (orbital) \>\> Low set ears \>\> Epicanthal folds \>\> Ptosis \>\> Moderate intellectual disability \>\> Delayed puberty - Pectus excavatum - Right-sided congenital heart disease: Pulmonary stenosis
27
What is the management for Noonan syndrome?
- ECHO/ECG for cardiac abnormalities (PS) - Testosterone for affected males
28
What is the mode of inheritance for Fragile X syndrome?
X-linked with genetic anticipation and mixed penetrance (Recessive VS. dominant debatable) \>\> CGG trinucleotide repeat on X-chromosome non-coding region
29
What are the clinical features of Fragile X syndrome?
6Ms! M: Mutation in FMR1 gene on X-chromosome M: Mental retardation M: Macrotia (large everted ears) M: Macrognathia M: Macro-orchidism M: Mitral valve prolapse + Long and thin face + Hyperextensibility + High arched palate
30
What are the complications of Fragile X Syndrome?
- Mitral valve prolapse - Seizures - Scoliosis - Premature ovarian failure in females - Tremor/ataxia in males later in life
31
What is the most common heritable cause of intellectual disability in boys?
Fragile X syndrome
32
How common is Fragile X syndrome?
1 in 3600 males 1 in 6000 females
33
How is Fragile X syndrome diagnosed?
Molecular testing of FMR1 gene
34
What is the genetic cause of Prader-Willi Syndrome?
Deletion of paternal chromosome 15q11 or two maternal chromosomes 15q11
35
What are the presenting features of Prader-Willi Syndrome?
H3O - Hypotonia and weakness - Hypogonadism - Hyperphagia - Obesity + Short stature + Almond-shaped eyes + Small hands and feet with tapering of fingers + Hypopigmentation + Type II DM
36
What is the genetic cause of Angelman syndrome?
Maternally derived deletion of typically maternally expressed genes - paternal copy silenced epigenetically
37
What are the presenting features of Angelman syndrome?
- Severe mental retardation with ataxia - Uncontrollable laughter - Hypotonia - Seizures - Tremor - Midface hypoplasia - Fair hair "Blonde laughing bimbo - high!"
38
What is the most common genetic diagnosis?
Down syndrome
39
What is the second most common genetic diagnosis?
DiGeorge syndrome
40
What is the genetic cause of DiGeorge syndrome?
Microdeletion of chromosome region 22q11
41
What are the presenting features of DiGeorge syndrome?
CATCH 22 C: Cardiac abnormalities - truncus, TOF A: Abnormal facies - micrognathia, low-set ears T: Thymic aplasia C: Cleft palate/Cognitive impairment H: Hypoparathyroidism, hypocalcemia 22: 22q11 microdeletions
42
How common is Prader-Willi syndrome?
1 in 15000
43
What is the genetic cause of Williams syndrome?
Sporadic mutation
44
What are the clinical features of Williams syndrome?
- Short stature - Characteristic facies - Transient neonatal hypercalcemia - Congenital heart disease: supravalvular aortic stenosis - Mild-moderate learning difficulties
45
What are two common causes of lens subluxation?
- Marfan syndrome - Homocystinuria
46
What are the types of inborn errors of metabolism?
Carbohydrate - Galatosemia - Glycogen storage diseases Proteins - Phenylketonuria - Tyrosemia - Homocystinuria - Organic acid disorders - Urea cycle disorders Lipids - Fatty acid oxidation defects Organelle disorders - Congenital disorders of glycosylation - Mucopolysaccharidoses
47
What is the underlying pathophysiology of galactosemia?
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase deficiency \>\> Autosomal recessive \>\> Inability to process lactose or galactose
48
What are the presenting features of galactosemia?
- Vomiting - Jaundice - Failure to thrive - Liver and renal failure - Cataracts - Developmental delay (+ Hypoglycemia) \>\> Usually onset when lactose-containing milk feeds such as breast or infant formula are introduced
49
What is the management of galactosemia?
Elimination of galactose and lactose from the diet \>\> Soy-based diet
50
What are some examples of glycogen storage diseases?
Muscle-predominant - Type II: Pompe's disease -- death by cardiomegaly/CHF - Type V: McArdle's disease Liver-predominant (hepatomegaly/hypoglycemia) - Type I: von Gierke's disease - Type III: Cori's disease (milder form of type I) Type II and III can affect both liver and muscle.
51
What are some long-term complications of von Gierke's disease (type I glycogen storage disease)?
- Hyperlipidemia - Hyperuricemia - Hepatic adenomas - Cardiovascular disease
52
What are the types of metabolic diseases associated with hyperammonemia?
- Organic acid disorders - Urea cycle disorders - Aminoaciduria
53
What are some examples of lipid storage disorders?
- Tay-Sachs disease - Gaucher disease - Niemann-Pick disease
54
What is the mode of inheritance of Tay-Sachs disease?
Autosomal recessive
55
What are the clinical features of Tay-Sachs disease?
- Developmental regression in late infancy - Severe hypotonia - Enlarging head - CHERRY RED SPOT ON MACULA - Death by 2-5 years
56
What are the clinical features of Gaucher disease?
1. Chronic childhood form - Splenomegaly - Bone marrow suppression - Bone involvement - Normal IQ 2. Acute infantile form - Splenomegaly - Neurological degeneration with seizures
57
What are the clinical features of Niemann-Pick disease?
Onset at 3-4 months of age - Feeding difficulties and FTT - Hepatosplenomegaly - Developmental delay - Hypotonia - Hearing and visual deterioration - Cherry red spot in macula in 50% (ddx: Tay-Sachs disease) - Death by four years
58
What are mucopolysaccharidoses?
Progressive multi-system disorders of lysosomal storage affecting: - Neurological - Ocular - Cardiac - Skeletal Characterized by certain enzyme defects and URINE EXCRETION OF GAGs (glycosaminoglycans), the major storage substances
59
What are the clinical features of mucopolysaccharidoses?
Developmental delay following a period of essentially normal growth and development: UP TO 6-12 MONTHS OF AGE Other neurological - Carpal tunnel syndrome - Conductive hearing loss Ocular - Corneal clouding - Retinal degeneration - Glaucoma Cardiac - Valvular lesions - Heart failure Abdomen - Hepatomegaly - Splenomegaly - Umbilical and inguinal hernias Skeletal - Thickened skull - Broad ribs - Claw hand - Thoracic kyphosis - Lumbar lordosis Skin - Thickened skin - Coarse facies
60
What are some types of mucopolysaccharidoses?
MPS I: Hurler MPS II: Hunter MPS III: Sanfilippo MPS IV: Morquio MPS IV: Maroteaux-Lamy
61
What are some examples of mineral storage disorders?
- Wilson's disease (copper) - Hemosiderosis (iron)