Genitourinary

Question 1

What is a hypospadias?

Answer 1

Opening along the ventral side of the penis

Can result in more UT infection

Question 2

What is epispadias?

Answer 2

Opening along the dorsal side of penis

Can cause UT infection and incontinence

Question 3

T/F: Hypospadias is more common than epispadias.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

What is the most common penile neoplasm?

Answer 4

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 5

What are some risk factors for penile neoplasms?

Answer 5

1. Uncircumcised and over 40
2. HPV infection
3. Red/white plaque

Question 6

Carcinoma in-situ in the penis is called _________.

Answer 6

Bowen Disease

Question 7

Although rare, the most common neoplasm in the scrotum would be _______.

Answer 7

squamous cell carcinoma

chimney sweeps

Question 8

Incomplete descent of the testis from the abdomen to the scrotum is termed ________.

Answer 8

cryptorchidism

may lead to sterility

Question 9

As well as possibly leading to sterility, cryptorchidism has what effect on cancer risk?

Answer 9

3-5 fold increased risk for testicular cancer

Question 10

What procedure can be done to reduce the risk of sterility and cancer in patients with cryptorchidism?

Answer 10

Orchiopexy

Question 11

________ infections of the epididymis are much more common than ________ infections of the testis proper.

Answer 11

Epididymitis; orchitis

Question 12

Inflammatory lesions of the testis are often associated with _____ and _____.

Answer 12

STDs and mumps

Question 13

Torsion causes an obstruction of ________ in the testis.

Answer 13

venous drainage

Emergency!

Question 14

Someone with a ________ deformity is more likely to experience torsion.

Answer 14

bell clapper

Question 15

When is a male most likely to get testicular cancer?

Answer 15

15-34 years old

Question 16

T/F: Testicular neoplasms will cause pain.

Answer 16

False

Question 17

95% of testicular tumors arise from the _______ and are malignant.

Answer 17

germ cells

Question 18

5% of testicular tumors are ________ and are generally benign.

Answer 18

sex cord-stromal tumors

sertoli or leydig cells

Question 19

_______ respond well to chemotherapy and rarely spread.

Answer 19

Seminomas

Question 20

__________ spread quickly.

Answer 20

Non-seminomatous tumors

Question 21

Non-seminomatous tumors present with which two markers?

Answer 21

AFP and HCG

Question 22

T/F: Although the prognosis for non-seminomatous tumors is worse than seminomas, both have fairly good prognosis.

Answer 22

True

95% cured of early seminoma

90% nonseminomatous achieve remission

Question 23

T/F: Most prostatitis cases are related to E. coli from UTI.

Answer 23

False

90-95% are nonbacterial

Question 24

Which area of the prostate is effected by nodular hyperplasia of the prostate?

Answer 24

inner periurethral zone

Question 25

T/F: Nodular hyperplasia is fairly rare.

Answer 25

False 20% at age 40; 90% at age 70

Question 26

What are the clinical symptoms of nodular hyperplasia?

Answer 26

Hesitancy, urgency, poor stream, multiple urinary tract infections

Question 27

There is a local increase in _________ related to nodular hyperplasia.

Answer 27

androgens Other than that etiology is not understood

Question 28

How is nodular hyperplasia treated?

Answer 28

Drugs or surgery (TURP)

Question 29

What is the most common cancer of men over the age of 50 in the USA?

Answer 29

Prostate adenocarcinoma

Question 30

Where does prostate cancer most commonly arise?

Answer 30

Outer glands; palpable by rectal exam

Question 31

In prostate cancer, there is an elevated level of _______.

Answer 31

prostate specific antigen (PSA) But this could be seen in non-cancer patients

Question 32

T/F: Overall, prognosis for prostate cancer is normally good.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

The majority of bladder cancers are ___________.

Answer 33

Urothelial carcinoma

Question 34

How is urothelial carcinoma often first seen?

Answer 34

Blood in urine but no pain

Question 35

Syphilis is caused by infection from _____________.

Answer 35

T. Pallidum

Question 36

T/F: Syphilis is 30x more prevalent in African Americans than whites.

Answer 36

True

Question 37

Syphilis is highly infectious by which mode of transmission?

Answer 37

Direct contact with cutaneous/mucosal lesions

Question 38

What are the various areas that can be affected by the different stages of syphilis?

Answer 38

Primary - chancre at infection site Secondary - lymphadenopathy and mucocutaneous lesions Tertiary - aortitis, neurosyphilis, gummas

Question 39

T/F: If left untreated, 25% of primary syphilis patients will develop secondary syphilis.

Answer 39

True

Question 40

Maculopapular rash, condyloma lata, and mucous patches are all associated with _________.

Answer 40

Secondary syphilis

Question 41

After secondary syphilis the patient will enter the _________.

Answer 41

Latent phase

Question 42

How long will it typically take to develop tertiary syphilis?

Answer 42

1/3 of untreated patients will develop tertiary syphilis in 5-20 years

Question 43

What is the most common form of tertiary syphilis?

Answer 43

Aortitis (cardiovascular syphilis)

Question 44

What are the three patterns of congenital syphilis?

Answer 44

1. Stillbirth 2. Infantile syphilis - secondary syphilis at birth 3. Late congenital syphilis - symptoms seen after 2 years old

Question 45

What is Hutchinson’s triad?

Answer 45

Uncommon trio of symptoms with congenital syphilis 1. Hutchinson’s teeth (notched incisors/mulberry molars) 2. Interstitial keratitis 3. 8th cranial nerve deafness

Question 46

What are two screening tests for syphilis?

Answer 46

RPR and VDRL Often negative in early stages and can be false-positives

Question 47

What is a very specific test for syphilis?

Answer 47

FTA Will remain positive even after treatment

Question 48

How is syphilis treated?

Answer 48

Penicillin

Question 49

What bacterial agent causes gonorrhea?

Answer 49

N. Gonorrhoeae

Question 50

Gonorrhea often provokes a ____________, however many people (esp. females) can be asymptomatic.

Answer 50

Purulant exudate

Question 51

Untreated gonorrhea can lead to __________.

Answer 51

Sterility

Question 52

Acute salpingitis is ovary inflammation often caused by ___________.

Answer 52

Gonorrhea

Question 53

Secondary scarring due to gonorrhea is termed _________.

Answer 53

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 54

What is gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum?

Answer 54

Blindness at birth due to gonorrhea

Question 55

The majority of nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis is caused by ___________.

Answer 55

Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 56

If the disease continues to persist during antibiotic treatment for suspected gonohhrea what is to be expected?

Answer 56

Chlamydia

Question 57

How is chlamydia treated?

Answer 57

Antibiotics stronger than penicillin (ceftriaxone, doxycycline)

Question 58

What is a complication of chlamydia?

Answer 58

Reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)

Question 59

Most herpes infections are caused by ______.

Answer 59

HSV-2

Question 60

T/F: Initial herpes infection can be asymptomatic or can have painful mucocutaneous eruptions.

Answer 60

True

Question 61

___________ are small painful vesicles that quickly ulcerate.

Answer 61

Herpes recurrent lesions

Question 62

T/F: Neonatal herpes occurs in children born to mothers with genital herpes and has a low mortality.

Answer 62

False High mortality

Question 63

Diagnosis of ________ involves viral cytopathic effect, which will show large, multinucleate _________.

Answer 63

Herpes; “Tzanck cells”

Question 64

What is the most common HPV infection?

Answer 64

Condyloma acuminatum

Question 65

T/F: Condyloma acuminatum is caused by HPV 6 and 11.

Answer 65

True

Question 66

T/F: Condyloma acuminatum can lead to malignant transformation of genital lesions.

Answer 66

True But rare

Question 67

Condyloma acuminatum will cause papillary proliferation of squamous epithelium exhibiting __________ change.

Answer 67

Koilocytic