Genitourinary Medicine Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

= bacterial imbalance of the vagina caused by overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria

(such as Gardnerella vaginalis)

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2
Q

Most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age?

A

= bacterial vaginosis

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3
Q

What is the Amsel criteria used for?

A

= used to diagnose bacterial vaginosis

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4
Q

What features are involved in the Amsel criteria for BV?

A
  • vaginal pH > 4.5
  • homogenous grey or milky discharge
  • positive whiff test (additional of 10% potassium hydroxide produces a fishy odour)
  • clue cells present on wet mount

(3 out of the 4 features are needed to confer a diagnosis)

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5
Q

In what condition may clue cells be present on wet mount?

A

= bacterial vaginitis

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6
Q

Treatment of choice for bacterial vaginitis (2)

A

= Metronidazole or Clindamycin

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7
Q

What is chancroid?

A

= sexually transmitted infection (STI) of the genital skin primarily caused by the gram-negative bacillus Haemophilus ducreyi

infection typically manifests as a painful, potentially necrotic genital lesion. Commonly associated symptoms include painful lymphadenopathy and bleeding on contact

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8
Q

Patient presents with painful genital lesion which bleeds on contact. They have painful lymphadenopathy and have just come back from Greenland.

What is the diagnosis which comes to mind?

A

= Chancroid

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9
Q

Chancroid is usually diagnosed based on a clinical picture. However, what investigations can be used to help confirm diagnosis? (2)

A
  • culture
  • PCR (faster)
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10
Q

Treatment of chancroid?

A

= managed using antibiotics:
- Ceftriaxone
- Azithromycin
- Ciprofloxacin

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11
Q

What is Chlamydia caused by?

A

= Chlamydia trachomatis

(an obligate intracellular bacterium)

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12
Q

What are the risks to neonates if they are exposed to chlamydia during delivery? (2)

A

= can develop pneumonia or conjunctivitis

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13
Q

How is chlamydia tested for?

A

= nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) - swabs taken

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14
Q

Pharmacological treatment for chlamydia

(including dosage)

A

= orał doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days

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15
Q

What inflammatory joint condition is a known chlamydia complication?

A

= reactive arthritis

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16
Q

What is AIDS?

(CD4 count less than?)

A

= terminal stage of HIV infection where combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) has not halted the spread of the virus

It is defined by presence of an AIDS-defining illness alongside a CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mm3

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17
Q

Causative agent of AIDs?

A

= HIV

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18
Q

How is HIV transmitted? (4)

A
  • unprotected sexual contact
  • sharing of infected needles
  • mother-to-child transmission during birth or breastfeeding
  • exposure to infected blood products
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19
Q

How are we able to determine the progression of AIDs in a patient?

A

= CD4 cell count

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20
Q

What are the different ways combined hormonal contraception (CHC) can be administered? (3)

A
  • orally, pill form
  • transdermally, via patch
  • intravaginally, through use of vaginal ring
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21
Q

How does combined hormonal contraception function? (3)

A
  • thickening cervical mucous, obstructing sperm
  • thinning of endometrium, making transplantation difficult
  • inhibits ovulation
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22
Q

What is the difference in hormone dosages with the 3 different types of oral combined contraceptive pills?

  • monophasic
  • phasic
  • everyday pills
A

Monophasic: each pill has same dose of hormones

Phasic: pills contain different amounts of hormone and must be taken in correct order

Everyday pills: usually contain 21 hormone-containing pills, and 7 hormone-free pills

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23
Q

When starting on combined hormonal contraception, when will a patient be protected from day 1?

A

= if patient starts the pill on 1st day of natural period

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24
Q

For how long must a women use additional precautions when starting combined hormonal contraception, if unsure where abouts in her cycle she is?

A

= for 7 days

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25
How long postpartum can a patient begin combined hormonal contraception?
= 21 days postpartum, as long as NOT breastfeeding
26
What hormone is in contraceptive injection?
= progesterone
27
How often is the contraception injection given?
= every 13 weeks
28
Side-effects of contraception injection? (2)
- associated with weight-gain - can take some time for fertility to return (6-12 months)
29
Which contraceptive method has been associated with weight gain?
= contraception injection
30
What is fitz-hugh-curtis?
= medical condition that describes perihepatitis, a condition characterised by inflammation of the liver capsule and the subsequent development of adhesions
31
What infections can cause fitz-hugh-curtis? (2)
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection - Chlamydia trachomatis infection
32
How are adhesions in Fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome treated?
= surgical intervention, laparoscopic adhesiolysis
33
What is genital herpes?
= infectious disease characterised by the appearance of painful sores or ulcers on the genitals Caused by infection with the herpes simplex viruses, either HSV-1 or HSV-2
34
Is HSV-1 or HSV-2 associted with oral herpes?
= HSV-1
35
Treatment of genital herpes?
- Aciclovir 400mg 3 times daily for 5 days - Valaciclovir 500mg twice daily for 5 days - Aciclovir 200mg five times daily for 5 days - Famciclovir 250mg 3 times daily for 5 days
36
What is genital candidiasis?
= often referred to as a yeast infection. Is an inflammation of the vagina and the vulva due to an overgrowth of the yeast fungus, primarily Candida albicans
37
Main causative organism of genital candidiasis?
= Candida albicans
38
Key factors which may increase the risk of developing a Candida infection (3)
- pregnancy - antibiotics use - immunosuppression
39
What is white curdy, or lumpy discharge suggestive of?
= genital candidiasis (thrush)
40
Management of genital candidiasis?
= antifungal treatment oral: Fluconazole, itraconazole intravaginal: clotrimazole pessary vulval: topical clotrimazole cream
41
Oral therapies in the treatment of genital candidiasis should be avoided in...? (2)
- pregnant women - breast feeding women
42
Important note to warn patients about if on intravaginal & topical treatments for genital candidiasis?
= can compromise the integrity of latex condoms and diaphragms
43
What are genital warts caused by? (+ serotypes (2))
= human papillomavirus (HPV) HPV 6 + 11
44
Transmission of genital warts
= direct skin-to-skin contact
45
Genital warts: what is Podophyllotoxin?
= plant-based antiviral that can destroy wart tissue
46
Genital warts: what is Imiquimod?
= immune response modifier that stimulates the body’s immune system to fight the virus
47
Genital warts: what is Trichloroacetic acid?
= chemical treatment that burns off warts
48
Are genital warts likely to come back after treatment (reoccur)?
= yes Patient should be informed about high likelihood of recurrence despite treatment
49
Without intervention, what is the likelihood of passing HIV from mother to child? - 5-10% - 25-40% - 50-65% - >85%
- 25-40%
50
When does the majority of HIV transmissions from mother to child happen?
= during labour (90%)
51
HIV: What is the mother's viral load cut-off value in which a normal vaginal delivery can be recommended and supported vs. an elective caesarean section recommended?
Mother's viral load < 50 - normal vaginal delivery can be recommened and supported >50 - elective caesarean section recommended
52
Safest way to feed infants born to women with HIV?
= formula milk
53
What are AID-defining malignances?
= refer to a set of cancers more prevalent or exclusively found in people with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
54
Example of AIDS-defining malignangies (3)
- Kaposi's sarcoma - High-grade-B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma - invasive cervical cancer
55
Which of the following oncogenic viruses is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma? - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) - Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV8)
56
Which of the following oncogenic viruses is associated with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma? - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) - Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
57
Which of the following oncogenic viruses is associated with invasive cervical cancer? - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) - Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
58
What is molluscum contagiosum?
= common, contagious skin infection caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus, a member of the poxvirus family
59
Small, smooth, pearly-coloured papules with a central area of umbilication are suggestive of?
= molluscum contagiosum
60
Management options for molluscum contagiosum (3)
- cryotherapy - topical treatments e.g., salicyclic acid, potassium hydroxide, imiquimod - curettage
61
Is Neisseria gonorrhoea gram positive or negative?
= gram negative
62
Extragenital complications associated with gonorrhoea? (3)
- pharyngitis - rectal pain & discharge - disseminated infection
63
Investigations for gonorrhoea? (4)
- self taken vulvovginal swab in women, or first pass urine in men - microscopy (monomorphic gram-negative diplococci wihtin polymorphonuclear leukocytes) - nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) - culture
64
The following findings on microscopy is suggestive of which sexually transmitted infection? Findings: monomorphic gram-negative diplococci within polymorphonuclear leukocytes
= gonorrhoea
65
Mainstay treatment for gonorrhoea?
= antibiotics First-line: Ceftriaxone
66
Important to include following treatment for gonorrhoea?
= test of cure - essential to monitor disease clearance and assess effectiveness of chosen antibiotic regimen
67
Complications associated with gonorrhoea (3)
- infertility - disseminated infection (affecting joints) - susceptibility to HIV infection
68
What is priamary HIV infection?
= the phase that commences immediately after the initial exposure to HIV This phase is characterised by a surge in viral replication and often coincides with the onset of clinical symptoms
69
Retroviruses that cause primary HIV infection (2)
- HIV-1 - HIV-2
70
Transmission of HIV (3)
- sexual - parenteral (e.g., injection drug use, needlestick injury) - mother to child (during childbirth or breastfeeding)
71
HIV: symptoms onset within 3 weeks of infection, lasting longer than 2 weeks OR involving the CNS, is associated with?
= rapid progression to AIDS
72
How is HIV primarily established (diagnosied)?
= serum HIV ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) Positive results must be confired using a second test
73
Management of primary HIV infection? (2)
= combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) (offered to all regardless of their CD4 count) = Contact tracing necessary
74
In primary HIV infection, is the CD4 count used to assess if cART should be offered?
= no, offered to all regardless of CD4 count
75
What is Erythroplasia of Queyrat (EQ)?
= type of squamous cell carcinoma in situ Well-circumscribed, red, and painless lesion on the gland or prepuce (foreskin)
76