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Year 4 > Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve is compressed in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

= median nerve

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2
Q

Risk factors to consider in patient’s who present with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome? (4)

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • DM
  • acromegaly
  • hypothyroidism
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3
Q

Sensory symptoms associated with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

= numbness, parasthesia, burning sensation OR, pain in the following distributions

palmar aspects and full fingertips of the thumb, index, middle finger, and lateral half of ring finger

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4
Q

What the Phalen’s test? and what is it used for?

A

= involves fully flexing wrists and holding it in this position – backs of their hands together

This position triggers numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution if patient has Carpal Tunnel

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5
Q

What the Tinel’s test? and what is it used for?

A

= involves tapping wrist at location where median nerve travels through carpal tunnel

Triggers numbness + paraesthesia in the medial nerve distribution associated with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

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6
Q

Primary investigation for establishing a diagnosis of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

= nerve conduction studies

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7
Q

Lateral epicondylitis is also known as…

  • ‘tennis elbow’
  • ‘golfer’s elbow’
A
  • ‘tennis elbow’
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8
Q

Medial epicondylitis is also known as…

  • ‘tennis elbow’
  • ‘golfer’s elbow’
A
  • ‘golfer’s elbow’
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9
Q

Stenosing tenosynovitis is also known as?

A

= trigger finger

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10
Q

Is trigger finger more coming in women or men?

A

= women

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11
Q

Management options for trigger finger? (4)

A
  • rest + analgesia
  • splinting
  • steroid injections
  • surgery to release A1 pulley
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12
Q

What is De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis?

A

= condition where there is swelling + inflammation of the tendon sheaths in the wrist. It is a type of repetitive strain injury and results in pain on the radial side of the wrist

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13
Q

De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Describe the Finkelstein’s test

A

= patient making a fist with their thumb inside their fingers. Then, wrist is adducted (ulnar deviation), causing a strain on the APL and EPB tendons

If this movement causes pain at the radial aspect of the wrist > test is +ve, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

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14
Q

What is Trochanteric Bursitis?

A

= refers to the inflammation of a bursa over the greater trochanter on the outer hip

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15
Q

Which special tests can be performed to help establish a diagnosis of trochanteric bursitis? (2)

A
  • Trendelenburg test
  • Resisted movements (abduction, internal and external rotation of the hip)
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16
Q

Describe the Trendelenburg Test?

A

= ask patient to stand one-legged on the affected leg

Normally, the other side of the pelvis should remain level or tilt upwards slightly

Positive test is when the other side of the pelvis drops down, suggesting weakness in affected hip

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17
Q

2 types of Achilles tendinopathy

A
  • insertion tendinopathy (within 2 cm of the insertion point on the calcaneus)
  • mid-portion tendinopathy (2-6cm above the insertion point)
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18
Q

Which type of antibiotics are risk factors for tendinopathies?

A

= fluoroquinolone antibiotics (e.g., Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin)

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18
Q

What is important to exclude in patient with suspected Achilles tendinopathy?

A

= Achilles tendon rupture

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19
Q

What imaging is used to diagnose Achilles tendon rupture?

A

= USS

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20
Q

Why are steroid injections avoided in Achilles tendons?

A

= risk of tendon rupture

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20
Q

Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in a humerus fracture?

A

= radial nerve

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21
Q

‘RATS’ mnemonic for describing an orthopaedic x-ray

A

R - rotation
A - angulation
T - translation
S - shortening

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22
Q

4 R’s in management of a fracture

A

Resuscitate
Reduce (closed or open)
Retain (operative or non-operative)
Rehabilitate

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23
Q

Most common nerve to be damaged in an extension type supracondylar fracture?

A

= terminal branch of the median nerve (anterior interosseous nerve)

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24
Q

Most common nerve to be injured in a head of radius fracture?

A

= terminal branch of the radial nerve (posterior interosseous)

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25
Q

Most common nerve to be injured in an anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

= axillary nerve

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26
Q

What is the function of Tranexamic acid in an elective joint replacement?

A

= minimise blood loss during procedure

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27
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

= skin is broken, and broken bone is exposed to air

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28
Q

What is a stable fracture?

A

= sections of the bone remain in alignment in the fracture

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29
Q

What is a pathological fracture?

A

= bone break due to an abnormality within the bone

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30
Q

What is a Colle’s fracture?

A

= transverse fracture of the distal radius, near the wrist

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31
Q

What kind of fracture can cause a ‘dinner fork deformity’?

A

= Colle’s fracture

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32
Q

What are scaphoid fractures at a higher risk of avascular necrosis?

A

= scaphoid bone has retrograde blood supply

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33
Q

What is Weber classification used for?

A

= classifying lateral malleolar fractures

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34
Q

Main cancers that metastasise to the bone

HINT: PoRTaBLe

A

P - prostate
R - renal
T - thyroid
B - breast
L - lung

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35
Q

What is fat embolism?

A

= complication of fractures. Fat globules are released into the circulation following a fracture, these can become lodged in blood vessels and cause blood flow obstruction

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36
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

= orthopaedic emergency

Pressure within a fascial compartment is abnormally elevated, cutting off the blood flow to contents of that compartment

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37
Q

5P’s of how acute compartment syndrome presents

A

P - pain disproportionate to underlying injury
P - parasthesia
P - pale
P - pressure (high)
P - paralysis - late and worrying sign

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38
Q

Specific test to check for compartment syndrome if you suspect this?

A

= pain worsened by passive stretching of the muscles in that compartment

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39
Q

What can be used to measure compartment pressure (in suspected compartment syndrome)?

A

= needle manometry

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40
Q

Definitive treatment in acute compartment syndrome?

A

= emergency fasciotomy

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41
Q

What is a fasciotomy?

A

= involves surgical operation to cut through the fascia, down the entire length of the compartment, and release the pressure

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42
Q

What is chronic compartment syndrome pain made worse by?

A

= increased activity, it is exertional

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43
Q

What is Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

= surgical emergency where the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine are compressed

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44
Q

Most common cause of Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

= herniated disc

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45
Q

Red flags of Cauda Equina (7)

A
  • saddle anaesthesia
  • loss of sensation in bladder or rectum (not knowing when full)
  • urinary retention or incontinence
  • faecal incontinence
  • bilateral sciatica
  • bilateral or severe motor weakness in legs
  • reduced anal tone on PR
46
Q

What scan is required to diagnose Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

= emergency MRI scan

47
Q

Treatment of Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

= lumbar decompression surgery

48
Q

How to differentiate between Cauda Equina Syndrome and Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC)?

A

= Cauda Equina presents with LMN signs (reduced tone and reflexes), whereas Metastatic spinal cord compression shows UMN signs

49
Q

Chondrosarcoma is cancer originating from where?

A

= cartilage

50
Q

Leiomyosarcoma is cancer originating from where?

A

= smooth muscle

51
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is most often seen in which type of patients?

A

= end-stage HIV

52
Q

Initial investigation for bony lumps in suspected sarcoma?

A

= x-ray

53
Q

Initial investigation for soft tissue lumps in suspected sarcoma?

A

= USS

54
Q

Where is the most common location for sarcoma to metastasise to?

A

= lungs

55
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

= anterior displacement of vertebrae out of line with the one below

56
Q

What is ‘lumbago’?

A

= another term for low back pain

57
Q

What is sciatica?

A

= refers to symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve

58
Q

Which spinal nerves come together to form the sciatic nerve?

A

= spinal nerves L4-S3

59
Q

Main pharmacological choices to manage sciatica (2)

A
  • Amitriptyline
  • Duloxetine
60
Q

First-line option for managing acute lower back pain

A

= NSAIDs

61
Q

What is the STarT Back Screening Tool used for?

A

= used to stratify the risk of a patient presenting with acute back pain developing chronic back pain

62
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A

= narrowing of part of the spinal canal, resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots

63
Q

Intermittent neurogenic claudication is a key presenting feature in which condition?

A

= spinal stenosis

64
Q

What does radiculopathy refer to?

A

= compression of the nerve roots as they exit the spinal cord + spinal column (leading to motor + sensory problems)

65
Q

Patient presents with symptoms of peripheral arterial disease however, ABPI are normal, and he is experiencing back pain? What is the most likely differential?

A

= spinal stenosis

66
Q

Imaging used to investigate spinal stenosis?

A

= MRI

67
Q

Management options for spinal stenosis (4)

A
  • weight loss + exercise
  • analgesia
  • physiotherapy
  • decompression surgery (where conservative treatment fails)
68
Q

What is laminectomy?

A

= removal of part of all of the lamina from the affected vertebra

69
Q

What is the laminae?

A

= bony part that form the posterior part of the vertebral foramen + attaches to the spinous process

70
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

= inflammation in a bone and bone marrow

71
Q

What is haematogenous osteomyelitis?

A

= refers to when a pathogen is carried through the blood and seeded in the bone

72
Q

Most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?

A

= Staphylococcus aureus

73
Q

Best imaging option for establishing a diagnosis of osteomyelitis?

A

= MRI scan

74
Q

Which antibiotics are recommended to treat acute osteomyelitis (2), and for how long?

A

= Flucloxacillin for 6 weeks, possibly with Rifampicin or Fusidic acid added for the first 2 weeks

75
Q

How long is the course of Abx for chronic osteomyelitis?

A

= usually requires 3 months or more

76
Q

Imaging used to identify avascular necrosis?

A

= MRI (more sensitive then x-rays, in early detection)

77
Q

What is a Baker’s cyst?

A

= AKA, popliteal cyst is a fluid-filled sac originating from an extension of the knee synovium

78
Q

Important differential to rule out in potential baker’s cyst?

A

= DVT (d-dimer + USS or venography of leg)

79
Q

What is a Bennett Fracture?

A

= base of thumb (first metacarpal bone) intra-articular fracture - results in a 2-piece fracture dislocation

80
Q

Bennett Fractures are often the result of which of the following,

  • forced adduction + flexion
  • forced abduction + extension
A
  • forced abduction + extension
81
Q

Gold standard imaging in diagnosing biceps tendon injuries (e.g., bicep tendon tear)?

A

= MRI scan

82
Q

‘Popeye sign’ is a sign of?

A

= bicep tendon tear

83
Q

Which of the following types of bone malignancy typically presents with warm, painful swelling, often around the knee?

  • osteosarcoma
  • ewing’s sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
A
  • osteosarcoma
84
Q

Which of the following types of bone malignancy typically presents with painful, warm, enlarging mass along long bone diaphysis?

  • osteosarcoma
  • ewing’s sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
A
  • ewing’s sarcoma
85
Q

Which of the following types of bone malignancy typically occurs in older patients (>40), often presents with pain + lump?

  • osteosarcoma
  • ewing’s sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
A
  • chondrosarcoma
86
Q

Which of the following x-ray findings is seen in Osteosarcoma?

  • sunburst appearance
  • ‘onion skin’ periosteal reaction
  • lytic lesion with ‘fluffy popcorn’ calcification
A
  • sunburst appearance
87
Q

Which of the following x-ray findings is seen in Ewing’s sarcoma?

  • sunburst appearance
  • ‘onion skin’ periosteal reaction
  • lytic lesion with ‘fluffy popcorn’ calcification
A
  • ‘onion skin’ periosteal reaction
88
Q

Which of the following x-ray findings is seen in chondrosarcoma?

  • sunburst appearance
  • ‘onion skin’ periosteal reaction
  • lytic lesion with ‘fluffy popcorn’ calcification
A
  • lytic lesion with ‘fluffy popcorn’ calcification
89
Q

What is a boxer’s fracture?

A

= refers to a fracture of the neck of the 4th or 5th metacarpal

90
Q

Which of the following brachial plexus injuries is characterised by shoulder adduction, elbow extension, forearm pronation, and wrist flexion (‘waiter’s tip sign’) + dermatomal sensory loss in C5-6 distribution?

  • Erb’s palsy
  • Klumpke’s palsy
A
  • Erb’s palsy
91
Q

Which of the following brachial plexus injuries is characterised by dermatomal sensory in the C8-T1 distribution + weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the hand

  • Erb’s palsy
  • Klumpke’s palsy
A
  • Klumpke’s palsy
92
Q

Gold standard imaging for a suspected calcaneal fracture?

A

= computed tomography (CT)

93
Q

How long should a non-displaced fracture be non on ‘no-weight bearing’?

A

= 6-12 weeks

94
Q

What nerve is compressed in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)?

A

= median nerve

95
Q

Most common mononeuropathy encountered in clinical practice

A

= Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

96
Q

Primary investigation for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A
  • electromyography (EMG)
97
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: conservative management (4)

A
  • wrist splitting
  • NSAIDs
  • corticosteroid injections
  • modifying activities that exacerbate symptoms
98
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord end (conus medullaris)?

A

= around L1

99
Q

Most common cause of cauda equina?

A

= lumbar disc herniation (L4/5, and L5/S1)

100
Q

Gold standard imaging for cauda equina?

A

= urgent whole-spine MRI

101
Q

Main goal in management of cauda equina?

A

= surgically decompress affected area within 48 hours

102
Q

Cauda equina: If malignancy is identified on MRI, or clinical suspicion is high what can be given?

A

= Dexamethasone 16mg faily in divided doses (with PPI cover)

103
Q

Foot drop and foot eversion is seen in which type of nerve injury?

A

= common peroneal nerve injury

104
Q

What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) AKA, Sudek’s Atrophy?

A

= complex, chronic pain disorder that arises even in the absence of nerve injury

105
Q

Most common cause of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (AKA, Sudek’s Atrophy)?

A

= post-trauma particularly from fractures + orthopaedic procedures

106
Q

How long after insult does Complex Regional Pain Syndrome become symptomatic?

A

= presents weeks to months after initial insult

(usually affecting neighbouring areas)

107
Q

What is allodynia?

A

= pain from a non-painful stimulus

108
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

= increased pain response

109
Q

Medications which are used in Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)? (2)

A

Amitriptyline or Gabapentin

110
Q

Which cruciate ligament is more likely to be injured due to sudden deacceleration or change in direction?

A

= ACL

111
Q

Which cruciate ligament is more likely to be injured due to a direct blow to the proximal tibia when the knee is flexed?

A

= PCL

112
Q

Tests for a posterior cruciate ligament injury? (2)

A
  • posterior drawer test
  • posterior sag test
113
Q

Describe the Phalen’s test, and what is is used for

A

= press the back of your hands and fingers together with your wrists flexed in completion and your fingers pointed down. You will stay in that position for at least one or two minutes

The test is positive (abnormal) if the patient experiences characteristic symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome (pain and paresthesias along the distribution of the median nerve, i.e., thumb, index finger, and middle finger)

Year 4 (11 decks)

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