Geri Flashcards
(190 cards)
1
Q
specific form of delirium and agitation that occurs in the final weeks, days or hours of life.
A
Terminal restlessness
2
Q
specific form of delirium and agitation that occurs in the final weeks, days or hours of life.
A
Terminal restlessness
3
Q
occurs in the final days or hours and involves observable signs of systemic failure.
A
active death
4
Q
__ care is a medical specialty focused on aggressive symptom management.
A
Palliative care
5
Q
Palliative visits tend to focus __ on the actual disease and __ on what impact it has on the patient’s life
A
less
more
6
Q
__ is a medical insurance benefit, with its own set of regulations
A
hospice
7
Q
Hospice care is typically provided in the __ whereas palliative tends to be __
A
home,
hospital /clinic based
8
Q
Hospice care for patients with terminal conditions where survival is typically __
A
9
Q
__ : provides: exercise and functional training during each weekly or biweekly visit.
A
rehabilitation light
10
Q
__ utilization of skilled patient training and instruction to caregivers as a person moves through the transitions from an independently mobile level to a more dependent one as the disease progresses and as strength and balance decrease.
A
rehabilitation in reverse
11
Q
__long term ongoing care for challenging and changing conditions.
A
case management
12
Q
__ care that might under usual circumstances be taught to a caregiver now requires the skill of a PT because of complexity.
A
skilled maintenance
13
Q
__ often provided throughout the occurrence of care and is comprised of the psychosocial support associated with end of life process as well as physical measures.
A
supportive care
14
Q
__ Legal document that provides a clear statement of the patient’s desires for care in the event of imminent death (a living will) an the appointment of a person to make decisions on their behalf should they become incapacitated (medical power of attorney)
Third element includes an optional DNR document, which is usually printed on bright orange paper and displayed in a prominent place.
A
advance directives
15
Q
IRF - patient must receive at least __ a day of PT, OT, or SLP
daily is defined as __
A
3 hours/day
5 days/week
16
Q
Skilled Care requires that patients be in an appropriate __payment group to be considered a “skilled” patient.
A
RUGs
17
Q
IRF services must be __ and __ for the treatment of the patient’s condition
A
reasonable & necessary
18
Q
Services IRF must provide?
A
Rehab nursing, rehab services (OT, PT, SLP) audiology Orthotic and prosthetic social and psychological services
19
Q
services SNf must provide
A
nursing restorative services rehab services (PT, OT, SLP) audiology orthotic & prosthetic emergency dental social and or psychological services
20
Q
IRF = \_\_ day per spell of illness SNF = \_\_ days per spell of illness
A
90
100
21
Q
IRF pays for first __ days then day _-__ co pay
A
60
61-90
22
Q
SNF – first __ days fully covered if meets RUGs criteria; co-pay for the ___ day; 3-day pre-qualifying hospital stay required.
A
20
21-100 day
23
Q
__ =The period which begins when a patient is furnished inpatient hospital care
ends when the patient has neither been an inpatient of the hospital or skilled nursing bed for__ consecutive days.
A
spell of illness
60
24
Q
SNF has a __ day qualifying stay in the rehabilitation unit would qualify a patient for skilled care
A
3
25
13 diagnosis for IRF
```
Stroke
Spinal cord injury
Congenital deformity
Amputation
Major multiple trauma
Fracture
Polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis
Neurological disorders, including multiple sclerosis, motor neuron diseases, polyneuropathy, muscular dystrophy and Parkinson’s disease
Burns
```
26
IRF rehab diagnosis has __ case mix groups
95
27
__ % of patients admitted into the IRF must fall into one of the 13 specified diagnosis.
60%
28
SNF
The pt. must be certified and recertified as requiring skilled care by the MD on admission, the __th day and every __ days thereafter.
14th
| 30 days
29
Rug LEvels
In the last 7 days:
Received 720 or more minutes of therapy
At least 2 disciplines, 1 for at least 5 days, and the 2nd for at least 3 days
ultra high
30
RUG levels
In the last 7 days:
Received 500 or more minutes of therapy
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days
very high
31
RUG level
In the last 7 days
Received 325 or more minutes
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days
high
32
RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 150 minutes/week or more
5 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines.
medium
33
RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 45 minutes/week or more
3 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines and restorative nursing, two or more services, 6 or more day/week.
low
34
RUG group
__ group Any one of the following services received within the last 14 days with an ADL sum >=7:
IV Feeding/parenteral feeding (within last 7 days)
Suctioning
Tracheostomy Care
Ventilator/Respirator
IV Medication
extensive services grou[
35
```
RUG group
__Group
Any one of the following:
Multiple Sclerosis with ADL sum >= 10
Quadriplegic with ADL sum >= 10
Cerebral Palsy with ADL sum >= 10
Respiratory Therapy = 7
Ulcers (2+ sites over all stages ), with treatment
Any stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer with treatment
surgical wounds
radiation therapy
tube fed+ & aphasia
fever
```
Special Care group
36
```
RUG Group
__ group
Any one of the following:
Burns
Coma and not awake and completely ADL dependent
Septicemia
Pneumonia
Foot Lesions or Infections w/dressings
Internal Bleeding
Dehydration
Hemiplegia with ADL sum >=10
tube feeding
oxygen therapy
chemo therapy
```
Clinically complex group
37
__ is not a disease but rather a combination of a variety of medical problems.
Frality
38
Someone should be considered Frail if has __ or more of the following 5 characteristics:
3
39
Fraility characteristics (5)
Unintentional weight loss (10 lbs or more in a year)
General feeling of exhaustion (self-report)
Weakness
Slow walking speed
Low levels of physical activity
40
Normal frequency of urination is once every __ during daytime
__voids during nighttime hours
once every 2 hours
| 1-2 voids @ night
41
```
__ bladder capacity
__ residual urine
__ involuntary bladder contractions
__ outlet resistance (female)
__ ability to inhibit contraction
__ outlet resistance (male)
```
```
decreased
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
increase
```
42
Risk factors for UI
```
immobility
medications
obesity
smoking
stroke
low fluid intake
diuretics
diabetes
estrogen depletion
```
43
```
__ Loss of urine that occurs during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure:
Coughing
Sneezing
Laughing
Physical activity
Caused by pelvic muscular weakness as a result of:
Pregnancy
Obesity
Surgery
Medications
Aging
```
Stress UI
44
Risk factors for Stress UI (12)
```
age, estrogen loss
Caucasian
family history
obesity
smoking
chronic cough
pelvic surgery
chronic constipation
neurological disorders
```
45
intervention for stress incontinence
Kegels 2-5 sets several times a day
| feedback
46
Physical or psychological impairment that results in incontinence when the urinary tract is healthy.
Causes:
Decreased mobility
Pain
Clothing that is restrictive
Psychological factors
Ability to put on and take off clothing.
Sequence of tasks involved in toileting.
Mobility – ability to ambulate, use an assistive device or transfer to/from toilet.
Access to toilet/device (urinals, bedside commodes, etc.)
Functional UI
47
Psychological message that UI is expected.
Chairs are plastic
Beds are protected
Pads are available and applied “just in case”.
Architectural design
Long corridors
Poorly marked bathroom doors
Caregiver attitudes
“Go ahead and go, I’ll clean you up later”
“She/he does that on purpose”
Environmental Incontinence
48
a loss of urine with an abrupt and strong desire to void.
“I’m unable to make it to the bathroom on time.”
caused by an overactive detrusor muscle, resulting in excessive involuntary bladder contractions that may be initiated by:
cancer (bladder / prostate)
infection
spinal or nerve damage
Urge UI
49
URge UI treatment options (3)
Behavioral therapy
estim
medications
50
Urgency perception score
| 0-4
```
0 = convenience no urge
1 = mild urge (Can hold more than 1 hour)
2 = Moderate urge (can hold for 10-60 seconds)
3 = severe urge (can hold
```
51
Loss of urine related to the over distention of the bladder. frequent or constant dribbling; may include urge or stress UI
least common; hard to diagnosi\e
overflow UI
52
2 scales used for female pelvic floor muscle function
Brink - (3-12) intensity of contraction, vertical displacement, muscle contraction duration
Modified oxford - simpler/easier 0 (lack of muscle) -5 (strong contraction)
53
drug distribution changes include __ cardiac output
__ total body water
__ serum albumin
__ body fat
decreased
decreased
decreased
increased
54
```
With aging, liver mass __
hepatic blood flow __
renal mass is __
__ glomerular filtration
__ tubular secretion and absorption
__ creatinine clearance
```
```
decreased
decreases
decreased
decrease
decreased
decreased
```
55
__ Defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience.
Whatever the experiencing person says it is;
Existing whenever he/she says it does
pain
56
__ defines pain that results from injury, surgery, or trauma. It may be associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis. Acute pain is usually time-limited and subsides with healing.
acute pain
57
__ defines pain that lasts for a prolonged period (usually more than 3--6 months) and is associated with chronic disease or injury (e.g., osteoarthritis).
persistent pain
58
__ Refers to pain caused by stimulation of specific peripheral or visceral pain receptors.
This type of pain results from disease processes (e.g., osteoarthritis), soft-tissue injuries (e.g. falls), and medical treatment (e.g., surgery, venipunctureand other procedures).
It is usually localized and responsive to treatment
nociceptive pain
59
__ Refers to pain caused by damage to the peripheral or central nervous system
neuropathic pain
60
__ is the gold standard for pain assessment
self-report
61
__ Pain Results from an injury, surgery, or disease-related tissue damage.
Usually associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis.
acute pain
62
__ pain Usually last more than 3-6 months.
May or may not be associated with a disease process.
Autonomic activity is usually absent
chronic / persistent pain
63
__ Pain Results from disease processes (osteoarthritis, soft tissue injuries (falls or trauma), and medical treatment (surgery and other procedures
Nociceptive pain
64
__ pain Caused by pathology in the peripheral or central nervous system.
Neuropathic pain
65
Orthotics have a __ pressure principle located __ and __
3 point pressure principle
1 area of deformity or angulation
2 counter forces acting in opposite direction
66
__ opening: has stitched down vamps, not suitable for orthotic wear.
bal (balmoral)
67
__ opening: has vamps (the flaps contain the lace stays) that open wide apart from the anterior margin of the shoe for ease of application.
blucher opening
68
When foot cannot attain neutral, FO may shim the gap to that fixed position-Accommodative = __ FO
accommodating FO
69
__ FO May help the foot attain a neutral position-Corrective
Corrective FO
70
FO Longitudinal Arch supports Prevent depression of the subtalar joint and correct for __
pes planus (flat foot)
71
University of California Biomechanics Laboratory Insert (semi-rigid plastic molded insert to correct for flexible __
pes planus
72
scaphoid pad is used to support __
longitudinal arch
73
__is a heel wedge with an extended anterior medial border used to support the longitudinal arch and correct for flexible pes valgus-pronated feet).
thomas heel
74
rear foot posting
varus post limits __
valgus post limits __
eversion/pronation
| inverted/supination
75
forefoot posting
medial wedge prescribed for forefoot __
lateral wedge for ___
varus
| valgus
76
Heel lifts or heel platform accommodates for __ & accommodates for limitation in __
leg length discrepancy;
| ankle joint DF
77
an anterior stop limits __
| a posterior stop limits __
DF
| PF
78
Spring assist (Klenzak housing) double upright metal AFO with single anterior channel for spring assist to aid __
DF
79
Posterior leaf spring: plastic AFO that inserts into the shoe, widely used to prevent __
foot drop (PF)
80
T Straps
| Medial strap buckles around the lateral upright and correct for __
valgus
81
lateral strap buckles around medial upright and corrects for __
Varus
82
Floor reaction AFO uses floor reaction force through toe aspect of foot plate to prevent __
knee collapse
83
hinge joint KAFO provides __ & __ control while allowing _/__
mediolateral & Hyperextension
| flex/ext
84
frontal plane KAFO controls for genu __ or genu__
valgum or varum
85
HKAFO controls for __, __, and __
abduction, adduction and rotation
86
Reciprocating Gait Orthosis commonly used in cases of __ or __
spina bfida and SCI
87
Hip abduction orthosis
commonly used __ to position femoral head optimally with acetabulum
88
Periods of gait
Phases (8)
Tasks (3)
Stance and Swing
Initial contact, loading response, mid stance, terminal stance, preswing, inital swing, mid swing, terminal swing
Tasks = weight acceptance, Single limb support, & swing limb advancement
89
posterior pelvic tilt causes
| 4
hip flexor weaknes
tight HS
low back pain
hip extensor weakness
90
Contralateral pelvic drop due to __ hip abductor weakness
__ hip adductor contracture or spasticity
__ hip abductor contracture
ipsilateral
ipsilateral
contralateral
91
Step Length =
| Distance between corresponding successive points of heel contact of the
opposite
92
Stride Length =
| Distance between successive points of heel contact of the
same
93
normal cadence = __ steps/min
100-115
94
Comfrotable Walking Speed = __
80 ,/min ~3mph
95
Single support = __% of gait cycle
| Double support = __%
40%
| 20%
96
muscles at intial contact
DF, Quad
| Glute max and HS
97
occurs in the final days or hours and involves observable signs of systemic failure.
active death
98
__ care is a medical specialty focused on aggressive symptom management.
Palliative care
99
Palliative visits tend to focus __ on the actual disease and __ on what impact it has on the patient’s life
less
| more
100
__ is a medical insurance benefit, with its own set of regulations
hospice
101
Hospice care is typically provided in the __ whereas palliative tends to be __
home,
| hospital /clinic based
102
Hospice care for patients with terminal conditions where survival is typically __
less than 6 months
103
__ : provides: exercise and functional training during each weekly or biweekly visit.
rehabilitation light
104
__ utilization of skilled patient training and instruction to caregivers as a person moves through the transitions from an independently mobile level to a more dependent one as the disease progresses and as strength and balance decrease.
rehabilitation in reverse
105
__long term ongoing care for challenging and changing conditions.
case management
106
__ care that might under usual circumstances be taught to a caregiver now requires the skill of a PT because of complexity.
skilled maintenance
107
__ often provided throughout the occurrence of care and is comprised of the psychosocial support associated with end of life process as well as physical measures.
supportive care
108
__ Legal document that provides a clear statement of the patient’s desires for care in the event of imminent death (a living will) an the appointment of a person to make decisions on their behalf should they become incapacitated (medical power of attorney)
Third element includes an optional DNR document, which is usually printed on bright orange paper and displayed in a prominent place.
advance directives
109
IRF - patient must receive at least __ a day of PT, OT, or SLP
daily is defined as __
3 hours/day
| 5 days/week
110
Skilled Care requires that patients be in an appropriate __payment group to be considered a “skilled” patient.
RUGs
111
IRF services must be __ and __ for the treatment of the patient's condition
reasonable & necessary
112
Services IRF must provide?
```
Rehab nursing,
rehab services (OT, PT, SLP)
audiology
Orthotic and prosthetic
social and psychological services
```
113
services SNf must provide
```
nursing restorative services
rehab services (PT, OT, SLP)
audiology
orthotic & prosthetic
emergency dental
social and or psychological services
```
114
```
IRF = __ day per spell of illness
SNF = __ days per spell of illness
```
90
| 100
115
IRF pays for first __ days then day _-__ co pay
60
| 61-90
116
SNF – first __ days fully covered if meets RUGs criteria; co-pay for the ___ day; 3-day pre-qualifying hospital stay required.
20
| 21-100 day
117
__ =The period which begins when a patient is furnished inpatient hospital care
ends when the patient has neither been an inpatient of the hospital or skilled nursing bed for__ consecutive days.
spell of illness
60
118
SNF has a __ day qualifying stay in the rehabilitation unit would qualify a patient for skilled care
3
119
13 diagnosis for IRF
```
Stroke
Spinal cord injury
Congenital deformity
Amputation
Major multiple trauma
Fracture
Polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis
Neurological disorders, including multiple sclerosis, motor neuron diseases, polyneuropathy, muscular dystrophy and Parkinson’s disease
Burns
```
120
IRF rehab diagnosis has __ case mix groups
95
121
__ % of patients admitted into the IRF must fall into one of the 13 specified diagnosis.
60%
122
SNF
The pt. must be certified and recertified as requiring skilled care by the MD on admission, the __th day and every __ days thereafter.
14th
| 30 days
123
Rug LEvels
In the last 7 days:
Received 720 or more minutes of therapy
At least 2 disciplines, 1 for at least 5 days, and the 2nd for at least 3 days
ultra high
124
RUG levels
In the last 7 days:
Received 500 or more minutes of therapy
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days
very high
125
RUG level
In the last 7 days
Received 325 or more minutes
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days
high
126
RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 150 minutes/week or more
5 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines.
medium
127
RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 45 minutes/week or more
3 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines and restorative nursing, two or more services, 6 or more day/week.
low
128
RUG group
__ group Any one of the following services received within the last 14 days with an ADL sum >=7:
IV Feeding/parenteral feeding (within last 7 days)
Suctioning
Tracheostomy Care
Ventilator/Respirator
IV Medication
extensive services grou[
129
```
RUG group
__Group
Any one of the following:
Multiple Sclerosis with ADL sum >= 10
Quadriplegic with ADL sum >= 10
Cerebral Palsy with ADL sum >= 10
Respiratory Therapy = 7
Ulcers (2+ sites over all stages ), with treatment
Any stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer with treatment
surgical wounds
radiation therapy
tube fed+ & aphasia
fever
```
Special Care group
130
```
RUG Group
__ group
Any one of the following:
Burns
Coma and not awake and completely ADL dependent
Septicemia
Pneumonia
Foot Lesions or Infections w/dressings
Internal Bleeding
Dehydration
Hemiplegia with ADL sum >=10
tube feeding
oxygen therapy
chemo therapy
```
Clinically complex group
131
__ is not a disease but rather a combination of a variety of medical problems.
Frality
132
Someone should be considered Frail if has __ or more of the following 5 characteristics:
3
133
Fraility characteristics (5)
Unintentional weight loss (10 lbs or more in a year)
General feeling of exhaustion (self-report)
Weakness
Slow walking speed
Low levels of physical activity
134
Normal frequency of urination is once every __ during daytime
__voids during nighttime hours
once every 2 hours
| 1-2 voids @ night
135
```
__ bladder capacity
__ residual urine
__ involuntary bladder contractions
__ outlet resistance (female)
__ ability to inhibit contraction
__ outlet resistance (male)
```
```
decreased
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
increase
```
136
Risk factors for UI
```
immobility
medications
obesity
smoking
stroke
low fluid intake
diuretics
diabetes
estrogen depletion
```
137
```
__ Loss of urine that occurs during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure:
Coughing
Sneezing
Laughing
Physical activity
Caused by pelvic muscular weakness as a result of:
Pregnancy
Obesity
Surgery
Medications
Aging
```
Stress UI
138
Risk factors for Stress UI (12)
```
age, estrogen loss
Caucasian
family history
obesity
smoking
chronic cough
pelvic surgery
chronic constipation
neurological disorders
```
139
intervention for stress incontinence
Kegels 2-5 sets several times a day
| feedback
140
Physical or psychological impairment that results in incontinence when the urinary tract is healthy.
Causes:
Decreased mobility
Pain
Clothing that is restrictive
Psychological factors
Ability to put on and take off clothing.
Sequence of tasks involved in toileting.
Mobility – ability to ambulate, use an assistive device or transfer to/from toilet.
Access to toilet/device (urinals, bedside commodes, etc.)
Functional UI
141
Psychological message that UI is expected.
Chairs are plastic
Beds are protected
Pads are available and applied “just in case”.
Architectural design
Long corridors
Poorly marked bathroom doors
Caregiver attitudes
“Go ahead and go, I’ll clean you up later”
“She/he does that on purpose”
Environmental Incontinence
142
a loss of urine with an abrupt and strong desire to void.
“I’m unable to make it to the bathroom on time.”
caused by an overactive detrusor muscle, resulting in excessive involuntary bladder contractions that may be initiated by:
cancer (bladder / prostate)
infection
spinal or nerve damage
Urge UI
143
URge UI treatment options (3)
Behavioral therapy
estim
medications
144
Urgency perception score
| 0-4
```
0 = convenience no urge
1 = mild urge (Can hold more than 1 hour)
2 = Moderate urge (can hold for 10-60 seconds)
3 = severe urge (can hold
```
145
Loss of urine related to the over distention of the bladder. frequent or constant dribbling; may include urge or stress UI
least common; hard to diagnosi\e
overflow UI
146
2 scales used for female pelvic floor muscle function
Brink - (3-12) intensity of contraction, vertical displacement, muscle contraction duration
Modified oxford - simpler/easier 0 (lack of muscle) -5 (strong contraction)
147
drug distribution changes include __ cardiac output
__ total body water
__ serum albumin
__ body fat
decreased
decreased
decreased
increased
148
```
With aging, liver mass __
hepatic blood flow __
renal mass is __
__ glomerular filtration
__ tubular secretion and absorption
__ creatinine clearance
```
```
decreased
decreases
decreased
decrease
decreased
decreased
```
149
__ Defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience.
Whatever the experiencing person says it is;
Existing whenever he/she says it does
pain
150
__ defines pain that results from injury, surgery, or trauma. It may be associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis. Acute pain is usually time-limited and subsides with healing.
acute pain
151
__ defines pain that lasts for a prolonged period (usually more than 3--6 months) and is associated with chronic disease or injury (e.g., osteoarthritis).
persistent pain
152
__ Refers to pain caused by stimulation of specific peripheral or visceral pain receptors.
This type of pain results from disease processes (e.g., osteoarthritis), soft-tissue injuries (e.g. falls), and medical treatment (e.g., surgery, venipunctureand other procedures).
It is usually localized and responsive to treatment
nociceptive pain
153
__ Refers to pain caused by damage to the peripheral or central nervous system
neuropathic pain
154
__ is the gold standard for pain assessment
self-report
155
__ Pain Results from an injury, surgery, or disease-related tissue damage.
Usually associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis.
acute pain
156
__ pain Usually last more than 3-6 months.
May or may not be associated with a disease process.
Autonomic activity is usually absent
chronic / persistent pain
157
__ Pain Results from disease processes (osteoarthritis, soft tissue injuries (falls or trauma), and medical treatment (surgery and other procedures
Nociceptive pain
158
__ pain Caused by pathology in the peripheral or central nervous system.
Neuropathic pain
159
Orthotics have a __ pressure principle located __ and __
3 point pressure principle
1 area of deformity or angulation
2 counter forces acting in opposite direction
160
__ opening: has stitched down vamps, not suitable for orthotic wear.
bal (balmoral)
161
__ opening: has vamps (the flaps contain the lace stays) that open wide apart from the anterior margin of the shoe for ease of application.
blucher opening
162
When foot cannot attain neutral, FO may shim the gap to that fixed position-Accommodative = __ FO
accommodating FO
163
__ FO May help the foot attain a neutral position-Corrective
Corrective FO
164
FO Longitudinal Arch supports Prevent depression of the subtalar joint and correct for __
pes planus (flat foot)
165
University of California Biomechanics Laboratory Insert (semi-rigid plastic molded insert to correct for flexible __
pes planus
166
scaphoid pad is used to support __
longitudinal arch
167
__is a heel wedge with an extended anterior medial border used to support the longitudinal arch and correct for flexible pes valgus-pronated feet).
thomas heel
168
rear foot posting
varus post limits __
valgus post limits __
eversion/pronation
| inverted/supination
169
forefoot posting
medial wedge prescribed for forefoot __
lateral wedge for ___
varus
| valgus
170
Heel lifts or heel platform accommodates for __ & accommodates for limitation in __
leg length discrepancy;
| ankle joint DF
171
an anterior stop limits __
| a posterior stop limits __
DF
| PF
172
Spring assist (Klenzak housing) double upright metal AFO with single anterior channel for spring assist to aid __
DF
173
Posterior leaf spring: plastic AFO that inserts into the shoe, widely used to prevent __
foot drop (PF)
174
T Straps
| Medial strap buckles around the lateral upright and correct for __
valgus
175
lateral strap buckles around medial upright and corrects for __
Varus
176
Floor reaction AFO uses floor reaction force through toe aspect of foot plate to prevent __
knee collapse
177
hinge joint KAFO provides __ & __ control while allowing _/__
mediolateral & Hyperextension
| flex/ext
178
frontal plane KAFO controls for genu __ or genu__
valgum or varum
179
HKAFO controls for __, __, and __
abduction, adduction and rotation
180
Reciprocating Gait Orthosis commonly used in cases of __ or __
spina bfida and SCI
181
Hip abduction orthosis
commonly used __ to position femoral head optimally with acetabulum
182
Periods of gait
Phases (8)
Tasks (3)
Stance and Swing
Initial contact, loading response, mid stance, terminal stance, preswing, inital swing, mid swing, terminal swing
Tasks = weight acceptance, Single limb support, & swing limb advancement
183
posterior pelvic tilt causes
| 4
hip flexor weaknes
tight HS
low back pain
hip extensor weakness
184
Contralateral pelvic drop due to __ hip abductor weakness
__ hip adductor contracture or spasticity
__ hip abductor contracture
ipsilateral
ipsilateral
contralateral
185
Step Length =
| Distance between corresponding successive points of heel contact of the
opposite
186
Stride Length =
| Distance between successive points of heel contact of the
same
187
normal cadence = __ steps/min
100-115
188
Comfrotable Walking Speed = __
80 ,/min ~3mph
189
Single support = __% of gait cycle
| Double support = __%
40%
| 20%
190
muscles at intial contact
DF, Quad
| Glute max and HS
