GI 1, 2 and 3: Upper GI tract Flashcards

1
Q

What epithelium lines the lip, tongue and oral cavity?

A

Lip- squamous epithelium, keratinised

Tongue- squamous epithelium, not keratinised, papillae

Oral cavity- squamous epithelium, not keratinised

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2
Q

What developmental abnormalities do these images show?

A

Left- cat cleft palate

Right- inferior agnathia

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3
Q

What terms are used to describe oral developmental abnormalities?:

part of mouth not present

short either maxilla/mandible

One of the above affecting mandible

One of the above affecting maxilla

A

Agnathia- not present

Brachygnathia (short), Prognathia (long)

Superior- maxilla
Inferior- mandible

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4
Q

What can cause neurogenic atrophy of lingual muscles?
-part of tongue atrophies

A
  • Damage to the hypoglossal nerve in horses- guttural pouch mycosis
  • Starvation- lack of nutrients
  • Lack of blood supply- chronic hepatic congestion
  • Lack of innervation- nerve transection
  • Disuse
  • Pressure- neoplasia
  • Loss of hormonal stimulation- testicular atrophy
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5
Q

When do the following oral circulatory disorders occur?:

Pallor

Cyanosis

Petechial haemorrhage

A

Pallor- anaemia/heart failure

Cyanosis- blue or purple colouration of mucous membranes due to the tissues near the skin surface being low on O2- uraemia, nitrate poisoning, blue tongue

Petechial haemorrhage [lots of little dots]- clotting defect, septicaemia, intoxications

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6
Q

What do the following terms mean?:

Stomatitis
Chelitis
Gingivitis
Glossitis
Palatitis
Sialoadenitis
Tonsilitis
Phraryngitis

A
  • Stomatitis- inflam of the oral cavity
  • Chelitis- inflam of the elips
  • Gingivitis- gums
  • Glossitis- tongue
  • Palatitis- hard or soft palate
  • Sialoadenitits- salivary glands
  • Tonsilitis- I mean yeh come one
  • Pharyngitis- use your creativity
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7
Q

What can cause gingivitis?

What are the associated conditions?

A
  • Poor oral hygiene
  • Opportunistic bacterial infections
  • Gingival trauma
  • Immunodeficiency

Associated conditions
Stomatitis, oral ulceration, glossitis
Eosinophilic granuloma complex- cat
Tonsilitis
secondary to periodontal disease

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8
Q

What is the agent of necrobacillus?

What is its alternative name?

What are the clinical signs?

Describe the pathogenesis

A

Agent- fusoforum necrophorum

AKA- calf Diptheria

CS- swollen and dribbling

Path- invasion and colonisation of damaged mucosa as commensal/opportunistic pathogen, extensive necrosis due to toxins

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9
Q

What agent causes wooden tongue?

How does it invade and what does it lead to?

What is the DDX?

A

Agent- opportunistic actinobacillus ligniersi

Invasion and colonisation of damaged mucosa
This leads to pyogranulomatous inflammation with extensive fibrosis and abscess formation

DDX- jumpy jaw (osteomyelitis of mandible due to actinomyces bovis)

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10
Q

What viral agent is responsible for blue tongue?

Describe its pathogenesis

How do early phase and chronic findings differ?

A

Orbivirus

Pathogenesis- insect bite by culicoide spp, viraemia, infection of endothelial cells, endothelial damage leading to microthrombi, haemorrhages and ischaemic damage

Early phase- hyperaemia/oedema of oral and nasal mucosa- cyanosis of tonuge

Late phase- ischaemic necrosis

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11
Q

When viral diseases cause vesicles what is the common term?

Why do they occur?

A

Blisters

Due to ballooning degeneration of epithelial cells

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12
Q

What species are affected by foot and mouth disease?

What is the route of infection?

Where are ulcers commonly located?

Describe the pathogenesis

A

Species- cattle, swine, sheep- clinically silent in wild ruminants

ROI- aerosol/oropharyngeal infection

Ulcers-
Tongue, lips, palate, skin near coronary band to interdigital space, ruminal mucosa

Pathogenesis

  1. Tropism for squamous epithelial cells
  2. Ballooning degeneration of cells
  3. cells detach
  4. Oedema and fibrin fills space- vesicles
  5. Vesicles coalesce- bullae
  6. Erosion/ulcers
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13
Q

What are the DDXs for viral disease-causing erosive and ulcerative stomatitis?

A

BVD- mucosal disease

Bovine malignant catarrhal fever

Blue tongue

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14
Q

What agent causes BVDV?

What presentation does it mainly occur?

What if the animal is pregnant?

When does mucosal disease occur?

How does mucosal disease appear?

A

Pestivirus BVDV type 1

BDV- mainly acute diarrhoea and rhinitis

Pregnant
1/3- abort
2/3- viraemic calf
3/3- ok calf

MD occurs in persistently infected calves

Grossly-
in oral mucosa and muzzle
In oesophageal, abomasal and intestinal mucosa

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15
Q

What viral agents cause malignant catarrhal fever?

When do animals become infected?

What lesions does it cause?

What diseases are associated with it?

A

Due to ovine herpesvirus type 2 or alcelahpine herpesvirus type 1

Sporadic disease observes in animals in contact with sheep

Erosions in oral oesophageal, abomasal and intestinal mucosa

Often associated with conjunctivitis and keratitis

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16
Q

What viral disease can cause erosive and ulcerative stomatitis in cats?

A

Feline calicivirus disease

Feline herpes virus infection- cat flu

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17
Q

What fungal agent mainly affects young suckling animals- especially when in poor hygiene conditions?

A

Candida albicans- Candidasis

Can infect immunocompromised adults

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18
Q

What parasites can infect the upper GI tract?

A

Cysticercus cellulosae- lingual muscle pigs
Larvae of Taenia solium

Cysticercus bovis- lingual muscle Cows
Larvae to T.saginata

Trichinella spiralis and sarcosporidia in the lingual muscle

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19
Q

What idiopathic inflammatory process can affect cats?

How can it present?

A

Eosinophillic granuloma complex- cat

Eosinophilic indolent ulcer- upper lip

Oral eosinophilic granuloma- tongue, soft palate

Eosinophilic plaque- abdomen, thighs

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20
Q

What bacteria can colonise tonsillar crypts?

A

Haemolytic streptococci

Certain coliform bacteria

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21
Q

What benign and malignant neoplasms can affect the oral cavity?

A

Benign-

  • Papillomas
  • Epulides

Malignant-

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
  • Fibrosarcoma
  • Osteosarcoma
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22
Q

What condition does this image show?

What species are affected?

Where can the lesions be found?

What are of animals are more commonly affected?

What agent induces the condition?

What is usually done?

A

Viral papillomas

Dogs, cats, cattle, rabbits- most

Oral and labial mucosa

Mainly younger animals

Induced by papillomavirus

Spontaneous regression probable

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23
Q

What species are commonly affected by epulides?

What tissue do epulides derive from?

What are the three subtypes?

A

Dogs

Derive from periodontal ligament or connective tissue

Sub types-

  • Fibrous epulis- expansile, no invasion, composed of fibroblasts and collagen
  • Ossifying epulis- fibromatous epulis, but with bone formation
  • Acanthomatous epulis- contains stratified epithelium, invades underlying bone
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24
Q

Where does an oral squamous cell carcinoma derive from?

In what species is it the most common oral malignant neoplasm?
In what species is it the second most common?

Where does it commonly metastasise to?

What does squamous cell carcinoma frequently invade?

A

Deriving from oral squamous epithelium

Cats- most common malignant
Dogs- second most frequent

Metastasis to regional lymph nodes

Frequent invasion of adjacent soft tissue, skeletal muscle and bone

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25
Q

What can be sequelae of squamous cell carcinomas commonly in dogs?

How does it appear histologically?

A

Tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma

Early metastasis into regional lymph nodes- larger than primary tumour

Histo-
multifocal squamous differentiation and pearl formation- compact eosinophilic material

Basal membrane is focally interrupted and infiltrated by chords of neoplastic cells that infiltrate the lymphoid tissue

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26
Q

What do melanomas derive from

What species are they most common in?

Why is the prognosis very poor?

Why can they rarely grossly appear differently?

A

Deriving from melanocytes from pigmented mucosa

Dogs- most common

Highly invasive- early metastases- haematogenous and lymphatic to lungs and LNs

Rare amelanotic forms too

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27
Q

Where does an oral fibrosarcoma originate from?

What species is the second most common malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity?

What is common with fibrosarcomas?

A

Deriving from the connective tissue of the oral cavity

Cat- second most frequent malignant

Frequent invasion of underlying connective tissue, skeletal muscle and bone.
Can lead to widespread metastases

Looks similar to squamous cell carcinoma

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28
Q

What pathological diseases can affect the teeth?

A

Abnormal tooth wear- attrition

Tartar/inflammation-
Periodontitis etc

Odontogenic tumours

29
Q

What animals are attrition important in?

What can cause reduced attrition with a lack of counterpressure?

What can it lead to?

A

All- especially herbivores

Reduced attrition

  • Missing teeth- oligodontia
  • Interdental gaps- diastasis
  • Mal-alignment

Leads to

  • Abnormally long teeth
  • Mucosal lesions
  • Difficulties chewing
  • Impaction of food material
30
Q

What is tartar?

What is periodontitis?

What are the stages?

A

Tartar-
Calcified masses of- food particles, bacteria, fungi, shed epithelium, leukocytes

Periodontitis- inflammation of tissues which surround the teeth

Stages

  1. Gingivitis
  2. Pocket formation in the gingival socket
  3. Loosening and loss of tooth
  4. Fistula formation
31
Q

What type of neoplasms are odontogenic tumours?

Where do they derive from?

What are the two types?

A

Usually benign- rare

Arise from epithelial/mesenchymal tissue that gives rise to teeth

Ameloblastoma- dogs
arises deep within the mandible or maxilla, solid/cystic masses within the gingiva, teeth are loose or missing

Odontoma-
Dental malformation rather then true neoplasm
Complex- all normal tissue elements of tooth but malformed
Compound- masses of tooth-like tissue, but abnormally arranged

32
Q

Image shows salivary glands slide

Can you identify the following structures?:

  • Ganglion cell
  • Artery
  • Mucous acini
  • Excretory duct
  • Intercalated duct
  • Serous acini
  • Interlobular connective tissue
  • Interlobar ducts
A
33
Q

What are the following conditions of salivary glands?

Saloadenitis

Sialoliths

Ranula

A

Saloadenitis- rare

Salivary calculi- sialoliths
formed in duct or gland- chronic inflammation or foreign bodies

Ranula- cysts in sublingual duct
often located in the tongue frenulum, due to dilation and secretion with occluded duct

34
Q

What kind of muscle makes up the tunica muscularis of the oesophagus?

Dogs
Ruminants
Pig
Cat
Horse

A

Dogs and ruminants- striated muscle

Pig-striated except for a short distance in front of stomach

Cat and Horse- striated 2/3

35
Q

What commonly causes oesophageal compression?

What species is most likely to have oesophagus stricture?

What causes oesophageal stricture?

What causes oesophageal obstruction?
What are the sequelae?

A

Compression- masses in adjacent tissues

Stricture- mainly in dogs
Mainly due to the persistence of the right aortic arch
Oesophagus gets trapped between- aorta/pulmonary artery/ductus arteriosus botalli

Obstruction-
usually due to foreign bodies, rarely due to neoplasia, abscesses, parasites

sequelae-
mucosal necrosis
Perforation- pleuritis

36
Q

What are the outcomes of compression (stenosis), stricture and obstruction?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Tympanic/stomach bloat
  • Formation of diverticulum
  • Oesophageal rupture/perforation
  • Regurgitation- aspiration pneumonia
37
Q

What can cause megaoesophagus?

A

Due to neuromuscular disorders but also distal obstructions of the oesophagus- atonic, flaccid oesophageal wall dilated by food- aspiration

Congenital- cats/dogs
Inherited- great dane, GSH, Irish setter
defect in distention- a sensitive reflex that coordinates the oesophageal function

Acquired- adult dogs, secondary to disorders disrupting neural reflex in swallowing

38
Q

What diseases can cause acquired megaoesophagus?

How does dysautonomia cause megaoesophagus?

A

Acquired causes-
Distemper, neuronal storage disease, neoplasia, botulism, lead poisoning
Myasthenia gravis- most common cause

Dysautonomia-
Autonomic polyganglionopathy
Resulting in abnormal function of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system- cats and dogs
Reduction in number of autonomic ganglia, chromatolysis in remaining neurons

39
Q

What are the two pathogenesis of inflammation of the oesophagus?

A

Disease- mucosal disease, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis etc

Reflux- chemically induced

40
Q

What are the two neoplasms deriving from the oesophagus?

What species are commonly affected with each?

A

Papilloma- cattle

Fibrosarcoma- Dog

41
Q

What causes papilloma in cattle oesophagus?

What is fibrosarcoma in dogs associated with?

A

Cattle- BPV type 4- oral/pharynx/oesophagus/rumen

Fibrosarcoma- associated with long-standing spirocerca lupi infection

42
Q

What kind of parasite is Spirocerca lupi?
What is its intermediate host?

Describe its life cycle and how it leads to fibrosarcoma formation

A

Nematode- dogs
Intermediate host- beetles

Life cycle-

  1. Ingestion of beetles with third-stage larvae
  2. In the stomach enter subintima of the gastric artery and aorta
  3. Migration to caudal thoracic area
  4. Migration to oesophagus
  5. Development in adult stage worms
  6. Oesophageal epithelium perforation
  7. Granulomatous oesophagititis
  8. Chronic- development of sarcomas
43
Q

What epithelium lines the forestomach of ruminants?

From the image which are the reticulum, rumen and omasum?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

Reticulum- honey comb

Rumen- lentils

Omasum- lumpy folds

44
Q

What is parakeratosis/hyperkeratosis?

A

Loss of ruminal papillae

Regarded as an adaptive process to chemical changed in ruminal content

45
Q

What is ruminal tympany?

Why does it occur?

What is the difference between primary and secondary?

In a severe case, how can it lead to death?

A

Accumulation of excessive quantities of gas (CH4 and CO2)

Caused by impairment of normal eructation causing distention of the rumen

Primary- frothy bloat
Gas is dispersed as small bubbles in ruminal fluid so cannot escape with eructation

Secondary- free gas
Less common, due to physical obstruction of oesophagus/pharynx or vagal indigestion

46
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of primary ruminal tympany

A
  • Access to lush pasture
  • Lowers rumen pH (5.4)
  • Mucolytic bacteria lead to decreased salivary function, lush pasture increases levels of soluble protein
  • Both lead to decreased surface tension and increased surface viscosity
  • Produces a stable foam
47
Q

What disease can be caused by an abrupt change of diet, mainly seen in high production beef and dairy cattle

A

Ruminal acidosis

can lead to

Rumenitis

can lead to

Ulcers

48
Q

Describe how rumen acidosis (lactic acidosis) can occur

What is the prognosis?

A
  • Ingestion of highly fermentable carbohydrate- overgrowth of gram +ve bacteria- streptococcus bovis, lactobacillus
  • This leads to increased lactic acid production and volatile fatty acids
  • Increases lactic acids cause increased osmolarity and decreased pH
  • Increased volatile fatty acids lead to cessation of rumination- atony
  • Increased osmolarity leads to sequestration of fluid- osmotic diarrhoea- dehydration
  • Decreased pH leads to ruminitis, endotoxaemia and therefore metabolic acidosis

Prognosis- death 25-90% when pH <4.5

49
Q

What does this image of the rumen show?

What is the most likely cause?

What sequelae can come from this?

A

Rumen- rumenitis and ulcers

Cause-

lactic acidosis causes chemical rumenitis allowing for secondary infection

Rumenitis sequelae-
Bacterial entry to portal circulation- Leads to hepatic abscesses
Caudal vena cava- embolic pneumonia- cor pulmonae, caudal vena cava syndrome

50
Q

What causes traumatic reticulitis in cattle?

What is the sequelae?

A

Due to swallowing of acute foreign material- nails

Foreign body perforates reticulum

Sequelae- chronic peritonitis/pericarditis

51
Q

What are the different regions of the stomach?

What cells in the stomach produce: gastric acid, pepsinogen?

A

Fundus parietal cells- produce gastric acid

Chief cells- produce pepsinogen

52
Q

What species are affected by gastric dilation and volvulus?

Describe the pathogenesis?

What predisposes to the disease?

What are the sequelae?

A

Species- dogs, horses, humans, pigs

Path-
Dilation- due to aerophagia and food/fluid, stomach rotates its long axis
Volvulus- 360 degrees, results in displacements, pylorus and terminal duodenum compressed between oesophagus and stomach, spleen moves

Predisposing
Dogs- deep-chested breeds- great dane, st bernard etc
Increased laxity of hepatogastric ligament, diet of small food particles

Sequelae
Gastric haemorrhagic infarction
Decreased venous return, decreased cardiac output, arterial hypotension, decreased renal function- shock

53
Q

What cows are more commonly affected by abomasal displacement?

Where does it displace to?

What disease is often associated?

What are the sequelae?

A

Older dairy cows- time of parturition

Displacement to the anterior abdomen, usually ventrally left, sometimes right

Often with ketosis, hypocalcemia, metritis, retained placenta

Sequalae- haemorrhagic infarction, abomasal volvulus

54
Q

What parasites can be found in a horse’s stomach?

Describe the pathogenesis and sequelae

A

Gastrophilus spp larvae (bot flies)

  • Ova are deposited on hair and hatch spontaneously after licking and ingestion
  • First stage larvae penetrate oral mucosa, moult and emerge to migrate down the alimentary tract
  • Attach to squamous mucosa and induce erisions
55
Q

What parasites can be found in ruminants’ stomachs?

What do they cause?

A

Sheep- haemonchus contortus, telodorsagia circumcinta
Cattle- ostertagia ostertagi

Blood sucking parasites-
Inflammation, erosions, ulcers, anaemia, cachexia, hypoproteinaemic oedema

56
Q

What is allotiophagia?

What causes it?

A

The desire to consume inappropriate material

  • Encephalitis- rabies
  • Starvation
  • Boredom
57
Q
What are (zoo)trichobezoars?
What can they lead to?

What are gastroliths seen in?
Why?

A

(Zoo)trichobezoars- impacted hair balls in abomasum of calves/stomach of angora rabbits
Can lead to rupture

Gastroliths- seen in horses, birds and reptiles
Stomach/gizzard stones- retained in gizzard and used to grind food

58
Q

How does acute catarrhal gastritis appear?

What is the aetiology?

A

Increased reddening and thickening of the entire surface/parts of mucosa and increased mucosa production

Aetiology-
Poisons, infectious diseases, parasites

59
Q

What does this image show?

What are the DDXs?

A

Acute haemorrhagic gastritis

DDXs

  • Poisons
  • Infectious diseases
  • NSAIDs
  • Braxy- sheep in cold climates, due to clostridium septicum enterotoxin
    severe oedema and emphysema in submucosa, haemorrhage/venous thrombosis
60
Q

Describe the pathology of uraemic gastritis?

A
  • Chronic renal failure leads to the excretion of a high concentration of ammonium in saliva and gastric juice
  • Causes coagulative necrosis, haemorrhage, neutrophil inflammation, mineralisation
  • Leading to endothelial damage and necrosis- thrombosis and then infarction
61
Q

What is associated with fibrino-necrotising gastritis?

What is the aetiology?

A

Associated with mucosal destruction

Aet- Mycotic infection

62
Q

When are gastric ulcers seen?

Different species have different aetiologies- wow!

What are the common locations and aetiologies in the following species?:

  • Cattle
  • Swine
  • Foals/horses
  • Dogs/cats

What are the outcomes?

A

Seen with erosive/ulcerative gastritis

Cattle- mainly calves
Mainly pylorus, associated with the environment

Swine- no you are!
In squamous epithelium, associated with hyperacidity, fine ground grain diet, stress

Foals/horses
mainly in the non-glandular portion, associated with gastrophillus larvae

Dogs/cats- plyorus/prox duodenum- mast cell tumours

Outcome-
Haemorrhage- vascular erosion- anaemia
Perforation leads to peritonitis

63
Q

What species is gastric rupture most common?

What usually causes it, and what rarely does?

Where does rupture most commonly occur in the stomach?

What follows within a few hours?

How is an intravitral rupture identified?

A

Most common in horses

Usually due to dilation- rarely trauma

Along greater curvature- serosal tear > muscularis > mucosa

Death within a few hours- intoxication and shock

Id of intravital rupture
Irregular borders
Haemorrhage
Ingesta particles in omentum and close to rupture

64
Q

What can cause gastric dilation in horses and result in rupture?

A

Primary-
after consumption of excess fermentable carbohydrates, sudden access to lush pasture and excessive intake of water

Secondary-
Sequel to obstruction of the SI or colic with ileus- grass sickness

Idiopathic

65
Q

What are the main primary and secondary gastric neoplasms?

A

Primary-

  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Adenoma/benign adenomatous polyps
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Lymphosarcoma
  • Leiomyoma/Leiomyosarcoma
  • Carcinoids

Secondary-

  • Lymphosarcoma
  • Mast cell tumour
  • Metastatic from pancreas and liver
66
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm in dogs?

Where does it derive from?

Where is it commonly found?

What are the characteristics of its growth and development?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Arising from the epithelium of glandular mucosa
Mostly in pyloric antrum along the lesser curvature

Characteristics-
Locally widespread growth
Invasive growth
Superficial ulceration
Metastases to regional lymph nodes, liver and lung

67
Q

Where does squamous cell carcinoma arise from?

What species are more commonly affected and why?

Does it metastasize?

A

Arises from squamous epithelium of cardia

Mostly in species with large proventricular area- horse, rat, pig

Invasive growth

Occasionally- lymphatic invasion, metastases

68
Q

Where do leimyoma/sarcoma arise from?

Where does lymphosarcoma arise from?

A

Leiomyoma- smooth muscle cells in tunica muscularis

Lymphosarcoma- lymphoid tissue

Primary or secondary

Primary in cats