GI Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bouveret syndrome?

A

Due to impaction of gallstone at level of pylorus or proximities duodenum.

Obstruction at level of proximal duodenum with resultant gastric outlet obstruction

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2
Q

What are features of malignancy in side branch and main duct IPMNs?

A
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3
Q

What are the CT features of pancreatic serous cystadenoma?

What age are patient usually?

A

Older patient in 70’s

Multicystic mass in the pancreatic head ‘bunch of grapes’

Central scar present with cysts around it. Calcification can be present

  • Individual cysts usually <2cm
  • At least x6 cysts usually

NO visible communication between cysts and pancreatic duct

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4
Q

What are features of a MUCINOUS cystadenoma of the pancreas?

What age group and sex?

A

Classically middle aged women in 40’s

Cystic tumour favouring pancreatic tail

Individual cysts usually >2cm

IF left long enough will transform into mucinour cystADENOcarcinoma

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5
Q

What are features of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

Does it enhance on CT?

What features define it inoperable?

A

Poorly enhancing mass

Low survical rate

Most are unresectable at diagnosis (90%)

Tumour markers CEA and CA 19-9

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6
Q

What features are more suggestive of gastric carcinoma over gastric lymphoma?

Which crosses the pylorus?

A

Gastric carcinoma will usually cause Gastric outlet obstruction

-extension beyond serosa and focal mass are more suggestive

Gastric Lymphoma DOESNT cause gastric outlet obstrction

-Commonly crosses the pylorus

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7
Q

Pancreatic tail tumour with thick capsule and progressive fill in of solid components in a young Asian woman

What is diagnosis?

A

Solid pseudopapillary tumour

Low grade malignant tumour

Occurs in young female Black/Asian women

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8
Q

Pear shaped bladder, elevated sigmoid colon and straightening of rectum in middle aged person barium enema

What is diagnosis?

A

Think pelvic lipomatosis - overgrowth of fat cells in the pelvis

Typical in young to middle aged adults

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9
Q

Causes of infective colitis according to site?

What causes right sided colitis?

A
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10
Q

Hernia locations

A
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11
Q

What are 5 differentials for low attenuation ENLARGED mesenteric lymph nodes?

A
  1. TB
  2. Coeliac
  3. Necrotic mets

4.

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12
Q

What causes cavitating mesenteric lymph node syndrome?

A

Coeliac disease

Seen in patients who arent compliant with gluten free diet

-chronic inflammation of duodenum/jejunum and draining LN

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13
Q

What is the appearance of Zenker diverticulum on barium swallow?

Where is it located

A

Posterior outpouching of oesophagus at level of C5-6

Arise from Killians Dehiscence

(Different from Killian Jamieson diverticulum)

-this is left sided outpouching just below the cricopharyngeus muscle

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14
Q

What part of the bowel does Typhilitis predominantely effect?

A

Caecum - cacael wall thickening and oedema

Typically in immunocompromised patients undergoing chemotherapy (commonly induction chemo pre bone transplant)

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15
Q

Where does abdominal TB mostly affect?

How to differentiate from Crohns?

A

Ileocaecal juntion - thickening of valve with narrowing of terminal ileum

-skip lesions also present like crohns

In over 50% of cases - abdominal TB will present with ascites (good differentiator for Crohns)

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16
Q

True cyst vs false cyst features?

A

True cysts have epithelial lining - false ones dont

False cysts can be seen in Spleen after trauma and represent result of haematoma or infarction

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17
Q

Name differentials for widening of presacral space?

A
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18
Q

What are the rules for Meckels diverticulum?

A

Located in the distal ileum

Lumen is wide than that of ileum

Can cause:

  • obstruction
  • haemorrhage
  • diverticulitis

The ‘rule of 2s’ is a useful aide-mémoire

2% of the population

2:1 male: female ratio

2 feet from the ileocaecal valve

2 inches in length

2 types of common ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic)

2 years most common age at clinical presentation

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19
Q

Where are pre aortic lymph nodes located and what are they?

A

Located anterior to aorta around origins of coeliac, SMA and IMA

Drain:

  • GI tract
  • Liver, spleen and pancreas
    1. Coeliac
    2. SMA
    3. IMA
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20
Q

Autoimmune pancreatitis features?

A

Part of the IGg4 related disease

-Diffusely enlarged ‘Sausage shaped’ pancreas

-Some pancreatic duct dilatation may be present due to stricturing

-Enhancement might be delayed due to fibrosis

Reposonsive to steroids

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21
Q

Portosystemic anastomosis and their conditions

Haemorrhoids?

Oesophageal Varices?

Capud medusae?

A
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22
Q

What is pseudomyxoma peritoneii?

A

Where rupture of an appendix mucocele (usually) results in filling of peritoneal cavity with mucinous fluid.

Scalloping of the liver by solid fluid density masses is typical

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23
Q

Where is dentate line?

Lymph node drainage above and below dentate line is to which lymph nodes?

A

Dentate line divides the upper 2/3 from lower 1/3 of anal canal

Above line = drainge is to internal iliac lymph nodes

Below line = drainage to superficial inguinal lymph nodes

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24
Q

Summary of polyposis syndromes

A
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25
Q

What are CT features of GIST tumours?

A

70% occur in stomach

Small percentage can occur in small bowel

-Dysphaga and early satiety due to mucosal ulceration/haemorrhage

Tend to enlarge extraluminally into lesser sac or gastrohepatic or gastrosplenic ligaments

Can be expohytic with necrotic centre

Lymph node enlargement is NOT A FEATURE

Tend to have CENTRAL NECROSIS

Associated with Carneys Triad and NF1

  • Pulmonary chondromas
  • -Extra-adrenal pheo*
  • -GIST*
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26
Q

What TMN classification does spread beyond the mesorectal fascia?

A

Rectal cancer staging

T4

MRI is excellent for local staging of rectal cancer because the mesorectal fascia is seen clearly as a thin black line on T2 weighted sequences and its involvement or lack thereof can be readily discerned. In contrast, the tumour appears as intermediate signal on T2, distorting the normal anatomy.

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27
Q

Cystic duct insertion variations?

Which is normal insertion?

What is most common anomaly?

A

Normal cystic duct insertion is within middle third of extrahepatic duct (75%)

-Most common variation is middle third posterior insertion (20%)

-followed by low medial insertion (5%)

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28
Q

Name 5 features of haemochromatosis?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Liver cirrhosis
  3. Hook like osteophytes on the radial aspect of metacarpal heads
  4. Chondrocalcinosis
  5. Congestive cardiac failure
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29
Q

What is most common rectal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma in 98% cases

If returns as squamous then HPV is usually underlying diagnosis (can be anal also)

  • Once cancer breaches the serosa and involves mesorectal fact (within fascia) it is T3*
  • If it breaches mesorectal fascia it is T4*

Treatment

Treatment depends on invasion and position relative to the anal verge

  • High rectal tumours - low anterior resection and will maintain continence*
  • Low rectal tumours - treated with abdominoperineal resection and will end up with colostomy*
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30
Q

What is cowdens syndrome?

COWS BUTT

A

Multiple hamartoma syndrome

Multiple hamartomas in the body, particulary in small, large bowel.

Assc with breast, uterine and thyroid cancer

Autosomal dominant

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31
Q

What is Turcot syndrome?

A

Glioblastoma and multiple colonic polyps are features

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32
Q

What is McKittrick-Wheelock syndrome?

A

Seen in old women

Villous adenoma causes diarrhoea and resultant:

  • low chloride
  • low sodium
  • low potassium
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33
Q

What are appearances of carcinoid?

A

Low grade and slow growing

Starburst appearance of mesenteric mass with calcifications

Most commonly arises in appendix or distal ileum however may not be able to see mass.

Metastases will appear as a large mesenteric mass containing flecks of calcification

Liver mets appear hypervascular

Systemic serotonin degrades heart valves on right side (commonly causing tricuspid regurg)

MIBG or Octreotide scans for diagnosis

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34
Q

Where does TB of the GI tract usually arise?

A

Most commonly affects ileocaecal junction with thickening of the ileocaecal valve and narrowing of terminal ileum

Over half of cases will have ascites

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35
Q

Cause of colitis depending on distribution?

What causes right sided colitis?

What causes left sided?

A

Right sided = Salmonella or shigella

Left sided = Schistosomiasis

Rectosigmoid = Gonorrhoea, herpes, chlamydia

Diffuse = CMV and e coli

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36
Q

Barium apperances of small bowel differentials

A
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37
Q

What is Menetrier Disease?

A

Triad of:

Glandular hypertrophy

Achlorhydia (stomach doesnt produce HCL)

Hypoproteinaemia (low albumin)

-Swollen ankles

-Low albumin

-Distended stomach

-SPARING OF ANTRUM (in contrast to lymphoma which involves antrum)

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38
Q

What are differentials for hepatic capsular retraction?

A
  • Cholangiocarcinoma
  • Fibrolamella HCC
  • Metastases
  • IgG4 disease
  • Cirrhosis
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39
Q

Differentials for polyposis syndromes

A
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40
Q

Types of perianal fistulae?

Which is most common?

A

Intersphinteric is most common = does not cross external sphincter, remains medial to it

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41
Q

What are mesenteric desmoid tumours?

How do they appear?

What are they assocaited with?

A

Should be thought of in differential of mesenteric mass

Benign fibrous lesions (Low on MRI)

  • Develop at root or small bowel mesentery, large and well defined
  • Isodense to muscle on CT

Associated with FAP

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42
Q

What is seen on barrets at barium?

A

Hiatus hernia with a high stricture

Has potential to transform into Adenocarcinoma

43
Q

What happends in fundoplication?

What are complications?

A

Gastric fundus is wrapped around the lower end of oeseophagus = reenforces lower oesophageal sphincter

Early complication = obstruction

Signs of failure

Reflux or hiatus hernia (these were reasons it was done in first place)

How to tell if a fundoplication has slipped?

Slippaged of oesophagus back towards chest. Lower oesophagus above wrap will be >2cm.

44
Q

What is origin or uphill vs downhill varices?

A

Uphill = caused by SVC obstruction

Downhill = due to portal hypertension

45
Q

Where does Zenker diverticulum arise?

A

Arises at the hypopharynx posteriorly

Site of weakness = Killians dehiscence

46
Q

Where does Killian jameson diverticulum arise?

A

Cervical oesophagus

Anterior and lateral

A weakness through an area below the attachement of cricopharyngeus muscle

47
Q

What are epiphrenic diverticula?

A

Diverticula arising from the distal oesophagus

Usually right sided

  • Considered pulsion type (tend not to empty due to lack of muscle)*
  • Are associated with oesophageal dysmotility*
  • Can be assocaited with paraoesophageal hernia*
48
Q

What is traction diverticula?

A

Mid oesophageal diverticula

Usually due to scarring (granulomatous disease, TB, pulmonary scarring, fibrosis)

Considered Traction diverticula (triangular in shape and will empty)

49
Q

What is oesophageal pseudodiverticulosis?

What age group?

A

Usually older aged 50 - 70 years

  • Multiple small outpouchings of the oesophagus due to submucosal gland dilatation*
  • Can be seen with Oesophageal strictures and GORD*
50
Q

What does an oedophageal web look like?

A

A thin mucosal membrane projecting into the lumen

  • Cervical oesophagus near cricopharyngeus*
  • Assocated with Plummer vinson syndrome*
  • Usually asymptommatic*
  • If stenosis is severe = can cause regurg etc*
51
Q

What is Dysphagai lusoria?

A

Problems swallowing due to compression from abberant right subclavian artery

(Most patients with abberant right subclav don’t have symptoms)

52
Q

Where do the tumours of HNPCC tend to occur?

A

Tend to occur in right side of colon and are solitary

It is associated with other cancers:

-Endometrial

53
Q

What is Gardner syndrome?

What are features?

A
    1. FAP*
    1. Desmoid Tumours*
    1. Osteomas*
    1. Papillary thyroid cancer*
54
Q

What is Turcot syndrome?

A

A polyposis syndrome

Intestinal polyposis with increased risk of glioblastomas and medulloblastomas

55
Q

Peutz jeghers vs Cowden

A

Peutz-Jeghers

Multiple hamartomas

Mucocutaneous pigmentation

Ass with small and large bowel cancers, pancreatic cancer, gynae cancers

Cowden Syndrome

Multiple hamartomas

Assc with Breast ca, Thyroid Ca,

Trichilemmomas (benign tumours of hair follicles)

56
Q

Most common stomach tumour?

A

Adenocarcinoma >95%

Lymphoma <5%

Metastatic spread to the ovary is known as Krukenberg Tumour

  • GIST is usually exophytic*
  • Adenocarcinoma is large, ulcerated heterogenous mass*
57
Q

Name different mets to the stomach

What are origins?

A

Mets to stomach are rare

Melanoma is most common

-multiple button like soft tissue nodules

Breast and Lung mets

Can give appearance of Linitis plastica

Stomach looks diffusely thickened with narrowing of the lumen

  • Lymphoma of stomach can appear similar*
  • -common primary stomach tumour giving linitis plastica appearance is a scirrhous adenocarcinoma*
58
Q

Gastric vs Duodenal ulcers

Commonest cause of each?

A

Gastric = aspirin

Duodenal = zollinger ellison

59
Q

Name 4 types of small bowel cancer?

CALM

A
  1. Adenocarcinoma (most common proximal small bowel mass. Celiac puts at increased risk. Focal circumferential bowel thickening)
  2. Lymphoma - can appear as anything. DO NOT obstruct
  3. Carcinoid - distal ileum or appendix
  4. Mets - typically Melanoma (breast, lung and kaposi sarcoma are other causes)
60
Q

Where are common sites that Crohns effects in stomach and small bowel?

A

Stomach

Affects Antrum

Duodenal involvement is RARE

Small bowel

Terminal ileum is ALWAYS involved IF there is small bowel involvement

Large Bowel

Usually right sided involvement

Tends to spare the rectum and sigmoid

PEARLS

  • Enlarged lymph nodes are seen in Crohns
  • UC does NOT tend to have associated enlargement of LN - if you see this in a patient with longstanding UC think possible Cancer

UC involves rectum 95% of the time and spreads retrogradely

61
Q

What is colonic pseudoobstruction?

Who is it seen in?

A

Dilatation of the large bowel without a focal transition point

Seen in patients after a serious medical conditions and in nursing home patients

62
Q

What is entamoeba histolytica?

A

Parasitic infection causing Amoebic abscess in other words

  • -causes bloody diarrhoea and is a cause of toxic megacolon*
  • -appear as ‘flask shaped’ ulcers on endoscopy*
  • -can cause liver and brain abscesses (can persist up to 2 years)*

Spares terminal ileum

63
Q

Colonic adenocarcinoma

What are presenting features according to site?

A

Cancers on the right side tend to bleed

Cancers on the left side tend to obstruct (apple core stricture)

  • -intussuception in large bowel in adult is cancer until oroven otherwise*
  • -anal cancers can be SCC*
64
Q

What is McKittrick wheelock?

A

Villous adenoma in the bowel that causes mucinous diarrhoea leading to severe eletrolyte and fluid depletion

Most commonly seen in the rectum

65
Q

Peritoneal carcinomatosis vs omental caking

Where are positions of each?

A

Peritoneal carcinomatosis targets areas where ascites will flow therefore behind the bladder (rectovesical) is most common

Omentum becomes thick in omental caking and can cause appearance of displacing bowel posteriorly

66
Q

How can you tell accessory spleen from an enlarged lymph node?

A

Sulphur colloid scan

67
Q

What is Peliosis?

A

Rare beign vascular condition

Multiple blood filled spaces in the liver and spleen

Low T1

High T2

Enhancement

Thought to be assc with OCP in women & men on anabolic steroids

Also seen in:

  • AIDS
  • Renal transplant patients
68
Q

Common splenic cystic masses

Name 4

(Below is Hydatid)

A

Post traumatic cysts

Occurs secondary to infarction, infection, haemorrhage or trauma

Most common cyst

(No epithelial lining therefore ‘pseudocysts)

Epidermoid Cysts

Second most common

Have epithelial lining

Large and slow growing - are usually around 10cm

Can have wall calcification

Hydatid or Echinococcal cysts

Caused by Echinococcus

Usually consist of a spherical ‘mother cyst’ containing smaller daughter cysts

When there is detachment of the cyst membran - it is seen as floating within other cysts Water lily sign

69
Q

Name 3 malignant masses of the spleen?

LAM

A

Most splenic masses are BENIGN

1. Lymphoma

Most common malignant tumour of spleen

Splenomegaly can be the only finding

Both hodgkin and non type can affect spleen

Hodgkins type may show some nodules of tumour

2. Angiosarcoma

Aggressive mass

Poor prognosis

  • Heterogenous low density mass. Can have central necrosis and can erupt*
  • Low T1/T2*

3. Mets

Rare

lung/breast/melanoma

70
Q

Dorsal pancreatic agenesis vs Lipomatosis

A

In pancreatic lipomatosis (most common cause is CF) - the whole gland is affected by fatty infiltration

-pancreatic duct WILL be present

Dorsal pancreatic agenesis

Pancreatic duct won’t be present

71
Q

What are features of eosinophilic gastroenteritis?

A

Relapsing remitting condition

Eosinophilic infiltration of stomach wall

  • usually only involves the antrum
  • -polyps and ulcers can be features*
  • -rugal enlargement*
  • -diarrhoea*
72
Q

What is oesophageal leiomyoma?

A

Seen in young patients

Lesions that arise in mid to distal oesophagus

Calcify

Benign lesion therefore no shouldering

73
Q

What areas are most affected by angiodysplasia?

A

Caecum and ascending colon

74
Q

What features help differentiate sigmoid volvulus vs caecal?

A

Ahaustral pattern in sigmoid volvulus

75
Q

Epiploic appendagitis vs omental infarct

How to differentiate?

A
76
Q

What cancer to think of when you seen FAP?

A

Periampullary carcinoma

FAP patients will have had a prophylactic colectomy when younger

77
Q

How to differentiate pseudoachalasia vs achalasia?

A

Pseudoachalasia is presence of a tumour giving appearance of achalasia

Achalasia will eventually relax LOS (pseudo wont)

78
Q

What is Cronkhite Canada syndrome?

A

Multiple hamartomatous polyps assc with alopecia and nail changes

Usually patient will be in 60’s

79
Q

What is Scwachman Diamond syndrome?

Tom Diamond - stature and pancreas

A

Second most common cause of Pancreatic lipomatosis

Other features:

  • short stature
  • metaphyseal chondroplasia
  • eczema
80
Q

Thickened small bowel folds

LMC-Whipp

A
  1. Lymphoma
  2. Mastocytosis (nodular)
  3. Crohns (nodular)
  4. Whipples (sand like)
81
Q

Blood supply to pancreas?

A

Head: super and inf pancreaticoduodenal

Body: pancreatic branches of splenic artery

Drainage: Splenic vein

82
Q

Anterior indentation of trachea

What causes this?

A

Double aortic arch

83
Q

Anterior indentation of the Oesophagus

What causes?

A

Abberant left pulmonary artery

It is the only vascular anomaly to run between the oesophagus and trachea

84
Q

What are the only oesophageal lesions that calcify?

A

Leiomyomas

85
Q

Most common oesophageal cancer types?

A

Squamous (most common) - middle and lower thirds

Adenocarcinoma - due to Barretts

86
Q

Umbilicated mass in the stomach

What is it?

A

Ectopic pancreas

UMBILICATED is key word

87
Q

What are Ladds bands?

What do they cause?

A

Fibrous bands connecting abnormally placed caecum (due to malrotation) to the liver

Results in duodenal obstruction

88
Q

What is a GI cause of pulm artery aneurysms?

A

Bechets Disease

Oral and genital ulceration

Can also affect GI tract and look like CROHNS

-ileocaecal valve involvement

89
Q

Which side is omental infarct most commonly seen?

A

ROI

Right sided omental infarct

90
Q

What ultrasound appearance is suggestive of an appendix mucocele?

A

Onion skin layering within a cystic mass is seen on US

91
Q

What is colitis cystica?

A

Cystic dilatation of mucous glands

Can be Superficial - small cysts throughout colon. Assc with vit def, tropical sprue, leukaemia.

or

Profunda - cysts in rectum and sigmoid which are large

92
Q

Features of entamoeba histolytica (Amoebiasis)?

A

Parasite that causes:

-blood diarrhoea

-abscesses in liver/spleen/brain

  • Affects CAECUM and ASCENDING COLON*
  • -cone shaped caecum*
  • -flask shaped ulcers*
  • -can cause MEGAcolon*

Spares the terminal ileum

93
Q

Features of colonic TB?

A

Involves terminal ileum

  • Gaping ileocaecal valve (Fleischner sign)
  • Narrowing of terminal ileum (Stierlin sign)
94
Q

Best MRI sequence for looking at perianal fistula?

A

T1 post contrast

95
Q

Commonest place for ectopic gallbladder?

A
  1. Under left hepatic lobe
  2. Intrahepatic
96
Q

LOCAL staging of oesopageal cancer?

A

Endoscopic US

97
Q

Features of benign gastric ulcer?

A

Protrudes beyond stomach

  • Deep
  • Round
  • Symmetric
98
Q

Commonest type of gastric polyps

A

Hyperplastic polyps

99
Q

Boozer with linear streaks and dots on barium in stomach

A

Erosive gastropathy

100
Q

Rules for reduction of intussuception?

Rule of 3’s

A

Max 3 attempts for 3 minutes with 3 mins between attempts.

Pressure approx 120mmHg

Bursing pressure approx 200

101
Q

Commonest site for Carcinoid?

A

Ileum

102
Q

Splenic Injury

A
103
Q

TB in small bowel

What are apperances of ulcers?

A

Shallow linear with elevated margins

104
Q

Cuases of featureless stomach vs thickened folds?

A

Featureless = atrophic gastritis. B12 def

Thickened folds = Mentriers, Eosinophilic gastritis, Infectious gastritis