GI 5 practice Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What occurs in 20-45% US population?
a) Alcoholic liver disease
b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
c) Hepatitis A
d) Cirrhosis of the liver
e) Acute (secondary) peritonitis

A

b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)

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2
Q

Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis in the U.S. is what?

A

Hep A

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3
Q

Which form of hepatitis can be most easily vertically transmitted (rate of infection = 90%)?

A

Hep D

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4
Q

RUQ tenderness & mild hepatomegaly are found on PE in 85% of patients with what?

A

Hep A

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5
Q

Who is most likely to have a worse outcome with Hepatitis B (such as HCC)?
a) An 85 year old man
b) A 25 year old with chronic illnesses
c) A toddler
d) A newborn baby

A

d) A newborn baby

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6
Q

A patient has had positive _________ results for over 6 months, so they have a chronic Hep B infection.

A

HBsAg

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7
Q

A patient has a positive HBsAg & negative HBcAb. What does this mean?

A

Recovering from acute infection or presence of chronic infection

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8
Q

Which of the following would mean you have a low risk of contracting Hep C?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Accidental needlestick
c) Multiple sexual partners
d) Men who have sex with men

A

b) Accidental needlestick

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9
Q

What is the most common symptom of Hep C?
a) Dermatologic conditions
b) Autoimmune disorders
c) Renal disorders
d) Asymptomatic

A

d) Asymptomatic

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10
Q

How long is treatment for Hep B and Hep C?

A

12 weeks

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11
Q

Formation of regenerative nodules, digital clubbing, & thrombocytopenia are characteristic of what?
a) Alcoholic liver disease
b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
c) Cirrhosis of the liver
d) Hepatitis A
e) Acute (secondary) peritonitis

A

c) Cirrhosis of the liver

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12
Q

Patients with hepatic encephalopathy should not do what? Select all that apply
a) Run
b) Drive
c) Fast
d) Eat

A

b) Drive
c) Fast

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13
Q

What is the diagnostic study of choice for fulminant hepatic failure?
a) Ultrasound with doppler
b) CT with IV and PO contrast
c) CT without contrast
d) MRI

A

a) Ultrasound with doppler

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14
Q

What is the only way to truly get rid of ascites?
a) Diuretics & sodium restriction (< 2G/day)
b) Therapeutic paracentesis
c) Beta blockers
d) TIPS

A

d) TIPS

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15
Q

Guarding, rigidity, distention, and rebound pain, are all Sx of what?

A

Acute peritonitis

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16
Q

What are the Child-Pugh and MELD scores for?

A

Determining the severity of liver damage and how much a cirrhosis pt needs a liver transplant

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17
Q

How is SBP (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) diagnosed? What is the most common organism(s) found?

A

Paracentesis; E. coli

18
Q

Which of the following may cause hepatorenal syndrome?
a) Ascites due to severe portal HTN in cirrhosis
b) Compensated cirrhosis
c) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
d) Alcoholic liver disease

A

a) Ascites due to severe portal HTN in cirrhosis

19
Q

How do you detect pneumoperitoneum with acute (secondary) peritonitis?
a) Ultrasound with doppler
b) CT with IV and PO contrast
c) CT without contrast
d) MRI

A

b) CT with IV and PO contrast

20
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome presents with which of the following? Select all that apply
a) Progressive rise in serum creatinine
b) Progressive fall in serum creatinine
c) Prolific proteinurea
d) Minimal proteinuria
e) Polyurea (depending on severity)
f) Oligurea (depending on severity)

A

a) Progressive rise in serum creatinine
c) Prolific proteinurea
f) Oligurea (depending on severity)

21
Q

Which are common causes of cirrhosis? Select all that apply
a) Alcohol
b) Hep A
c) Hep B
d) Hep C

A

a) Alcohol
c) Hep B
d) Hep C

22
Q

A 15 year old patient presents with an INR of 2.0, T bili of 15 (<18; low) encephalopathy, and impaired synthetic function. Their ALT & AST are >10X ULN. They’ve previously been perfectly healthy.

What do they likely have, and what is their prognosis?

A

Fulminant hepatic failure; good prognosis

23
Q

Jaundice usually presents with bilirubin ≥ ____ mg/dL

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
a) Increased bilirubin production
b) Decreased hepatic uptake
c) Impaired conjugation
d) Biliary obstruction (extra-hepatic)

A

d) Biliary obstruction (extra-hepatic)

25
What is the only instance where steroids are helpful for hepatitis?
Methylprednisolone x 1 month in alcoholic hepatitis may reduce short-term mortality
26
Porphyria is a symptom of which curable form of hepatitis?
Hep C
27
A patient has HCV Ab but undetectable HCV RNA. What does this mean?
Prior Hep C infection; not immune
28
T/F: For cirrhosis, you should have a high index of suspicion/low threshold early antibiotics for Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
True
29
T/F: Steroids are usually appropriate for alcoholic liver disease
False (only with severe disease)
30
T/F: HCV Ab is not protective, but it will remain positive after a patient has been treated
True
31
T/F: Hepatorenal syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion
True
32
T/F: Patients with advanced parenchymal liver disease will respond to exogenous vit K
False (they will NOT respond bc the liver is also not manufacturing other proteins/factors needed to reverse the anticoagulopathy)
33
T/F: Liver disease patients can have complications with both coagulation and anticoagulation
True
34
T/F: Decreased platelet sequestration in the spleen can contribute to clotting issues with cirrhosis
False (Increased platelet sequestration)
35
T/F: Insulin resistance is the primary mechanism of MAFLD
True
36
T/F: Coffee consumption increases risk of MAFLD
False
37
T/F: You need to administer a vaccine within 24 hrs of birth to prevent the development of Hep B in an infant
True
38
T/F: The only definitive Tx of decompensated cirrhosis is liver transplant
True
39
T/F: A MELD score of 15 does not qualify you for a liver transplant
False (it does)
40
T/F: Acetaminophen is most commonly associated with fulminant hepatic failure
True