GI 5 practice Flashcards
(40 cards)
What occurs in 20-45% US population?
a) Alcoholic liver disease
b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
c) Hepatitis A
d) Cirrhosis of the liver
e) Acute (secondary) peritonitis
b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis in the U.S. is what?
Hep A
Which form of hepatitis can be most easily vertically transmitted (rate of infection = 90%)?
Hep D
RUQ tenderness & mild hepatomegaly are found on PE in 85% of patients with what?
Hep A
Who is most likely to have a worse outcome with Hepatitis B (such as HCC)?
a) An 85 year old man
b) A 25 year old with chronic illnesses
c) A toddler
d) A newborn baby
d) A newborn baby
A patient has had positive _________ results for over 6 months, so they have a chronic Hep B infection.
HBsAg
A patient has a positive HBsAg & negative HBcAb. What does this mean?
Recovering from acute infection or presence of chronic infection
Which of the following would mean you have a low risk of contracting Hep C?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Accidental needlestick
c) Multiple sexual partners
d) Men who have sex with men
b) Accidental needlestick
What is the most common symptom of Hep C?
a) Dermatologic conditions
b) Autoimmune disorders
c) Renal disorders
d) Asymptomatic
d) Asymptomatic
How long is treatment for Hep B and Hep C?
12 weeks
Formation of regenerative nodules, digital clubbing, & thrombocytopenia are characteristic of what?
a) Alcoholic liver disease
b) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
c) Cirrhosis of the liver
d) Hepatitis A
e) Acute (secondary) peritonitis
c) Cirrhosis of the liver
Patients with hepatic encephalopathy should not do what? Select all that apply
a) Run
b) Drive
c) Fast
d) Eat
b) Drive
c) Fast
What is the diagnostic study of choice for fulminant hepatic failure?
a) Ultrasound with doppler
b) CT with IV and PO contrast
c) CT without contrast
d) MRI
a) Ultrasound with doppler
What is the only way to truly get rid of ascites?
a) Diuretics & sodium restriction (< 2G/day)
b) Therapeutic paracentesis
c) Beta blockers
d) TIPS
d) TIPS
Guarding, rigidity, distention, and rebound pain, are all Sx of what?
Acute peritonitis
What are the Child-Pugh and MELD scores for?
Determining the severity of liver damage and how much a cirrhosis pt needs a liver transplant
How is SBP (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) diagnosed? What is the most common organism(s) found?
Paracentesis; E. coli
Which of the following may cause hepatorenal syndrome?
a) Ascites due to severe portal HTN in cirrhosis
b) Compensated cirrhosis
c) Metabolic Associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD)
d) Alcoholic liver disease
a) Ascites due to severe portal HTN in cirrhosis
How do you detect pneumoperitoneum with acute (secondary) peritonitis?
a) Ultrasound with doppler
b) CT with IV and PO contrast
c) CT without contrast
d) MRI
b) CT with IV and PO contrast
Hepatorenal syndrome presents with which of the following? Select all that apply
a) Progressive rise in serum creatinine
b) Progressive fall in serum creatinine
c) Prolific proteinurea
d) Minimal proteinuria
e) Polyurea (depending on severity)
f) Oligurea (depending on severity)
a) Progressive rise in serum creatinine
c) Prolific proteinurea
f) Oligurea (depending on severity)
Which are common causes of cirrhosis? Select all that apply
a) Alcohol
b) Hep A
c) Hep B
d) Hep C
a) Alcohol
c) Hep B
d) Hep C
A 15 year old patient presents with an INR of 2.0, T bili of 15 (<18; low) encephalopathy, and impaired synthetic function. Their ALT & AST are >10X ULN. They’ve previously been perfectly healthy.
What do they likely have, and what is their prognosis?
Fulminant hepatic failure; good prognosis
Jaundice usually presents with bilirubin ≥ ____ mg/dL
≥3
Which of the following is NOT a cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
a) Increased bilirubin production
b) Decreased hepatic uptake
c) Impaired conjugation
d) Biliary obstruction (extra-hepatic)
d) Biliary obstruction (extra-hepatic)