GI lecture 5 highlights Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

List 2 key parts of management of MAFLD

A

1) Abstinence from alcohol
2) Weight loss

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2
Q

List the management for MAFLD and AFLD (alcoholic fatty liver disease)

A

1) MAFLD: No pharmacologic agents. Improve risk factors.
2) AFLD: Steroids only with severe disease

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3
Q

What is the only time a steroid helps with hepatitis? Which steroid?

A

Methylprednisolone for alcoholic hepatitis

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4
Q

What are 2 ways Hep A is transmitted?

A

1) Fecal-oral route
2) Shellfish

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5
Q

RUQ tenderness & ________ hepatomegaly are found on PE in 85% of patients with Hep A

A

mild

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6
Q

Does Hep A lead to cirrhosis?

A

No (!!!)

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7
Q

How long does a Hep A infection last?

A

Subsides over 2-3 weeks with recovery by 9 weeks; NOT chronic

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8
Q

You can’t have Hep D without also having Hep _________

A

D

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9
Q

How is Hep B transmitted?

A

Transmitted by inoculation of infected blood, blood products or sexually, (MSM), vertical

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10
Q

Hep B: Vertical transmission from HBsAg+ mother; risk of chronic infection in child is ~_______%-
need vaccine w/in 24 hrs of birth to prevent*

A

~90%

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11
Q

Hep B is prevalent in _________, and in __________ drug users

A

MSM & IV

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12
Q

Hep B: ________ at infection is the principal determinant of clinical outcome

A

Age

(neonates have worse outcomes)

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13
Q

Hep B: ______% of chronic HBV infections progress to HCC

A

25%

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14
Q

Hep B: Estimated _________ worldwide with past or present infection; estimated _____________ chronic carriers worldwide

A

2 billion; 296 million

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15
Q

Approximately 70 percent of patients with acute hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection have _______________ or ____________ hepatitis

A

subclinical or anicteric

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16
Q

Hep B: ~____% adult acquired infections become chronically infected (90% perinatally infected and 20-50% 1-5 YO.)

A

~5%

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17
Q

Hep B: Acute liver failure in <1% with up to _____% mortality

A

60%

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18
Q

Hep B: Can it become chronic? What may it lead to?

A

May become chronic; can lead to cirrhosis

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19
Q

Hep B is chronic if ___________ is persisting > 6 months.

A

HBsAg

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20
Q

What appears after clearance of HBsAg & with vaccination?

A

anti-HBs (antibody to HBsAg):

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21
Q

IgM anti-HBc indicates __________ HBV infection

A

acute

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22
Q

Hep B: anti-HBc indicates prior infection _______ from vaccine

A

not

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23
Q

Hep B: What indicates viral replication and infectivity?

24
Q

Hep B: When should you get qualitative test to determine observation vs treatment?

25
Describe the structure of Hep B
26
Once you confirm an active Hep B infection, you should vax for _________
HAV
27
Acute Hep B: 1) What is the main gist of Tx? 2) There are measures to prevent infection in ____________________
1) Mainly supportive 2) exposed contacts
28
What are the odds of an adult pt with acute hep B getting a chronic hep B infection?
<5%
29
What is the main way to transmit hep C?
blood to blood
30
Hep C: 1) Up to ______% develop cirrhosis over 20-30 years. 2) Chronic disease occurs in ~______% 3) What is the main Sx?
1) 30% 2) 85% 3) Usually asymptomatic
31
List one of the main extrahepatic manifestations of Hep C
Renal disease (membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis)
32
Hep C: 1) Is it curable? 2) Detectable HCV Ab with ______________ HCV RNA suggests recovery from past infection
1) Yes, now curable 2) undetectable
33
Hep C: 1) HCV Ab is __________ protective (does ______ confer immunity,) 2) However, it will remain ____________ after a patient has been treated 3) Therefore in a treated/cured patient, a positive _______ is needed to know if the virus has relapsed, NOT a positive HCV A
1) not; not 2) positive 3) RNA
34
Hep C: 1) Positive HCV Ab indicates what? 2) How do you differentiate active vs past infection? 3) When is a Hep C infection considered chronic?
1) Active OR past infection NOT life-long immunity 2) Quantitative HCV RNA 3) If >6 months
35
What confirms an active Hep C infection?
Detectable HCV level over 6-month period
36
Main determinants for agent & duration of Hep C are what?
Treatment status (naïve vs experienced) & absence/presence of cirrhosis, genotype
37
Hep C: 1) There's a positive _________ even after cure from active infection. 2) Is antibody protective? 3) All ___________ screening for hepatitis C in patients who have been previously treated should be performed using ***HCV RNA (qualitative or quantitative).
1) HCV Ab 2) No 3) future
38
Cirrhosis of the liver: Represents late stage of progressive _______________ characterized by distortion of hepatic ____________ and formation of regenerative ____________
progressive fibrosis; architecture; nodules
39
Cirrhosis of the liver: 1) Name the other reason for this to occur besides cholestasis 2) Name one common cause in the US
1) Chronic hepatic inflammation 2) Metabolic associated steatohepatitis (MASH)
40
Metabolic associated steatohepatitis (MASH) is a common cause of what in developing countries?
Cirrhosis of the liver
41
Cirrhosis: 1) What are the 2 clinical classifications? 2) Which is asymptomatic? 3) Splenomegaly is a PE sign of what? 4) Name 1 lab abnormality
1) compensated vs decompensated 2) Compensated 3) Hepatic decompensation 4) Thrombocytopenia
42
Cirrhosis: What is a major part of preventing superimposed insults to liver in these pts?
Vaccination
43
Cirrhosis complications: 1) What are 2 a major ways to deal with ascites? 2) What do you have a high index of suspicion/low threshold early antibiotics for?
1) TIPS; < 2G sodium/day 2) SBP (Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis)
44
Non-portal hypertensive cirrhosis complications: 1) Build-up of ammonia (NH3) can occur with what? 2) What 2 things should pts with this condition NOT do?
1) Hepatic encephalopathy (HE) 2) Drive or fast
45
1) What is HCC? 2) Most forms of chronic hepatitis not at increased risk until cirrhosis develops (exception is _______________) 3) Elevated ________ is not specific for HCC since it can also be seen in patients with gonadal tumors, and pregnancy.
1) Primary liver tumor 2) chronic hepatitis B 3) AFP
46
Acute (secondary) peritonitis: 1) What are 4 Sxs of the initial injury? 2) What should you always do for these pts?
1) Guarding, rigidity, distention, rebound 2) Always consult a surgeon
47
Ascites complications: How is Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP) diagnosed?
Paracentesis
48
Definitive treatment for decompensated cirrhosis is what?
Liver transplant
49
List the 2 scores relevant to liver transplant
1) Model for End-stage Liver Disease (MELD) score 2) Childs-Pugh score
50
Fulminant (sudden onset) Hepatic Failure: Defined as severe acute liver injury with encephalopathy and impaired synthetic function (INR of ≥1.5) in a patient ***without ______________________ disease ***
pre-existing liver
51
What does NOT lead to chronic liver disease?
Fulminant (sudden onset) Hepatic Failure:
52
___________________ is most common toxin assoc w/FHF in U.S
Acetaminophen
53
What is often study of choice for FHF (b/c there's a risk of renal failure with IV contrasted CT)?
U/S with doppler
54
What are the 3 FHF diagnostic criteria?
1) Elevated aminotransferases (ALT & AST) (often with abnormal bilirubin & alkaline phosphatase) 2) Hepatic encephalopathy 3) Prolonged PT (INR > 1.5)
55
Factors involved in coagulopathies in cirrhosis include?
altered blood flow diminished numbers and function of platelets increased platelet sequestration in the spleen  inflammatory alterations in endothelial cells  Vit K deficiency
56
Why do some pts respond to exogenous vitamin K and others don't?
Patients with advanced parenchymal liver disease will not respond b/c liver isn't making factors to reverse it
57
Increased bilirubin production Decreased hepatic uptake Impaired conjugation These all may cause what?
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (indirect)